Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the survival needs for Humans and animals (1)

A
  • Communication
  • Intake and elimination
  • Protection and survival
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the survival needs for Humans and animals - Communication = Define and outline the different types of communication (1)

A

Definition: The receiving, collating and response to information

The different types of communication:
1) Transport systems
2) Internal communication
3) External communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Survival need: Communication 1) Transport systems - Outline the 3 transport systems (1)

A

1) Blood
2) Cardiovascular system
3) Lymphatic system (slide 28)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Survival need: Communication 2) Internal communication - Outline and describe the two systems for internal communication (1)

A

1) Nervous system - Rapid system
2) Endocrine system - slower more precise system (slide 29)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Survival need: Communication 3) External communication - Outline and describe the 3 ways of external communication (1)

A

1) Special senses - sight, hearing, balance, smell, taste
2) Verbal communication (speech) - Air passing over vocal cords (larynx)
3) Non verbal communication - Postures, movements (slide 30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Survival need: 3) External communication - Special senses - Outline the special senses (EENT) (1)

A

1) Vision
2) Hearing
3) Olfaction
4) Equilibrium
5) Gustation
Slide 31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Survival need: 2) Verbal communication - Describe how verbal communication (speech) is formed (1)

A

1) Sound is produced in the larynx
2) Expired air passes through over vocal cords which vibrates
3) Muscles in the throat, cheeks and movements of tongue and jaw forms speech
Slide 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Survival need: 3) Non - Verbal communication - Outline the different ways of non verbal communication (1)

A

Facial expression. e.g Fear, sadness, joy, anger
Beware of non-universal body language eg. Nodding / shaking of head​
Slide 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Recap questions - Communication
Outline which is true or false

1) The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord
2) Gustation is the special sense of smell

A

1) True
2) False
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. - True​

Gustation is the special sense of smell. – False, gustation is the sense of taste.​

This facial expression indicates anger. – False, disgust​

​
Slide 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Survival need: Intake and Elimination - Outline substances of intake and outline substances of elimination. (1)

A

Intake
1) Oxygen
2) Water
3) Food

Elimination
1) Carbon dioxide
2) Urine
3) Faeces

Slide 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Survival need: Intake and elimination: Respiration system (1)
What is eliminated and what is intake in the respiratory system?

A

The respiratory system enables intake of oxygen and elimination of carbon dioxide
Pharynx = throat​

Larynx = voice box​

Trachea = windpipe
Slide 37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Survival need: Intake and Elimination : Gastrointestinal tract
What is eliminated and what is intake in the Gastrointestinal tract? (1)

A

Ingestion (intake) of food and water
Elimination of faeces
Intake
- Macro/micronutrients
Digestion
- Breakdown of food
Metabolism
- Anabolism and catabolism
Excretion
- Solid waste (faeces)

Intake​

Balance of macronutrients​

Packed full of micronutrients​

Digestion​

Mechanical, chemical and enzymic breakdown of food​

Metabolism​

The chemical activity in the body, both anabolism (synthesising things) and catabolism (breaking things down to produce raw building blocks or for safer elimination)​

Excretion​

Solid waste excreted as faeces
Slide 38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Survival need: Intake and Elimination: Urinary system and hydration
What is eliminated and what is intake in the Urinary system (1)

A

Intake = Fluids (6-10 half pints min)
Absorption - In the small and large intestine
- Rapid transit = less absorption
Excretion
- Water, urea (protein break down), H+, water soluble waste
- By kidneys
- Urine stored in bladder, excreted in micturition

Intake​

Many people are dehydrated​

6-10 half pint glasses per day​

Absorption​

In the small and large intestines​

Rapid transit = less absorption​

Excretion​

Water, urea (protein break down), H+, water soluble waste​

By kidneys​

Urine stored in bladder, excreted ​

in micturition​

​
Slide 39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Recap questions - Intake and elimination
Which is true or false?
1) Respiration is involuntary
2) Digestion starts to take place in the stomach
3) We should drink 6-10 half pint glasses of water per day
(1)

A

1) T/F
2) F
3) T
Respiration is involuntary – True/false. Cellular respiration is completely involuntary. Respiration (breathing) can be both involuntary and also voluntary.​

Digestion starts to take place in the mouth – False, it starts in the mouth with chewing and saliva.​

We should drink 6-10 half pint glasses of water per day. - True​
Slide 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Survival need: Protection and Survival - Outline the ways for survival of the individual (1)

A

1) protection against external environment
2) Defence against infection
3) Movement
Slide 41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Survival need: Protection and survival - Outline the ways of survival of the species (1)

A
  • Reproduction
    slide 41
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Survival need: 1) Protection against external environment - Outline what is the main protection against external environment for animals

A

Skin
- Largest organ in body
Functions: Barrier (protection), sensory input, thermoregulation - (Barrier​, Microbes​, Chemicals, Dehydration ​, Sensory input​, Thermoregulation​)
Slide 42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Survival need:1) Protection against external environment - Skin - Describe the structure of the skin

A

Epidermis/dermis
Epidermis is the top layer, with layers of epithelial cells and slough off the surface
Dermis underneath contain blood vessels, nerve endings and hair follicle
Slide 42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Survival need: 2) Defence against infection - Immune system
Describe the Non specific defence (1)

A
  • Innate immune cells​
  • Defence at body surfaces​ = Physical barriers eg. skin, mucus, hair, cilia​
    Natural antimicrobial substances eg. saliva, stomach acid, tears ​
    Inflammation
    Slide 43
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Survival need: 2) Defence against infection - Immune system
Describe the Specific defence (1)

A

Adaptive immune system: ​

Cell mediated immunity (T-lymphocytes)​

Humoral (Ab) immunity (B-lymphocytes)​
Slide 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Survival need: 2) Defence against infection - Immune system

A

HCl, lysozyme, Ab, saliva, interferons, complement are all listed in the book under natural antimicrobial substances (non-specific defence mechanisms). I believe Ab and complement to be part of specific defence.​
Slide 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Survival need: 2) Defence against infection - Immune system - Interferon

A

Interferon: A type of cytokine – signalling molecules particularly involved in the immune response.​
Slide 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Survival need: 2) Defence against infection - Immune system - Lysozyme (1)

A

Lysozyme: Anti-microbial enzyme that attacks bacterial cell walls. Found in lots of bodily secretions including mucus, tears, saliva.​

Slide 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Survival need: 3) Movement - Musculoskeletal system (MSK) - what is it? (1)

A

The musculoskeletal system enables movement for hunting, escaping, fighting, reproduction​

Skeleton​

Joints​

Muscles​

Voluntary / involuntary (reflexes)​
Slide 44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Survival need: Survival of the species - Reproduction (1)

A

Survival of the fittest​

Ova, menstrual cycle​

Sperm​

Coitus​

Fertilisation​

Pregnancy​

Rearing young / maturation​
Slide 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Survival and protection - True or false:
The GI tract is the largest organ of the body.​

Snot is a really important part of the adaptive immune system.​

The musculoskeletal system is important for survival as it enables hunting, escaping, fighting and reproduction. (1)

A

The GI tract is the largest organ of the body. – False, skin​

Snot is a really important part of the adaptive immune system – False, part of the innate immune system acting as a non-specific barrier that carries pathogens out of the body.​

The musculoskeletal system is important for survival as it enables hunting, escaping, fighting and reproduction. - True​

​slide 46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Levels of organisation - Outline in Order (1)

A

Atoms​

Molecules​

Macromolecules​

Cells​

Tissues​

Organs​

Systems​

Organism
slide 6 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Levels of organisation: Tissues are made of specialised cells - Outline the 4 main types of tissue (you can see all types across the wall of the stomach). (1)

A

1) Epithelial
2) Connective
3) Muscle
4) Nervous
Slide 6 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Levels of organisation - Tissues
1) Epithelial
2) Connective (1)

A

Epithelial tissue – lining structures, covers the body and lines cavities, hollow organs and tubes​

Connective tissue – most abundant tissue in the body​
Most abundant tissue in the body!
Cells more spread out, more extracellular matrix
Slide 6 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Levels of organisation - Tissues
What are the functions? (1)

A

1) Structural support (bone, tendons, ligaments).
2) Protection
3) Transport
4) Insulation
Slide 6(2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Levels of organisation - Tissues
3) Muscle
4) Nervous (1)

A

Muscle tissue – Contractile tissue providing movement of the body and structures within the body​

Nervous tissue – both excitable (neurones) and non-excitable cells (that support the neurones).​
Slide 6 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the Respiratory system? (1)

A

provides O2 needed for oxidation (energy provision)
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of the Gastrointestinal tract (1)

A

breaks down nutrients, pass to liver via portal vein
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the function of the endocrine and nervous system? (1)

A

co-ordinates organ system activity by hormones or electrical signals
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of the Cardiovascular system? (1)

A

pumps blood around the body (delivers O2/ nutrients removes CO2/ waste)
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the function of the Renal system (1)

A

controls the contents of the extracellular fluid
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the function of the Musculoskeletal system? (1)

A

locomotion, maintenance of posture, breathing, protection
Slide 7 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Levels of Organisation Recap - True or false:
1) The liver is the largest organ of the body.​
2) The nervous system consists only of nervous tissue.​
3) The digestive system is only made of the stomach, small intestine and large intestine. (1)

A

1) The liver is the largest organ of the body. – False, skin is the largest organ of the body.​

2) The nervous system consists only of nervous tissue. – False, the nervous system also includes epithelial tissue, and connective tissue.​

3) The digestive system is only made of the stomach, small intestine and large intestine. – False, also includes the accessory organs of salivary glands, liver, gall bladder and pancreas.
Slide 9 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anatomical terminology: Body region (1)

A

Head / cranial / cephalic​

Facial​

Cervical​

Thorax / thoracic​

Abdomen​

Pelvis​

Lumbar​

Limbs – UEx /LEx**

Left = your right
Right - your left
Slide 10 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Standard anatomical position (1)

A

Slide 11 - Look at anatomy diagrams powerpoint
Standard anatomical position is standing with the palms facing forward.​

Left and right are from the patient’s perspective.​

Areas of the body have anatomical names and also common (or layman) names eg. orbit = eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anatomical terminology - Abdominal regions (1)

A

Slide 12 (2) - look at anatomy powerpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anatomical terminology - Abdominal regions (1) - Hypo

A

means under
slide 12 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Abdominal terminology - Abdominal regions (1) - Chondriac

A

means ribs
slide 12 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Abdominal terminology - Abdominal regions (1) - Epi

A

means above
Slide 12 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Abdominal terminology - Abdominal regions (1) - Gastric

A

means stomach
Slide 12 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Abdominal terminology - Abdominal regions (1) - Hypochondriac

A

The term hypochondriac (to mean an imaginary illness) comes from a time when physicians were often unable to tell exactly what the cause of a symptom was, but the symptoms were felt in the soft region under the ribs. The phrase changed meaning over time from an unspecified cause under the ribs to an unspecified cause that may be imagined….
Slide 12 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does sub- mean? (1)

A

Sub- Under, beneath, smaller
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Hypo - mean? (1)

A

Hypo- Under, beneath
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Infra - mean? (1)

A

Infra- Under, within, below
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Super - or Supra mean? (1)

A

Super- or Supra- Above, on top of
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Epi mean? (1)

A

Epi- Above, upon, on top of
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Fossa mean (1)

A

Fossa- Depression, hollow
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Inter- mean? (1)

A

Inter- Between
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Ad - mean? (1)

A

Ad- Towards
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anatomical terminology - prefixes
What does Ab - mean (1)

A

Ab- Away from
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Contra - mean? (1)

A

Contra- Opposite
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Ipsi - mean? (1)

A

Ipsi- Same
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Bi- mean? (1)

A

Bi- Two
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Anatomical terminology - Prefixes
What does Uni - mean? (1)

A

Uni- One
Slide 13 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anatomical terminology - Frontal or dorsal plane
(1)

A

Definition: A vertical plane that divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions. Also known as the coronal plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Anatomy terminology - Ventral-dorsal

A

Definition: Relating to the belly side (ventral) and the back side (dorsal) of an organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Anatomy terminology - Transverse plane

A

Definition: A horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) portions. Also known as the horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Anatomy terminology - Anterior-posterior (cranial-caudal)

A

Definition: Referring to the front (anterior or cranial) and back (posterior or caudal) aspects of an organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Anatomy terminology - Median or sagittal plane

A

Definition: A vertical plane that divides the body into left and right halves, running from head to tail. When it bisects the body into equal halves, it’s called the median plane. When it’s offset from the midline, it’s termed a parasagittal plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Medial-lateral

A

Definition: Relating to the midline (medial) and away from the midline (lateral) of an organism or structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Proximal-distal

A

Definition: Referring to positions near the point of attachment (proximal) or close to the center of the body, and away from the point of attachment (distal) or farther from the center of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Frontal plane

Ventral-dorsal = Anterior-posterior

A

Frontal plane
Definition: A vertical plane that divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions. Also known as the coronal plane.
Flashcard 2:

Term: Ventral-dorsal = Anterior-posterior
Definition: This refers to the belly side (ventral) and the back side (dorsal) of an organism, equivalent to anterior and posterior in humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Term: Transverse plane

Term: Cranial-caudal = Superior-inferior

A

Term: Transverse plane
Definition: A horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) portions. Also known as the horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane.
Flashcard 4:

Term: Cranial-caudal = Superior-inferior
Definition: Referring to positions towards the head (cranial or superior) or towards the feet (caudal or inferior) of an organism, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Term: Median or sagittal plane

Term: Medial-lateral

A

Term: Median or sagittal plane
Definition: A vertical plane that divides the body into left and right halves, running from head to tail. When it bisects the body into equal halves, it’s called the median plane. When it’s offset from the midline, it’s termed a parasagittal plane.
Flashcard 6:

Term: Medial-lateral
Definition: Relating to the midline (medial) and away from the midline (lateral) of an organism or structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Abdominal cavity

A

Stomach, small intestine, most of large intestine​

Liver, gall bladder, bile ducts, pancreas​

Spleen​

2 kidneys and upper parts of ureters​

2 adrenal glands​

Numerous blood vessels, lymph vessels/nodes, nerves​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Term: Proximal-distal
.

A

Term: Proximal-distal
Definition: Referring to positions near the point of attachment (proximal) or close to the center of the body, and away from the point of attachment (distal) or farther from the center of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (FSH) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)**

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH):
- A gonadotropic hormone (a type of hormone that primarily acts on the gonads, which are the reproductive organs responsible for producing gametes (sperm in males and eggs in females) and sex hormones (such as testosterone in males and estrogen and progesterone in females). Gonadotropic hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and include follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).)

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: In females, FSH stimulates/promotes the growth and development of ovarian follicles in the ovary before ovulation. In males, FSH stimulates/promotes the production of sperm in the testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (LH)

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: In females, LH stimulates ovulation and promotes the development of the corpus luteum.
The CL forms after ovulation; it produces estrogen and progesterone.
In males, LH stimulates the production of testosterone in the testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (GH)

A

Growth Hormone (GH):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: Stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and regeneration in humans and other animals. It also plays a role in regulating metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (ACTH)

A

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: Stimulates the adrenal glands to release cortisol, a hormone involved in stress response and regulation of metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (TSH)

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which regulate metabolism, growth, and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (PRL)

A

Prolactin (PRL):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland.
Function: Stimulates milk production (lactation) in mammary glands following childbirth. It also has roles in reproductive function and behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of anterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (MSH)

A

Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH):

Secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland (pars intermedia).
Function: Regulates pigmentation by stimulating the production and distribution of melanin in the skin, hair, and eyes. It also plays a role in appetite and energy balance regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of posterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the posterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (ADH)

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), also known as Vasopressin:

Secreted by: Posterior pituitary gland.
Function: Regulates water balance in the body by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys. It also plays a role in regulating blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Week 11 - Hypothalamic regulation of posterior pituitary gland - Slide 5
Hormones from the posterior pituitary gland - Outline the hormones (OXY)

A

Oxytocin:

Secreted by: Posterior pituitary gland.
Function: Stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and promotes milk ejection (letdown reflex) during breastfeeding. Additionally, oxytocin is involved in social bonding, trust, and emotional regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Week 11- Slide 8 - Hypthalamic Pituitary Testicular axis? +++

A

a hormonal system responsible for regulating the male reproductive system. It involves interactions between the hypothalamus, the anterior pituitary gland, and the testes.

Process -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Week 11 - Ovarian Hormones slide 9
Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone which –

A

prepare the uterus for pregnancy - Estrogen and progesterone work together to regulate the menstrual cycle and prepare the uterine lining (endometrium) for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. Estrogen stimulates the growth of the endometrium during the first half of the menstrual cycle, while progesterone maintains its thickened state during the second half, making it conducive for embryo implantation.

promote the development of mammary glands - Estrogen and progesterone are involved in the development and maintenance of the mammary glands, preparing them for potential lactation during pregnancy.

play a role in sex drive = Estrogen and progesterone contribute to sexual desire and arousal by influencing various physiological processes, including the regulation of reproductive hormones and the maintenance of reproductive organs’ health.

Promote development of secondary sexual characteristics = Estrogen is primarily responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females, such as breast development, widening of the hips, and distribution of body fat. Progesterone also plays a role in maintaining these characteristics.

Regulate LH and FSH secretion = Estrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland, regulating the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). During the menstrual cycle, rising levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit the release of LH and FSH, helping to regulate ovulation and the menstrual cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Week 11 - Prolactin - from anterior Pituitary gland

A
  • Simulates the development and growth of the mammary glands and milk synthesis during pregnancy

Lactation: Prolactin is stimulating milk production in mammary glands after childbirth. It promotes the growth and development of mammary tissue and stimulates the synthesis of milk components, including lactose, lipids, and proteins.

Regulation of Milk Secretion: Prolactin acts on mammary glands to initiate and maintain lactation. It works in conjunction with other hormones, such as oxytocin, which is responsible for milk ejection (the “letdown reflex”) during breastfeeding.

Role in Reproductive Function: Prolactin also plays a role in regulating reproductive function beyond lactation
(Sucking action of the offspring stimulates prolactin secretion from Anterior Pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Week 11 - Oxytocin - from posterior pituitary gland… slide 11

A

Stimulates the uterus to contract during childbirth.
= Oxytocin is perhaps best known for its role in initiating and coordinating uterine contractions during childbirth. As labor progresses, oxytocin levels increase, stimulating rhythmic contractions of the uterine muscles, which help to dilate the cervix and push the baby through the birth canal. These contractions continue during the delivery of the placenta.

A synthetic analogue of oxytocin can be used to induce childbirth

Induce child birth = Synthetic forms of oxytocin, known as oxytocin analogues or oxytocin agonists, can be administered medically to induce or augment labor when necessary. This synthetic oxytocin is commonly used in clinical settings to help start or speed up labor if there are concerns about the progression of labor or if the health of the mother or baby is at risk.

Also stimulates the mammary glands to release milk in response to suckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Vulva

A

from pubic area down to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Labia majora

A

(“greater lips”) – outer lips enclosing vestibule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Labia minora

A

(“lesser lips”) thin, hairless ridges at the entrance of the vestibule which join behind and in front. In front they split to enclose the clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Vestibule

A

area enclosed by labia minora that leads to opening of vagina and urethra; clitoris at anterior end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Vaginal opening

A

8-10 cm long thin-walled, muscular canal leading from the vestibule (between labia minora) to cervix. The urethra also opens into vestibule between clitoris and vaginal opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia
Clitoris

A

small pea-shaped structure. Plays important role in sexual arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Week 11 - Female external genitalia

Bartholin’s glands

A

pair of pea-sized glands; drain into the vestibule at either side of the vaginal opening; secrete lubricating fluid during sexual arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Week 11 - Female internal genitalia - Vagina

A

from vestibule to cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Week 11 - Female internal genitalia - Cervix

A

connects vagina to ‘neck’ of uterus; secretes mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Week 11 - Female internal genitalia - Uterus

A

– pair-shaped; myometrium and endometrium; secretes fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Week 11 - Female internal genitalia
- Fallopian tubes

A

with funnel shaped openings (fimbriae) near ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Week 11 - Female internal genitalia - Ovaries

A

with ovarian follicles and corpora lutea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Week 11 - Human menstrual cycle slide 23 - Follicular phase

A

Follicle growth and selection of ovulatory follicle in which oocyte matures

During this phase, multiple follicles in the ovaries begin to grow and develop under the influence of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Eventually, one dominant follicle becomes the ovulatory follicle, while the others degenerate.
The ovulatory follicle contains a mature oocyte (egg) ready for ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Week 11 - Human menstrual cycle - Slide 23 - Ovulation ***

A

Follicle ruptures - oocyte released

Ovulation marks the release of the mature oocyte from the ovary into the fallopian tube.
This event is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) and is typically mid-cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Week 11 - Human Menstrual Cycle - Slide 23 - Luteal Phase

A

Corpus luteum forms
Endometrium prepared for blastocyst implantation

After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into a structure called the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and some estrogen.
Progesterone prepares the endometrium (lining of the uterus) for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Week 11 - Human Menstrual Cycle - Slide 23 - If no pregnancy

A

Menstruation
Cycle repeats

If No Pregnancy Occurs:

If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to a decline in progesterone and estrogen levels.
This decline triggers the shedding of the uterine lining, known as menstruation.

Menstruation:

During menstruation, the unfertilized egg, along with the uterine lining and blood, is shed through the vagina.
This marks the end of one estrous cycle, and the cycle repeats with the onset of the next follicular phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Week 11- Slide 25 - The Uterine/Endometrial cycle
The Proliferative phase - from Mid follicular phase of ovarian cycle

A

The proliferative phase is driven by rising levels of estrogen, which are produced by the growing ovarian follicles.

Increased Thickness of Endometrium:

Estrogen stimulates the proliferation and growth of the endometrial lining (uterine lining), leading to an increase in its thickness.
Angiogenesis:

Estrogen also promotes angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels within the endometrial tissue. This ensures an adequate blood supply to support the growing endometrium.
Growth of Endometrial Glands:

Under the influence of estrogen,** the endometrial glands undergo growth and development, preparing them for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.**
**Secretion of Thin, Stringy Mucus in Cervical Canal (“Sperm-Friendly”):
**
The cervix secretes thin, clear, and stringy mucus during the proliferative phase, which is more conducive to sperm migration through the cervical canal.
This type of mucus, often referred to as “sperm-friendly” mucus, provides an optimal environment for sperm survival and facilitates their passage through the cervix and into the uterus and fallopian tubes for potential fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Week 11- Slide 25 - The Uterine/Endometrial cycle
The Secretory phase - Linked top luteal phase of ovarian cycle

A

The secretory phase is driven by high levels of progesterone, which are produced by the corpus luteum. Estrogen also continues to play a role during this phase.

Further Endometrial Gland Development and More Secretory Activity:

Progesterone promotes further development and enlargement of the endometrial glands. These glands become more secretory, producing nutrients and substances to support potential implantation of a fertilized egg.
Further Increase in Blood Supply:

Further increase in blood supply
The endometrium experiences a further increase in blood supply during the secretory phase, ensuring adequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to support potential embryo development.
Lipid and Glycogen Deposition:

Lipid and glycogen deposition -
Progesterone stimulates the deposition of lipids (fats) and glycogen in the endometrial tissue, providing a source of energy for the developing embryo.
Favorable Environment for Embryo Implantation and Sustenance:

Favourable environment for embryo implantation and sustenance
The secretory phase creates a favourable environment within the uterus for embryo implantation and early pregnancy. The thickened, nutrient-rich endometrium provides an ideal site for the embryo to implant and receive nourishment.
Stickier, More Viscous Mucus from Cervical Glands (“Sperm Hostile”):

The cervical glands secrete a stickier, more viscous type of mucus during the secretory phase, which is less conducive to sperm migration. This “sperm-hostile” mucus acts as a barrier to prevent additional sperm from entering the uterus and fallopian tubes after ovulation has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Week 11- Slide 25 - The Uterine/Endometrial cycle
Menstruation - At end of luteal phase

A

caused by sudden decrease of progesterone and oestrogen at luteolysis - loss of hormonal stimulation initiates necrosis in the endometrium —> new cycle

Caused by Sudden Decrease of Progesterone and Oestrogen:
Menstruation is triggered by a sudden decrease in the levels of progesterone and estrogen, the two hormones primarily produced by the corpus luteum during the luteal phase.
The decline in hormone levels occurs due to the degeneration of the corpus luteum, a process known as luteolysis.

Luteolysis:
Luteolysis refers to the breakdown and degeneration of the corpus luteum, which occurs if fertilization and implantation of an embryo do not occur.
As the corpus luteum regresses, it stops producing progesterone and estrogen, leading to a decline in their circulating levels.
Loss of Hormonal Stimulation Initiates Necrosis in the

Endometrium:
The sudden decrease in progesterone and estrogen levels leads to a loss of hormonal stimulation of the endometrium.
Without hormonal support, the endometrial tissue undergoes necrosis (cell death) and begins to slough off from the uterine wall.

Initiation of a New Cycle:
(The shedding of the endometrium marks the beginning of a new menstrual cycle.
Following menstruation, the hypothalamus-pituitary-ovarian axis is activated again, leading to the recruitment and growth of new ovarian follicles and the initiation of a new cycle of ovulation.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Week 11 - Slide 27 = Endometrium ***-

A

A rich nutritive environment for implantation of early embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Week 11 - Slide 29 - Hormones of the placenta

A
  • Placenta serves as an endocrine gland
  • Produces chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hCG)
  • Estrogen and Progesterone

hCG hormone
Production:

hCG is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast cells of the placenta shortly after implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.
Detection in Pregnancy Tests:

hCG is the hormone detected by home pregnancy tests. It is present in the urine and blood of pregnant women, and its levels rise rapidly in early pregnancy.
Functions:

hCG plays several important roles during pregnancy:
It supports the corpus luteum in the ovary, which continues to produce progesterone during the early stages of pregnancy. Progesterone is essential for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting the developing embryo until the placenta takes over hormone production.
It stimulates the production of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum, which helps maintain the pregnancy.
It promotes the development of the placenta and fetal organs.
It prevents the mother’s immune system from rejecting the developing embryo by suppressing immune responses.
Diagnostic Use:

hCG levels are monitored in clinical settings as a marker of pregnancy health. Abnormal hCG levels can indicate potential issues such as ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or molar pregnancy.
hCG levels also play a role in assessing the progression of pregnancy, particularly in cases of suspected miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Week 11- Slide 30 - Hormones of Placenta - How a pregnancy test works

A

Collection of Urine Sample:
A woman collects a urine sample, usually by urinating directly onto a test stick or into a container provided with the test kit.

hCG Detection:
The test kit contains antibodies that are specific to hCG. These antibodies react with hCG present in the urine sample.

Indicator of Pregnancy:
If hCG is present in the urine sample (indicating pregnancy), it binds to the antibodies on the test strip, causing a color change or other visible signal (such as a line appearing on the test strip).
The appearance of the color change or indicator line typically indicates a positive result, indicating that the woman is pregnant.

Interpretation of Results:
The woman reads and interprets the test results according to the instructions provided with the test kit. A positive result indicates pregnancy, while a negative result indicates the absence of detectable levels of hCG in the urine (indicating no pregnancy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Week 11 - Slide 35 - The Testis and Spermatogenesis

A

Testes and Spermatogenesis:

Spermatogenesis is the process by which spermatozoa (sperm cells), the male haploid gametes, are produced within the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
The testes are the male reproductive organs responsible for the production of sperm and the synthesis of male sex hormones, such as testosterone.

Temperature Regulation in the Scrotum:
The testes are located outside the body cavity, in a sac-like structure called the scrotum. The scrotum serves to house and protect the testes.
One of the critical functions of the scrotum is temperature regulation. The testes require a slightly lower temperature than the core body temperature (around 2-3 degrees Celsius cooler) for optimal sperm production.
The cremaster muscle and dartos muscle in the scrotum contract or relax in response to environmental temperature changes or stress, adjusting the position of the testes to regulate their temperature.
This mechanism helps maintain the testes within the optimal temperature range for spermatogenesis, thereby ensuring efficient sperm production.

Impact of Elevated Temperature on Spermatogenesis:

Spermatogenesis is sensitive to temperature fluctuations. Elevated temperatures, such as those experienced within the core body (37°C in humans), can disrupt the process of sperm production.
Factors such as tight-fitting clothing, excessive heat exposure, or certain medical conditions can lead to increased scrotal temperature and potentially impact fertility by affecting spermatogenesis

Failure of Testicular Descent:During fetal development, the testes initially develop near the kidneys and gradually descend into the scrotum before birth. This process is known as testicular descent or testicular migration.
Failure of testicular descent, where one or both testes do not descend fully into the scrotum, is a congenital condition known as cryptorchidism.
Cryptorchidism can lead to infertility due to impaired spermatogenesis caused by the higher temperature within the body cavity compared to the scrotum. It also increases the risk of testicular cancer and other health issues if left untreated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Week 11 - Slide 36 - The Testis and Spermatogenesis

A

Seminiferous Tubules:
The seminiferous tubules are tightly coiled tubes located within the testes, and they are the primary sites of spermatogenesis—the process of sperm production.
Sites for Spermatogenesis:
Within the seminiferous tubules, spermatogenesis occurs.

Initiation of Spermatogenesis:

Spermatogenesis begins with spermatogonia, which are located around the periphery of the seminiferous tubules.
At puberty, under the influence of hormones such as follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone, spermatogonia begin to proliferate and differentiate.
Proliferation and Meiosis:

Spermatogonia undergo mitotic division to produce primary spermatocytes, which then enter meiosis.
During meiosis, primary spermatocytes undergo two rounds of cell division (meiosis I and meiosis II) to produce haploid spermatids.
Movement of Spermatids:

As spermatids are formed, they move towards the lumen (center) of the seminiferous tubule.
The process of spermiogenesis then occurs, during which spermatids undergo further structural and functional changes to become mature, fully formed spermatozoa.
Release of Spermatozoa:

Fully formed spermatozoa are released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.
From there, they are transported to the epididymis, where they undergo further maturation and are stored until ejaculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Week 11 - Slide 38 - The testis

Key Cell type - Germ cells

A

Germ cells are the reproductive cells responsible for producing spermatozoa (sperm cells) through the process of spermatogenesis.
They begin as spermatogonia, which are located around the periphery of the seminiferous tubules, where spermatogenesis occurs.
Germ cells undergo mitosis, meiosis, and spermiogenesis to differentiate into mature spermatozoa.
Spermatozoa are released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and eventually pass through the epididymis for further maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Week 11 - Slide 38 - Key cell type Sertoli cells

A

Sertoli Cells (Sustentacular Cells):

Sertoli cells are somatic cells that provide structural and nutritional support to developing germ c**ells within the seminiferous tubules.
They form the epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules and create a specialized microenvironment for spermatogenesis.
Sertoli cells are involved in regulating the process of spermatogenesis by providing physical support, secreting growth factors and hormones, and phagocytosing defective germ cells.
They also form tight junctions to create the blood-testis barrier, which separates the developing germ cells from the bloodstream and protects them from immune attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Week 11 - the testis - slide 38 - Key cell type - Leydig cells

A

Leydig Cells (Interstitial Cells):

Leydig cells are located in the interstitial spaces between the seminiferous tubules.
They are responsible for producing and secreting testosterone, the primary male sex hormone.
Testosterone produced by Leydig cells plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive organs and secondary sexual characteristics, as well as in regulating spermatogenesis.
Leydig cells are stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland to produce testosterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Week 11 - Sperm passage through male tract - PROCESS - Slide 39

A

After spermatozoa are released into the seminiferous tubule lumen, they are delivered via the rete testis to a long, highly coiled tube called the epididymis (~6 meters long in human!)

the sperm cell is not motile when it first arrives at the epididymis and must ‘mature’ there for > 1 day before motility develops

from the epididymis, the sperm is delivered to another long, straight muscular-walled tube, the vas deferens (~30 cm long x 4mm wide in human)

During ejaculation, sperm travel from each vas deferens to the paired ejaculatory ducts (where duct from each seminal vesicle joins) to enter the urethra

Sperm mixed with secretions from accessory glands (seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbo-urethral gland) during ejaculation

Semen (typically 2-5ml with >100 million sperm) deposited in female tract (usually vagina but directly into uterus in some species e.g. pig)

Epididymis:

After spermatozoa are released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules, they travel through the rete testis and into the epididymis.
The epididymis is a long, highly coiled tube located on the surface of each testis.
Spermatozoa remain in the epididymis for over a day, undergoing maturation processes such as capacitation and acquiring motility.
Vas Deferens:

From the epididymis, mature and motile spermatozoa are delivered to the vas deferens.
The vas deferens is a long, straight muscular-walled tube that extends from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity.
Its function is to transport spermatozoa from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts during ejaculation.
Ejaculatory Ducts and Urethra:

During ejaculation, spermatozoa travel from each vas deferens to the paired ejaculatory ducts.
The ejaculatory ducts merge with the urethra within the prostate gland.
Spermatozoa are then expelled from the body through the urethra during ejaculation.
Accessory Glands and Semen Production:

Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands are accessory glands that contribute secretions to semen.
These secretions provide nutrients, buffer pH, and enhance sperm motility and survival.
During ejaculation, spermatozoa mix with secretions from these glands to form semen.
Deposition of Semen in Female Tract:

Semen, containing spermatozoa and secretions from accessory glands, is typically deposited in the female reproductive tract during sexual intercourse.
In most mammals, including humans, semen is deposited into the vagina. However, in some species like pigs, semen can be deposited directly into the uterus.
Spermatozoa then swim through the female reproductive tract in search of an egg for fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Week 11- slide 42 - Testicular hormones - Testerone benefits

A

Essential for normal growth, development and function of the male genitalia.
Promotes muscle development, male pattern hair growth
Promotes libido
Regulates LH and FSH secretion (-ve feedback)

113
Q

Week 11 - Slide 44 - Penis : Anatomy and Physiology - Regions of erectile tissue
3 different regions of erectile tissue:
- pair of parallel spongy columns called corpora cavernosa
- central corpus spongiosum enclosing urethra.

Corpora Cavernosa

A

The corpora cavernosa are a pair of parallel spongy columns of erectile tissue located on the dorsal aspect (upper side) of the penis.
They are the main erectile tissue structures responsible for the majority of penile rigidity during an erection.
Each corpus cavernosum is composed of highly vascularized, sponge-like tissue containing numerous cavernous sinuses, which are small blood-filled spaces.

114
Q

Week 11 - Slide 44 - Penis : Anatomy and Physiology - Regions of erectile tissue
Corpus Spongiosum

A

The corpus spongiosum is a single, midline structure located ventrally (underside) in the penis.
It surrounds the urethra, the tube that carries urine and semen out of the body during urination and ejaculation.
The corpus spongiosum also contains erectile tissue and contributes to penile rigidity during erection, although to a lesser extent than the corpora cavernosa.

115
Q

Week 11 - Slide 44 - Penis : Anatomy and Physiology - Regions of erectile tissue
Cavernous sinuses

A

**Erectile tissue rich in tiny pool-shaped blood vessels called cavernous sinuses - that fill with blood during an erection.

Surrounded by cylindrical connective tissue sheath

The erectile tissue within the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum is rich in tiny pool-shaped blood vessels known as cavernous sinuses.
During sexual arousal, these cavernous sinuses fill with blood, causing the erectile tissue to become engorged and the penis to become erect.
The in**crease in blood flow and pressure within the cavernous sinuses **is essential for achieving and maintaining an erection.

116
Q

Week 11 - Slide 44 - Penis : Anatomy and Physiology - Regions of erectile tissue - Connective tissue sheath

A

The erectile tissue of the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum is surrounded by a cylindrical connective tissue sheath known as the tunica albuginea.
The tunica albuginea provides structural support and helps maintain the shape and integrity of the erectile tissue during erection.
It also plays a role in regulating blood flow into and out of the cavernous sinuses during the erectile process.

117
Q

Week 11 - Slide 46 - Different types of penis
Musculovascular

A

Examples include humans, stallions, dogs, and tomcats.
Contains abundant erectile tissue and relatively little connective tissue.
During erection, there is an increase in both length and diameter of the penis due to the expansion of the cavernous tissue.
The cavernous tissue contains large blood spaces divided by thin septa, requiring a relatively larger volume of blood to achieve erection.
Many species in this category also possess a penis bone called a baculum or os penis, which provides structural support during copulation.

118
Q

Week 11 - Slide 46 - Different types of penis
- Fibroelastic

A

Examples include bulls, boars, rams, and deer.
Characterized by a sigmoid flexure, a curved or S-shaped structure in the non-erect state.
Contains large amounts of connective tissue and elastic fibers but limited erectile tissue.
During erection, most of the increase in penile length is due to straightening of the sigmoid flexure, resulting in elongation of the penis but no significant increase in diameter.
Only a small increase in blood volume is needed for erection due to the limited erectile tissue.

119
Q

Week 11 - Slide 50 - Erections - How are they achieved and sustained

A

In flaccid state the cavernous sinuses are constricted, so less blood present.
During sexual arousal acetylcholine released from parasympathetic nerves => endothelial cells to produce nitric oxide (NO)
NO promotes relaxation of the smooth muscle surrounding the arterioles and sinuses of erectile tissues, causing sinusoidal dilation.
Tissue engorgement exerts pressure on the cylindrical sheath (tunica albuginea)
This flattens the surrounding veins ‘trapping’ blood => erection

Flaccid State:
In the flaccid state, the cavernous sinuses within the erectile tissue of the penis are constricted, resulting in reduced blood flow and less blood present within the erectile tissue.

Sexual Arousal and Nitric Oxide (NO) Release:
During sexual arousal, parasympathetic nerves release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
Acetylcholine stimulates endothelial cells within the erectile tissue to produce nitric oxide (NO).

Nitric Oxide-Mediated Vasodilation:
Nitric oxide (NO) acts as a vasodilator, promoting relaxation of the smooth muscle surrounding the arterioles and sinuses of the erectile tissues.
This relaxation leads to the dilation of the cavernous sinuses, allowing them to fill with blood.

Tissue Engorgement and Pressure:
The relaxation of the smooth muscle and dilation of the cavernous sinuses result in tissue engorgement, causing the erectile tissue to become filled with blood and increase in size.
As the erectile tissue becomes engorged, it exerts pressure on the cylindrical sheath surrounding it, known as the tunica albuginea.

Compression of Veins and Erection:
The pressure exerted by the engorged erectile tissue on the tunica albuginea compresses the surrounding veins.
This compression effectively traps the blood within the erectile tissue, preventing it from flowing out of the penis.
The accumulation of blood within the erectile tissue leads to the physiological phenomenon known as an erection.

120
Q

Week 11 - How does local NO production relax vascular smooth muscle - Slide 51

A

Neurotransmitters (Ach) released from the cavernous nerve, stimulate production of eNOS within the vascular endothelial cells
[NOS = nitric oxide synthase]
NO is synthesized and diffuses into surrounding vascular smooth muscle

Once inside NO binds to and activates guanylyl cyclase which converts GTP into the second messenger cGMP

cGMP activates its dependent protein kinase - protein kinase G (PKG)

PKG activation promotes vascular smooth muscle relaxation by:
Hyperpolarization (by opening K+ channels)
Endoplasmic reticulum sequestration of Ca2+
Inhibition of Ca2+ channels, stopping influx
 Reduced free intracellular Ca2+ conc
Smooth muscle relaxation => engorgement with blood => ERECTION

Flaccid State:
In the flaccid state, the cavernous sinuses within the erectile tissue of the penis are constricted, resulting in reduced blood flow and less blood present within the erectile tissue.

Sexual Arousal and Nitric Oxide (NO) Release:
During sexual arousal, parasympathetic nerves release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
Acetylcholine stimulates endothelial cells within the erectile tissue to produce nitric oxide (NO).

Nitric Oxide-Mediated Vasodilation:
Nitric oxide (NO) acts as a vasodilator, promoting relaxation of the smooth muscle surrounding the arterioles and sinuses of the erectile tissues.
This relaxation leads to the dilation of the cavernous sinuses, allowing them to fill with blood.

Tissue Engorgement and Pressure:
The relaxation of the smooth muscle and dilation of the cavernous sinuses result in tissue engorgement, causing the erectile tissue to become filled with blood and increase in size.
As the erectile tissue becomes engorged, it exerts pressure on the cylindrical sheath surrounding it, known as the tunica albuginea.

Compression of Veins and Erection:
The pressure exerted by the engorged erectile tissue on the tunica albuginea compresses the surrounding veins.
This compression effectively traps the blood within the erectile tissue, preventing it from flowing out of the penis.
The accumulation of blood within the erectile tissue leads to the physiological phenomenon known as an erection.

121
Q
A
122
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - What are nerves? Slide 3

A

Nerves are bundles of neurones in the PNS
Tracts = bundles of neurones in the CNS
Sciatic nerve contains tens-of-thousands of axons!

123
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - Outline and Describe the sciatic nerve? - Endoneurium

A

The sciatic nerve is one of the largest nerves in the body and indeed contains tens of thousands of axons.

Endoneurium: surrounds axons

This is the innermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a nerve bundle.
It provides support and protection to the axons, as well as facilitating the exchange of nutrients and waste products.

124
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - Outline and Describe the sciatic nerve? - Perineurium

A

Perineurium: surrounds bundles of axons

The perineurium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds bundles of axons within a nerve.
It forms a protective barrier and helps maintain the structural integrity of the nerve bundle.
Perineurial cells are specialized cells within this layer that regulate the exchange of substances between the blood vessels and the nerve tissue.

125
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - Outline and Describe the sciatic nerve? - Epineurium

A

Epineurium: Surrounds bundles of encasing blood vessels

The epineurium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve.
It consists of dense irregular connective tissue and provides protection and support to the entire nerve structure.
Additionally, the epineurium contains blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen to the nerve tissue.

126
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - Sensory (afferent)

A

Sensory Nerves (Afferent Nerves):

Sensory nerves transmit sensory information from peripheral tissues, organs, and sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS), specifically to the brain and spinal cord.

(They convey various sensory modalities such as touch, pain, temperature, pressure, proprioception (awareness of body position), and information from the special senses (vision, hearing, taste, smell).

127
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - Motor *efferent (slide 4)

A

Motor Nerves (Efferent Nerves):

Motor nerves carry motor signals from the CNS to peripheral effectors, such as muscles, glands, and other tissues.
They control voluntary movements of skeletal muscles (somatic motor nerves) as well as involuntary activities of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glandular secretion (visceral motor nerves).

128
Q

Week 10 -Nerves - Mixed (slide 4)

A

Mixed Nerves:

Some nerves in the peripheral nervous system are mixed nerves, meaning they contain both sensory and motor fibers within the same nerve bundle.
These mixed nerves can transmit both sensory information from peripheral tissues to the CNS and motor signals from the CNS to peripheral effectors.
Examples of mixed nerves include the sciatic nerve, which contains both sensory fibers from the leg and motor fibers to the muscles of the leg and foot.

129
Q

Week 10 - Nerves (slide 4) - Where do autonomic afferents travel

A

Autonomic afferents are sensory neurons that carry signals from the peripheral tissues and organs back to the central nervous system (CNS)
autonomic afferents transmit information about the internal environment of the body.

The autonomic afferents travel via the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves (like the sensory)

130
Q

Week 10 - Nerves - slide 4 - What are autonomic efferents

A

Autonomic efferents are motor neurons that carry signals from the central nervous system (CNS), specifically from the autonomic centers located in the brainstem and spinal cord,** to the peripheral tissues and organs innervated** by the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

autonomic efferents regulate involuntary bodily functions, including:

Cardiovascular System:

Autonomic efferents influence heart rate, cardiac contractility, and blood vessel diameter to regulate blood pressure and blood flow distribution throughout the body.

autonomic efferents travel via the symp and parasymp (like the motor).

131
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory (Afferent) nerves

A

have specialised receptors that respond to different stimuli and carry that info to the spinal cord ( brain or reflex arc)

4 types
General somatic sensation (touch, temp, pain)
Special somatic sensation (proprioception)
Autonomic afferent sensation
Special senses (sight, hearing, balance, smell, taste)

132
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent) - General somatic sensation - slide 6

A

Sensory neurons responsible for general somatic sensation detect stimuli related to touch, temperature, and pain from the skin, muscles, joints, and other superficial and deep tissues.
These sensations are crucial for basic interactions with the environment and for detecting potential threats or injuries.

General somatic sensation, also known as somatic or cutaneous sensation, encompasses various sensory modalities that provide information about the body’s external environment and its interaction with external stimuli.

These sensations include touch, temperature, and pain

133
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent) - General somatic sensation - Touch

A

Touch sensation involves the** detection of mechanical stimuli** applied to the skin or other tissues.
Different types of touch are mediated by specialized sensory receptors located within the skin:

Coarse touch – Merkel’s disks
Pressure – Ruffini’s end organs
Light touch – Meissner’s corpuscle
Vibration – Pacinian corpuscle

Coarse touch is sensed by Merkel’s disks, which are specialized nerve endings located in the superficial layers of the skin.
Pressure is detected by Ruffini’s end organs, which respond to sustained pressure or stretching of the skin.
Light touch is sensed by Meissner’s corpuscles, which are rapidly adapting receptors found in the dermal papillae of hairless skin.
Vibration is detected by Pacinian corpuscles, which are rapidly adapting receptors distributed throughout the skin and deeper tissues.

134
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent) - General somatic sensation - Temperature

A

Temperature:
Temperature
Warm (34-45C)
Cold (5-34C)
Pain (<5C or >45C)

Temperature sensation involves the detection of thermal stimuli, including warmth and cold.
Warmth is sensed when temperatures range between 34-45°C, and cold is sensed when temperatures range between 5-34°C.
Extreme temperatures (<5°C or >45°C) can activate pain receptors and elicit a sensation of pain.

135
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent) - General somatic sensation - Pain

A

Pain:

Pain sensation, or nociception, occurs in response to tissue damage or injury and serves as a protective mechanism.
Nociceptive pain arises from the activation of pain receptors, known as nociceptors, which respond to mechanical, thermal, or chemical stimuli associated with tissue damage.
Neuropathic pain occurs due to injury or dysfunction of the nervous system itself, leading to abnormal processing of pain signals.

Neuropathic pain (injury to nerves)
Nociceptive pain (injury to tissues – mechanical, thermal or chemical irritation of free nerve endings

136
Q

Week 10 - Slide 7 - Sensory Nerve Pathway - 3 neurones carry sensation from skin to brain - 1) Primary sensory neurone (PNS)

A

Somatic sensory receptors in skin, cell body in posterior root ganglion
Enters spinal cord

Sensory information from the skin and other peripheral tissues is detected by somatic sensory receptors.
These receptors are typically located in the skin and have specialized structures for detecting touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.
The cell bodies of primary sensory neurons are located in clusters called posterior root ganglia, which are located adjacent to the spinal cord.
Sensory signals are transmitted along the axons of primary sensory neurons and enter the spinal cord through the dorsal roots.

137
Q

Week 10 - Slide 7 - Sensory Nerve Pathway - 3 neurones carry sensation from skin to brain - 1) Secondary sensory neurones (CNS)

A

Some 2 sensory nerves synapse and decussate immediately (in cord)
Others synapse and decussate in medulla oblongata
Travels to thalamus

Upon entering the spinal cord, some secondary sensory neurons immediately synapse and decussate (cross over to the opposite side) in the spinal cord itself.
Others ascend within the spinal cord to higher levels and synapse and decussate in the medulla oblongata, part of the brainstem.
After decussation, the secondary sensory neurons continue their ascent toward the brain.

138
Q

Week 10 - Slide 7 - Sensory Nerve Pathway - 3 neurones carry sensation from skin to brain - 1) Tertiary sensory neurones (CNS)

A

Synapse in thalamus
Travels to somatosensory cortex

The axons of secondary sensory neurons synapse in the thalamus, a relay station in the brain.
From the thalamus, tertiary sensory neurons transmit the sensory information to the somatosensory cortex, which is located in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
In the somatosensory cortex, sensory information is processed and interpreted, leading to conscious perception of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.

Right cerebral cortex senses left body and vice versa

sensory information from the right side of the body is processed in the left hemisphere of the brain, and vice versa. (This crossing over of sensory pathways is known as contralateral organization.)

139
Q

Decussation

A

Decussation – see depends on what sensation as different sensations are carried in different tracts up the spinal cord. Some tracts decussate immediately, others in the medulla.
Notice how long some of the primary sensory neurones can be!!! (those that decussate in the medulla). Diabetes and other systemic conditions that cause neuropathy (damage to neurones) tend to affect the longest neurones in the body, possibly they are exposed to the greatest surface area of toxicity.

Decussation involves the crossing over of nerve fibers from one side of the body to the other within the central nervous system.
It occurs at various levels along neural pathways, depending on the specific sensory or motor information and its location within the nervous system.
In sensory pathways, decussation happens at different points along the spinal cord and brainstem.
Some sensory pathways decussate immediately upon entering the spinal cord, where signals from one side of the body cross over to the opposite side.
Others ascend within the spinal cord and may not decussate until reaching higher brainstem structures like the medulla oblongata.
Decussation is significant due to the contralateral organization of sensory and motor pathways.
For example, sensory information from the right side of the body is processed in the left hemisphere of the brain, and vice versa.

140
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent)
Special Somatic Proprioception

A

Perception of body position in space maintaining balance and posture

Sensors found in muscles, tendons and ligaments
E.g. Muscle spindles
Sense stretch AND velocity (intrafusal)
Involved in reflexes

Two main types of proprioceptive receptors are involved:

Muscle Spindles:
Muscle spindles are sensory receptors found within muscle fibers.
They sense both the stretch and velocity of muscle fibers during contraction and relaxation.
Muscle spindles are crucial for reflexive responses to changes in muscle length, such as the stretch reflex, which helps maintain muscle tone and posture.
In addition to sensing stretch, muscle spindles can also initiate muscle contractions in response to rapid stretching to prevent overstretching and protect against injury.

Golgi Tendon Organs (GTOs):
Golgi tendon organs are proprioceptive receptors located at the junction between muscles and tendons.
They sense changes in muscle tension or contraction, specifically when muscles pull on tendons.
Golgi tendon organs respond to excessive muscle tension by producing a reflexive relaxation of the muscle, helping to prevent excessive force generation and potential damage to tendons or muscle fibers.
Golgi tendon organs are particularly important in mechanisms such as muscle energy techniques (METs), where manual therapy techniques aim to enhance muscle relaxation and improve flexibility.
Both muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs play crucial roles in proprioception, but muscle spindles are often considered more important due to their ability to sense both stretch and velocity, as well as their involvement in reflexive muscle responses.

these proprioceptive receptors contribute to the body’s ability to sense and adapt to changes in position, movement, and muscle tension, ultimately aiding in maintaining balance, posture, and coordination.

141
Q

Week 10 - Sensory function - Sensory neurones (afferent)
Autonomic Afferent Sensation slide 9

A

involves sensory fibers within both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).

These transmit impulses for:

Sensations (hunger, thirst, nausea, sexual sensation, rectal and bladder distension)

Visceral reflexes (cough, blood pressure (baroreceptors), (pressure-sensitive receptors), and control of respiration via chemoreceptors (sensors sensitive to changes in blood chemistry, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide levels).

Visceral pain (ischaemia / inflammation, over-contraction, over-distension)
ischemia (reduced blood flow), inflammation, over-contraction, or over-distension of internal organs.

142
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Where do they originate

A

In the brain and spinal chord and autonomic ganglia

143
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Somatic motor nerves

A

Skeletal muscle contraction
Voluntary OR reflex
Upper motor neurones (from brain to level in spinal cord)
Lower motor neurones (from spinal cord to muscle)

Somatic motor nerves originate from the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
These nerves innervate skeletal muscles, controlling voluntary movements such as walking, grasping, and speaking, as well as reflex actions.
Somatic motor pathways involve upper motor neurons that originate in the brain and project down to the spinal cord, where they synapse with lower motor neurons.
Lower motor neurons, located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord, extend their axons out to the muscles, directly causing muscle contraction.

144
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Somatic motor nerves - Skeletal muscle fibres

A

Skeletal muscle fibres each receive a single, excitatory motor neuron terminal, forming one neuromuscular junction (NMJ) per muscle fibre (called the motor unit) at the vast majority (~98%) of fibres.
The neurotransmitter at all NMJs is acetylcholine (ACh) which act on postsynaptic nicotinic ACh receptors (nAChRs).

Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ) in Skeletal Muscle:

Each skeletal muscle fiber receives input from a single, excitatory motor neuron terminal, forming a neuromuscular junction (NMJ).
At the NMJ, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is released from the motor neuron and acts on postsynaptic nicotinic ACh receptors (nAChRs) on the muscle fiber membrane, leading to muscle contraction.

145
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Autonomic efferent nerves - Smooth muscle

A

. Smooth muscle contraction is myogenic (i.e. does not rely on neural input) to display intrinsic, rhythmic contraction.
Smooth muscle often receive a dual innervation from the sympathetic and parasympathetic NS divisions of the ANS.

Smooth Muscle Contraction:
Smooth muscle contraction is myogenic, meaning it can contract rhythmically without neural input.
However, smooth muscle often receives dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS), allowing for modulation of its activity.

Cardiac and smooth muscle contraction
Myogenic (so don’t need neural input), but also innervated by PNS

146
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Autonomic efferent nerves - Cardiac muscle

A

Cardiac muscle contraction is also myogenic, but different parts of the heart have different intrinsic frequencies of contraction.
The pacemaker region receives a dual innervation from the sympathetic and parasympathetic NS.

Cardiac Muscle Contraction:
Like smooth muscle, cardiac muscle contraction is myogenic and can generate its own rhythmic contractions.
Different regions of the heart have intrinsic frequencies of contraction, with the pacemaker region setting the overall heart rate.
The pacemaker region receives dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS, which can modulate heart rate and contraction strength.

147
Q

Week 10 - Motor (Efferent) Nerves Slide 11 - Autonomic efferent nerves - Glands*****

A

Glands (secretion)
Sympathetic OR parasympathetic

148
Q

Week 10 - Motor Nerve Pathway - Slide 12

A

2 neurones carry motor impulses from the brain to the skeletal muscle:
80-90% of motor nerves decussate at the medulla to run down the contralateral side, but 10% don’t decussate and run down the ipsilateral side.

149
Q

Week 10 - Motor Nerve Pathway - Slide 12 - Upper Motor Neurone

A

Upper motor neurone (UMN) - CNS
Cell body in motor cortex
Decussates (crosses) in the medulla oblongata
Descends in spinal cord

Location and Cell Body:
Upper motor neurons are located within the CNS, specifically in the primary motor cortex of the brain.
The cell bodies of upper motor neurons reside in the motor cortex, which is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

Decussation (Crossing) in the Medulla Oblongata:
One of the defining features of upper motor neurons is their decussation, or crossing over, of fibers from one side of the CNS to the other.
After originating in the motor cortex, the axons of upper motor neurons descend through the brain and brainstem.
Most upper motor neurons decussate in the medulla oblongata, the lower part of the brainstem, where they cross over to the opposite side of the body.

Descent in the Spinal Cord:
After decussating in the medulla oblongata, the axons of upper motor neurons continue to descend through the spinal cord.
These descending fibers form the corticospinal tract, also known as the pyramidal tract, which is a major pathway for transmitting motor signals from the brain to the spinal cord.
The corticospinal tract termi

150
Q

Week 10 - Motor Nerve Pathway - Slide 12 - Lower Motor Neurone

A

At appropriate level in spinal cord UMN synapses with LMN
Exits spinal cord
Terminates at motor end plate of muscle fibre (NMJ)
Right cerebral cortex controls movement of left body and vice versa

Location and Synapse:
Lower motor neurons are located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord and in certain cranial nerve nuclei within the brainstem.
Upon receiving input from upper motor neurons (UMNs) originating in the motor cortex, brainstem, or other motor centers, lower motor neurons form synapses with these upper motor neurons at appropriate levels in the spinal cord or brainstem.
Exit from Spinal Cord or Brainstem:

After receiving input from upper motor neurons, lower motor neurons exit the spinal cord via the ventral roots or exit the brainstem through cranial nerves.
These axons then travel through peripheral nerves to reach their target muscles.
Termination at Motor End Plate (Neuromuscular Junction - NMJ):

Lower motor neurons terminate at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), where they form synapses with individual muscle fibers.
At the NMJ, the axon of the lower motor neuron releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) into the synaptic cleft.
ACh binds to receptors on the motor end plate of the muscle fiber, leading to depolarization of the muscle membrane and initiation of muscle contraction.

151
Q

Week 10 - Neuromuscular Junctions - Slide 14

A

1) ACh crosses synapse and binds to AChR, opening Na+ channels
2) Influx of Na+ makes it more +ve inside and triggers depolarisation of the muscle cell membrane
3) Depolarisation spreads across muscle cell membrane and down into T-tubules
4) Releases calcium stores from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
5) Calcium binds to troponin C activating sliding filament theory
6) Acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in synaptic cleft.

Acetylcholinesterase in synaptic cleft rapidly degrades released ACh.
Depolarisation: making the inside of the cell more positive (as Na+ floods inside down its concentration gradient).

1) Acetylcholine (ACh) Release and Binding:
When an action potential reaches the axon terminal of the lower motor neuron, it triggers the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft.
ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) located on the motor end plate of the muscle fiber.

2) Depolarization of Muscle Cell Membrane:
Binding of ACh to AChRs opens sodium (Na^+) channels on the motor end plate.
Na^+ ions rush into the muscle fiber, making the interior of the cell more positively charged (depolarized).

3) Propagation of Depolarization:
The depolarization of the motor end plate spreads across the muscle cell membrane and travels down into the T-tubules (transverse tubules), which are invaginations of the muscle cell membrane.

4) Release of Calcium (Ca^2+) from Sarcoplasmic Reticulum:
The depolarization of the T-tubules triggers the release of calcium ions (Ca^2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), a specialized organelle within the muscle cell.
Calcium ions flood into the muscle cell’s cytoplasm, increasing the concentration of calcium ions in the vicinity of the myofibrils.

5) Activation of Sliding Filament Theory:
Calcium ions bind to troponin C, a regulatory protein associated with the thin filament of the muscle cell.
This binding causes a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex, exposing the active sites on the actin filaments.
Myosin heads (from thick filaments) can now bind to these active sites on actin, initiating the cross-bridge cycle and leading to muscle contraction.

6) Degradation of Acetylcholine (ACh):
Acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme located in the synaptic cleft, rapidly degrades ACh into acetate and choline.
Degradation of ACh prevents continuous stimulation of the AChRs and ensures that muscle contraction is brief and precisely controlled.

152
Q

Week 10 - Neuromuscular junction - Motor unit - Slide 15

A

the functional element of muscle contraction: = single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it activates
A single motor unit may have 3-1500 muscle fibres, but individual fibres receive 1 motor neuron input

153
Q

Week 10 - Neuromuscular junction - Motor control - slide 15

A

Coarse Motor Control:

Motor units with a large number of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron are responsible for coarse motor control.
These motor units are typically found in muscles that are involved in large-scale movements and activities requiring strength, such as the quadriceps in the thighs or the gluteus maximus in the buttocks.
Because many muscle fibers are activated simultaneously by a single motor neuron, these muscles are capable of generating powerful contractions but lack fine control over individual muscle fibers.

154
Q

Week 10 - Neuromuscular junction - fine Motor control - slide 15

A

Motor units with a small number of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron are responsible for fine motor control.
These motor units are found in muscles that require precise and delicate movements, such as those controlling the fingers, hands, and face.
Because fewer muscle fibers are activated by each motor neuron, these muscles can produce subtle movements and adjustments with high precision and accuracy.
Fine motor control allows for tasks requiring dexterity, coordination, and intricate movements, such as writing, typing, or playing a musical instrument.

155
Q
A

Each muscle fibre is stimulated by only one synaptic bouton (releasing ACh) but each motor nerve has many synaptic boutons, stimulating numerous muscle fibres (a motor unit).
Each motor unit contracts to its full capacity.
Strength of a contraction depends upon the number of motor units activated.
Motor control depends upon the number of muscle fibres supplied by a single neurone
Research drugs / chemicals that act on the NMJ to cause paralysis (used in anaesthetics / ancient poisons (Curare) / Botox)

Motor control: More muscle fibres per incoming neurone causes large–scale movements (eg. Quadriceps), whilst less muscle fibres per incoming neurone gives more precise control (eg. fingers).
Knots in muscles: Myofascial trigger points – sustained local contraction of a small number of muscle fibres within a muscle tissue (possibly due to high ACh), causing localised ischaemia and pain. Pressure on the trigger point can cause radiating or referred pain distant to the site of compression.

156
Q
A

NMJs are blocked by:
paralysing poisons such as curare - derived from tree bark and used as an arrow poison by South American Indians, act to block nAChRs
agents acting at nAChRs during general anaesthesia to control convulsions/prevent movement during surgery
by local injection of botulinum toxin (Botox®), which blocks vesicle release from the presynaptic membrane. Used cosmetically and clinically to treat muscle spasms

157
Q

Week 10 - slide 18 - Mixed Nerves

A

In the spinal cord sensory and motor nerves run in separate tracts
In the PNS, sensory and motor nerves are enclosed within the same sheath (mixed nerves)
Impingement (squashing) of a peripheral nerve can cause both sensory (pain, P&Ns) and motor (weakness, atrophy) symptoms

E.g. The sciatic nerve contains both afferent sensory nerve fibres and efferent motor nerve fibres.
Squashing of the sciatic nerve can cause pain down the back of the leg, pins and needles to the foot and weakness in dorsi-flexion of the foot and/or big toe (affecting walking).
Squashing of the ulnar nerve can cause pain and pins & needles to the 4th and little finger, and weakness in abducting / adducting the fingers (and some wrist flexion weakness).

158
Q

Week 10 - Speed of Nerve Fibre types - Conduction is dependent on both diameter and myelination - Slide

A

Nerve conduction is dependent on both diameter AND myelination.
Bigger diameter nerves transmit faster eg. Motor neurons, touch.
Smaller diameter nerves transmit slower eg. Temperature, pain.
Myelinated nerves transmit faster.
Some neurons have Schwann cells (to keep them nourished and alive) but do not get myelinated eg. Autonomic postganglionic neurons, slow pain.
Concept of fast pain and slow pain.

159
Q

Week 10 - Slide 20 - Pain - Gate theory

A

Pain-Gate Mechanism:

The theory suggests that the transmission of pain impulses can be modulated or inhibited by the activation of large-diameter (faster) tactile fibers (Aβ fibers).
When these tactile fibers are stimulated, they can “close the gate” in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, reducing the transmission of pain signals carried by smaller-diameter (slower) pain fibers (Aδ and C fibers).
This mechanism helps explain how non-painful stimuli, such as touch, vibration, and temperature, can alleviate pain sensation.

160
Q

Week 10 - Slide 20 - Pain - Gate theory - Rubbing or Vibration

A

Rubbing (Touch):

Rubbing or gentle touch stimulates large-diameter Aβ fibers, which can activate the pain-gate mechanism and reduce the perception of pain.
This is why rubbing or massaging an area can provide relief from acute or chronic pain.
Vibration (Buzzy):

Vibration stimulates Aβ fibers, similar to touch, and can activate the pain-gate mechanism.
Buzzy devices, which provide vibrational stimulation, are sometimes used to alleviate pain, such as during procedures like IV access.

161
Q

Week 10 - Slide 20 - Pain - Gate theory
Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) + Temperature (Heat or Cold):

A

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS):
TENS machines deliver electrical impulses through the skin, stimulating Aβ fibers.
This stimulation can activate the pain-gate mechanism, leading to pain relief.

Temperature (Heat or Cold):
Both heat and cold stimuli can stimulate Aδ fibers, which transmit temperature sensations.
These sensations can compete with or override the perception of dull achy inflammatory pain carried by C fibers, providing relief.
However, they may not be as effective for sharp, burning neuropathic pain, which is carried by Aδ fibers.

162
Q

Week 10 - Human Spinal Nerves - Anatomy - Spinal Nerves:
Spinal nerves are mixed nerves, meaning they contain both sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) fibers.
These nerves emerge from the spinal cord and travel to various parts of the body, branching out to innervate muscles, skin,

A

anterior is the vertebral body, posterior is the spinous process that you can feel if you run your hand down your back.
The spinal cord (CNS) is in the vertebral canal and you can see the classic butterfly pattern of grey matter in the centre (nerve cell bodies), and white matter around the butterfly (myelinated axons running up and down the spinal cord).
Going into the spinal cord on either side is an anterior root and a posterior root. All sensory goes in at the back (via the posterior root). All motor exits at the front (via the anterior root).
The posterior root ganglion is where all the cell bodies of the primary sensory nerves are collected.
The anterior and posterior roots merge to form the spinal nerve (mixed ie. both sensory and motor fibres).

163
Q

Week 10 - Slide 25 - Plexuses

A

Groups of spinal nerves where the nerve fibres regroup and branch before supplying skin, bones, muscles and joints

164
Q

Week 10 - Slide 25 - Plexuses - What are the 5 large plexuses

A

Cervical plexus  neck + diaphragm
Brachial plexus  arms
Lumbar plexus
Sacral plexus legs / pelvis
Coccygeal plexus

(No thoracic plexus – no regrouping and branching)

165
Q

Week 10 - Slide 26 - Main Nerves of the Upper Extremity (UEx)

A

Median nerve
 thumb side of hand
Ulnar nerve
 little finger side of hand
Radial nerve
 back of arm

166
Q

Week 10 - Slide 27 - Main nerves of the Lower Extremity (LEx)

A

Femoral nerve
 front of thigh
Obturator nerve
 inner thigh
Sciatic nerve
 back of leg (thickest nerve of the body!)

Sciatic nerve contains 10’s of thousands of axons!
Sciatic nerve about the same thickness as your thumb

167
Q

Peripheral Nerve pathways

A

These peripheral nerves contain a mix of lower motor neurones and primary sensory neurones.

These peripheral nerves contain a mix of lower motor neurones and primary sensory neurones.
The length of the lower motor neurones is from the spinal cord level to the muscle.
The length of the primary sensory neurone is from the skin to the first synapse (may be in the medulla!).

Decussation:
Motor: 80-90% of motor nerves decussate at the medulla to run down the contralateral side, but 10% don’t decussate and run down the ipsilateral side.
Sensory: Location of decussation depends on what sensation as different sensations are carried in different tracts up the spinal cord. Some tracts decussate immediately, others in the medulla.
Notice how long some of the primary sensory neurones can be!!! (those that decussate in the medulla). Diabetes and other systemic conditions that cause neuropathy (damage to neurones) tend to affect the longest neurones in the body, possibly they are exposed to the greatest surface area of toxicity.

168
Q

Week 10 - Slide 31 - Cranial nerves

A

Peripheral nerves for head and neck (mostly)
Numbered I to XII from front to back.
Functions of cranial nerves
- Some sensory
- Some motor
- Some mixed

169
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions

A

Carry sensory (somatic or special senses), motor and/or autonomic innervation e.g.
Special senses
Smell (CNI)
Sight (CNII)
Taste (CNVII and IX)
Hearing (CNVIII)
Balance (CNVIII)

170
Q

Not needed but appreciated

A

Motor control of:
Eye movement (CN III, IV and VI)
Mastication (chewing) (CNV)
Facial expressions (CNVII)
Swallowing (CNIX and X)
Speech (CNIX and X)
Shrugging shoulder (CNXI)
Tongue (CNXII)
Sensation:
Face, mouth (CNV)
Ear (CNVII and X)

171
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions - Smell

A

Smell (CNI)
CNI – Olfactory nerve carries smell

172
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions - Sight

A

Sight (CNII)
CNII – Optic nerve carries sight

173
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions - Taste

A

Taste (CNVII and IX)
CNVII – Facial nerve – and CNIX – glossopharyngeal nerve carry taste

174
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions - Hearing

A

Hearing (CNVIII)
CNVIII – Vestibulocochlear nerve (sometimes called the auditory nerve) carries hearing and balance

175
Q

Week 10 - Slide 32 - Cranial Nerve functions - Balance

A

Balance (CNVIII)
CNVIII – Vestibulocochlear nerve (sometimes called the auditory nerve) carries hearing and balance

176
Q

Week 10 - CNX slide 33

A

The Great Vagus Nerve or The Wanderer!
Carries parasympathetic motor and sensory innervation to lots of viscera (rest and digest).
Smooth muscle contraction
Secretory glands
Sensory from organs
Not in spinal column!

IMPORTANT
CNX, the Great Vagus Nerve
A vagrant is a tramp or a wanderer. So the great wanderer…
CNX is a parasympathetic motor and sensory nerve that goes to loads of viscera in the body ie. beyond the head and neck.
All sorts of viscera (organs) – digestive system, heart, lungs…
Carries motor function causing smooth muscle contraction of gut, and motor to cardiac muscle (slows contraction).
Also triggers secretory glands to release digestive juices etc.
As well as motor effects, it also carries sensory information from those organs back up to the brain.
The Vagus nerve is a parasympathetic nerve (part of the autonomic nervous system) and we’ll learn more about the parasympathetic nervous system in a bit. But basically, the parasympathetics are for the rest and digest functions ie. stimulating the gut to digest dinner (peristalsis, release digestive organs). Also stimulates the “rest” bit ie. slows heart (that sleepy feel after a big meal).
Vagus nerve goes beyond the stomach, right down into the pelvis. Picture only shows as far as stomach but it goes much further.
It’s amazing that even though this nerve goes all the way down to the pelvis, it’s not found in the spinal cord, it sits outside of the spine
Function:

The vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve (CN X) and carries both motor and sensory fibers.
It primarily serves parasympathetic functions, regulating various involuntary processes involved in the “rest and digest” response.
Functions include stimulating smooth muscle contraction in organs, controlling secretory glands, and transmitting sensory information from internal organs to the brain.
Parasympathetic Motor Innervation:

The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic motor innervation to numerous visceral organs, including the heart, lungs, stomach, pancreas, liver, and intestines.
Parasympathetic stimulation via the vagus nerve promotes activities such as slowing heart rate, increasing gastrointestinal motility and secretion, and stimulating digestive processes.
Sensory Innervation:

In addition to motor functions, the vagus nerve also carries sensory fibers that provide sensory innervation from various organs, including the heart, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, liver, and spleen.
Sensory information transmitted by the vagus nerve includes signals related to stretch, pressure, and chemical changes within the organs.
Not in Spinal Column:

Unlike spinal nerves, which emerge from the spinal column, the vagus nerve originates directly from the brainstem, specifically from the medulla oblongata.
From its origin in the medulla, the vagus nerve extends downward through the neck, chest, and abdomen, innervating a wide range of organs along its course.
Clinical Significance:

Dysfunction of the vagus nerve can lead to various health issues, including problems with heart rate regulation, gastrointestinal motility disorders, and impaired digestion.
Stimulation of the vagus nerve has also been explored as a therapeutic approach for conditions such as epilepsy, depression, and inflammatory disorders.

177
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System

A

Part of PNS
Controls involuntary functions
Eg. smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands
2 divisions:
1) Sympathetic = Fight /flight/freeze
2) Rest and digest (restore /recover)
Autonomic efferent neurones have 2 LMNs: Pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic

178
Q

Sympathetic NS - Slide 37 = Week 10

A

**Sympathetic neurones exit the spinal cord at each level from T1 to L2
These form the sympathetic chain either side of the vertebrae

Sympathetic neurones exit the spinal cord at each level from T1 to L2
These form the sympathetic chain / trunk either side of the anterior vertebrae.
Sympathetic Trunk / Chain: Where some sympathetic nerves synapse, whilst others pass straight through.

Blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles innervated by symp with little/no parasymp influence. SNS causes vasodilation in skeletal muscle but vasoconstriction in gut.
Note that the sympathetic NS emerges from T1 to about L2/3.
Autonomic efferent neurones have 2 LMNs: Pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic
Note the gangion –** 2 lower motor neurones (pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic).**
The pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurones synapse in variable places – some in the sympathetic trunk, some in prevertebral ganglions.

In reality there is a lot of overlap and each organ is supplied by several segmental levels.
T1-4: Heart and Lungs
T5: Liver
T6: Gall bladder
T7: Pancreas Stomach Spleen
T8: Adrenals
T9: Small intestine
T10: Kidneys
T11: Ovaries and Testes
T12: Bladder and Large intestine
L1: Uterus and Prostate
L2: Rectum
I remember the order with this anacronym: Hell Likes Grilling Petite Stumbling Spinning Adults, Small Kiddies, Or Their Blooming Large UPperty Rabbits

179
Q

Parasympathetic NS - Slide 39 Week 10

A

Parasympathetic neurones exit either the brain (cranial outflow) or the spinal cord (sacral outflow)

Parasympathetic neurones exit either the brain or the spinal cord
Cranial outflow: CN III, VII, IX and X
Sacral outflow
Pelvic splanchnic nerves are the parasympathetic outflow at S2,3,4 (tiny branches from the sacral spinal nerves at the same levels).
O/A = occipito-atlantic joint (base of skull) – where cranial parasympathetic nerves exit.
SIJ = sacroiliac joint (sacrum to pelvis). – near the sacral outflow

Note that the parasympathetic NS has both a cranial part and a sacral part.
Note the ganglions – 2 motor neurones (pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic)

180
Q
A
181
Q
A
182
Q
A
183
Q
A
184
Q
A
185
Q

Week (3) (22) The skeletal system - What is the MSK (The musculoskeletal
system ) - Slide 5

A

The musculoskeletal
system enables movement
for hunting, escaping,
fighting, reproduction.

Movement can be
voluntary / involuntary
(reflexes)

186
Q

Week (3) (22) The skeletal system - What is the axial skeleton? (slide 7)

A

Axial Skeleton: This forms the central axis of the body and includes the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum (breastbone). It provides support and protection for the organs within the dorsal and ventral body cavities, including the brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs.

187
Q

Week (3) (22) The skeletal system - What is the appendicular skeleton? (slide 7)

A

This consists of the bones of the limbs (arms and legs) and the bones that connect them to the axial skeleton. It includes
* the shoulder girdle (scapula and clavicle),
* bones of the arms (humerus, radius, ulna),
* bones of the hands (carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges)
* , pelvic girdle (hip bones)
* , bones of the legs (femur, tibia, fibula),
* bones of the feet (tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges), and associated joints.

188
Q

Week (3) (22) The skeletal system - What is joints (8)

A

The join between 2
bones
* Held together by
ligaments - ( tough bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect bones to each other across the joint. They provide stability and prevent excessive movement of the joint.)

Movement controlled by
muscles and their
tendons

189
Q

Week (3) (22) - The skeletal system - Joints (types) 1) Fibrous (immovable)

joints are held together by dense fibrous connective tissue and allow little to no movement between the bones

A

Suture - Found only in the skull, sutures are immovable fibrous joints that fuse the skull bones together.
* Syndesmosis -These joints have slightly more mobility compared to sutures and are connected by ligaments. An example is the distal tibiofibular joint in the lower leg.

190
Q

Week (3) (22) - The skeletal system - Joints (types) 2) Cartilaginous (semi-moveable,
tough fibrocartilage

A

joints are connected by cartilage and allow limited movement. There are two main subtypes:

Primary
– joints at birth but fuse later
* Secondary
– midline ones
Primary (Synchondrosis): These are temporary joints found in infants and children, where the connecting cartilage is eventually replaced by bone. An example is the epiphyseal plate in long bones.
Secondary (Symphysis): These joints have a pad of fibrocartilage between the bones, providing shock absorption and slight movement. Examples include the intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis.

191
Q

Week (3) (22) - The skeletal system - Joints (types) 3) Synovial (freely moveable, hyaline
cartilage)

A

most freely movable joints in the body. They have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid, allowing for smooth movement between the bones. There are several subtypes:

Hinge: These joints allow movement in only one plane, like a door hinge. Examples include the elbow and knee.
Ball and Socket: These joints allow for the widest range of motion, with one bone having a spherical end that fits into a cup-like depression on the other bone. Examples include the shoulder and hip.
Pivot: These joints allow rotation around a central axis. An example is the joint between the first and second cervical vertebrae (atlantoaxial joint).
Saddle: These joints allow movement in two planes, similar to a rider sitting in a saddle. The best example is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Condyloid (Ellipsoidal): These joints allow movement in two planes, like a condyle fitting into an elliptical socket. Examples include the wrist (radiocarpal joint) and the metacarpophalangeal joints.
Gliding (Plane): These joints allow sliding or gliding movements between flat or slightly curved surfaces. Examples include the joints between the carpals in the wrist and the tarsals in the ankle.

192
Q

Week (3) (22) - The skeletal system - Types of bone
* Long bones
– UEx and LEx

A
193
Q
A
194
Q

Week 7 Blood - Blood functions - Respiration
Transportation
Protection
Thermoregulation

A

Respiration: Supplies oxygen to tissues and cells, removes carbon dioxide.
Transportation: Carries nutrients, waste products, and hormones.
Protection: Defends against infections, aids in tissue repair.
Thermoregulation: Regulates body temperature.

195
Q

Week 7 Blood - Blood functions - Blood Components for Functions:
Respiration
Transportation
Protection
Thermoregulation

A

Respiration: Red blood cells
Transportation: Plasma
Protection: White blood cells
Tissue Repair: Platelets
Thermoregulation: Plasma (regulates heat loss and gain)

196
Q

Week 7 - blood functions - Blood

A

liquid that fills the vascular compartment and serves to transport dissolved materials and blood cells throughout the body
- Plasma (~55% total​ blood volume)​
- White blood cells &​ platelets (<1% whole blood)​
- Red blood cells​ (~45% whole blood)​
WHITE BLOOD CELLS /PLATELETS/RED BLOOD CELLS = HAEMOCRIT

The average human has 4 to 6L of blood​

197
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Definition of Blood:

What is blood described as in “Porth’s Pathophysiology”?
How does blood function in the body?
What distinguishes blood from some other body fluids?

A

Definition of Blood:

Blood is described as a liquid that fills the vascular compartment, transporting dissolved materials and blood cells throughout the body. Unlike some body fluids, blood cells are carried rather than dissolved within the blood.

198
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Hematocrit:

Define hematocrit.
What components does hematocrit encompass?
Which component primarily constitutes hematocrit?

A

Hematocrit:

Hematocrit refers to the combined volume of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, primarily composed of red blood cells.

199
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Largest Cells in Blood:

Which cells are the largest in the blood?
Why don’t these cells settle at the bottom of a tube?

A

Largest Cells in Blood:

White blood cells are the largest cells in the blood.
They don’t settle at the bottom of a tube due to their relatively low density compared to red blood cells.

200
Q

Week 7 - Blood -Thermoregulation:

What is thermoregulation?
How does the body regulate temperature in hot environments?
How does the body regulate temperature in cold environments?

A

Thermoregulation:

Thermoregulation is the body’s ability to regulate temperature.
In hot conditions, blood flow is directed to the skin’s surface to dissipate heat, while in cold conditions, blood flow is directed to the body’s core to conserve heat.
Mechanisms such as sweating and shivering aid in temperature regulation by utilizing the latent heat of evaporation and generating heat through muscle contractions, respectively

Extreme heat

Circulation diverts blood to surface to cool the body

Sweating

Extreme cold

Circulation diverts blood to deep/core to maintain body heat

Hair

Shivering

In hot environments, we’re able to redirect blood flow to the body’s surface. This involves opening blood vessels leading to the capillary bed near the skin surface while constricting deeper vessels. By doing so, heat can dissipate from the body’s surface. Additionally, sweating aids in cooling down the body by utilizing the latent heat of evaporation. Conversely, in cold conditions, we aim to retain heat by constricting blood vessels near the skin surface, directing most of the blood flow to the body’s core. Though some blood still circulates near the surface, measures such as having hair stand up and shivering help trap warm air and generate heat through muscle contractions. These mechanisms involve the manipulation of blood flow throughout the body for effective temperature regulation

201
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Plasma -

A

Plasma is mostly water, serving as a solvent for transporting substances.

Dissolved substances in plasma include ions (e.g., sodium), which play a crucial role in osmotic balance.

Other electrolytes in plasma have functions like nerve conduction, muscle contractions, and pH buffering.

Plasma also carries proteins, notably albumin, fibrinogen, and immunoglobulins.

Albumin helps maintain osmotic balance by retaining liquid within blood vessels.

Plasma transports nutrients, waste products, gases (e.g., oxygen, carbon dioxide), and hormones.

202
Q

Week 7 - Blood - RBC, WBC and platelets

A

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are highly abundant, numbering about 5 to 6 million per microliter.

Therefore, a single drop of blood contains approximately 500 million red blood cells.

White blood cells (leukocytes) range from 5,000 to 10,000 per microliter, totaling about 500,000 in a drop of blood.

Platelets, crucial for clotting, range from 250,000 to 400,000 per microliter, amounting to around 25 million in a drop of blood.

203
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Haematopoeisis - Bone Marrow:

What is bone marrow?
How many types of bone marrow are there?
What is the primary function of red marrow?
What type of bones primarily contain red marrow?

A

Bone Marrow:

Bone marrow is the spongy tissue found inside bones. There are two types: red marrow and yellow marrow. Red marrow is primarily responsible for blood cell production and is found mainly in flat bones.

Occurs in bone marrow - spongy tissue inside bones that produces blood cells.

RED marrow in flat bones produces most blood cells

YELLOW marrow in long bones produces some WBC

204
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Yellow Marrow:

Where is yellow marrow located?
What type of blood cells can yellow marrow produce?
Where does the bulk of blood cell production occur?

A

Yellow Marrow:

Yellow marrow is located in long bones and can also produce some white blood cells, although the bulk of blood cell production occurs in red marrow

205
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Flat Bones:

What are flat bones?
Name examples of flat bones.
Why are these bones significant in blood cell production?

A

Flat Bones:

Flat bones include the scapula, pelvis, sternum (or breastbone), and ribs. Despite not being commonly recognized as flat bones, ribs fall into this category. These bones, especially the pelvis, serve as major sites for blood cell production, although blood cells can also be produced in other bones, albeit less significantly.

206
Q

Week 7 - blood Drop of Blood:

What is the approximate volume of a drop of blood?
How many red blood cells are estimated to be in 1 drop of blood?
What about white blood cells?
How many platelets are estimated to be in 1 drop of blood?

A

Drop of Blood:

A drop of blood is approximately 100 microliters in volume. It contains roughly 5 million red blood cells, 4,000 to 11,000 white blood cells, and 150,000 to 400,000 platelets per microliter.

207
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Stem Cells:

What are stem cells?
What is their potential in terms of cell development?
Stroma Composition:

What is stroma?
Name the different cell types that make up the stroma.
What are the functions of these cell types?

A

Stem Cells:

Stem cells are undifferentiated cells with the potential to develop into various specialized cell types.
Stroma Composition:

Stroma is the supportive tissue in the bone marrow, composed of fibroblasts, macrophages, adipocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

208
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Maturation of Blood Cells:

How do red blood cells mature?
Describe the maturation process of white blood cells.
How are platelets produced?
Exceptions in Growth Factor Production:

What is erythropoietin?
Where is erythropoietin produced, and what is its role?
What is thrombopoietin?
Where is thrombopoietin produced, and what is its function?

A

Maturation of Blood Cells:

Red blood cells mature from stem cells by ejecting their nuclei.
White blood cells, like neutrophils, undergo morphological changes during maturation.
Platelets are produced from megakaryocytes, with fragments released into circulation.
Exceptions in Growth Factor Production:

Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production and is produced by the kidneys.
Thrombopoietin regulates platelet production and is produced by the liver.

209
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Hematopoietic Stem Cell:

What is a hematopoietic stem cell?
Define “multipotent” in the context of stem cells.
What are the two daughters of a hematopoietic stem cell?

A

Hematopoietic Stem Cell:

Hematopoietic stem cells are multipotent, capable of giving rise to various blood cell types.
The two daughters of a hematopoietic stem cell are common myeloid progenitors and common lymphoid progenitors.

210
Q

Week 7 - Maturation of Platelets:

Describe the process of thrombopoiesis.
What is the role of thrombopoietin?

A

Maturation of Platelets:

Thrombopoiesis is the process of platelet production, regulated by thrombopoietin.

211
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Erythropoiesis:

What is erythropoiesis?
Explain the role of erythropoietin.
What are red blood cells also known as?
Granulopoiesis:

Define granulopoiesis.
Name the three types of granulocytes.
What distinguishes granulocytes?

A

Erythropoiesis:

Erythropoiesis is the maturation process of red blood cells from blast cells, regulated by erythropoietin.
Red blood cells are also called erythrocytes.
Granulopoiesis:

Granulopoiesis is the maturation process of granulocytes, including basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils.
Granulocytes are characterized by their granules, hence the name.

212
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Monocytes and Macrophages:

Describe the maturation process of monocytes.
What happens to monocytes once they leave the bloodstream?
What are the functions of macrophages and dendritic cells?
Lymphoid Cells:

What are lymphoblasts?
Describe the roles of B and T lymphocytes.
What is the function of natural killer cells?

A

Monocytes and Macrophages:

Monocytes mature into macrophages or dendritic cells, which play roles in tissue and immune function.
Macrophages are scavengers, while dendritic cells present antigens to the immune system.
Lymphoid Cells:

Lymphoblasts give rise to B and T lymphocytes, which function in immune responses.
Natural killer cells are part of the innate immune system and destroy infected or abnormal cells.

213
Q

Week 7 - blood - Megakaryopoiesis:

What does megakaryopoiesis produce?
What type of cell does megakaryopoiesis originate from?

A

What does megakaryopoiesis produce?
Platelets.
What type of cell does megakaryopoiesis originate from?
Megakaryoblasts.

214
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Erythropoiesis:

What is the main product of erythropoiesis?
What regulates erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis:

What is the main product of erythropoiesis?
Red blood cells (RBCs).
What regulates erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin.

215
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Granulopoiesis:

What does granulopoiesis produce?
What are the characteristics of granulocytes?

A

Granulopoiesis:

What does granulopoiesis produce?
Granulocytes.
What are the characteristics of granulocytes?
They have granules and are part of the innate immune system.

216
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Monocytopoiesis:

What does monocytopoiesis produce?
What is the function of monocytes and macrophages?

A

Monocytopoiesis:

What does monocytopoiesis produce?
Monocytes.
What is the function of monocytes and macrophages?
They are phagocytes, clearing debris or dead cells.

217
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Lymphopoiesis:

What does lymphopoiesis produce?
What are the two main types of lymphocytes?

A

Lymphopoiesis:

What does lymphopoiesis produce?
Lymphocytes.
What are the two main types of lymphocytes?
T-cells and B-cells.

218
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Haemopoietic Growth Factors:

Where are haemopoietic growth factors produced?
Name the exceptions to growth factor production and their sources.

A

Haemopoietic Growth Factors:

Where are haemopoietic growth factors produced?
Produced by stromal cells in the bone marrow.
Name the exceptions to growth factor production and their sources.
Erythropoietin (produced in the kidney) and thrombopoietin (produced in the liver).

219
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Stem Cell Potency:

Define “totipotent”.
Define “pluripotent”.
Define “multipotent”.
Define “oligopotent”.

A

Stem Cell Potency:

Define “totipotent”.
Stem cell capable of becoming any cell in the body (e.g., fertilized ovum).
Define “pluripotent”.
Stem cell able to become nearly all cells in the body (from the 3 germ layers).
Define “multipotent”.
Stem cells capable of becoming multiple cells of the same family.
Define “oligopotent”.
Stem cells able to differentiate into a few different cell types.

220
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Precursor Cells:

Describe a common myeloid precursor.
Describe a common lymphoid precursor.
What distinguishes myeloblasts from lymphoblasts?

A

Describe a common myeloid precursor.
Myeloid precursor, capable of becoming any myeloid cell.
Describe a common lymphoid precursor.
Lymphoid precursor, capable of becoming any lymphoid cell.
What distinguishes myeloblasts from lymphoblasts?
Myeloblasts can become myeloid cells, while lymphoblasts can become lymphoid cells.

221
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Cell Functions:

What is the function of platelets?
What is the role of red blood cells?
What is the function of granulocytes?
What are the roles of monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells?

A

Cell Functions:

What is the function of platelets?
Involved in blood clotting.
What is the role of red blood cells?
Carry oxygen around the body.
What is the function of granulocytes?
Part of innate immune system, dealing with foreign substances.
What are the roles of monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells?
Monocytes/macrophages clear debris, while dendritic cells present antigens.

222
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells:

What is the function of lymphocytes?
What are the subtypes of lymphocytes?
What is the role of natural killer cells?
Cell Identification:

How do mast cells relate to basophils?
Describe the staining characteristics of different cell type

A

Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells:

What is the function of lymphocytes?
Form adaptive immune system.
What are the subtypes of lymphocytes?
T-cells and B-cells.
What is the role of natural killer cells?
Kill foreign or cancerous cells lacking MHC-I.
Cell Identification:

How do mast cells relate to basophils?
Mast cells are tissue equivalent cells to basophils.
Describe the staining characteristics of different cell types.
Notice location, sizes, shapes, nuclei shapes, and colors (on staining) of different cell types.

223
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Destruction of red blood cells

A

The spleen is an ovoid organ found in the upper left abdominal cavity (5-13cm).​

Spleen is the largest “filter” of blood in the body, removing old or damaged blood cells (engulfed by phagocytes). ​

224
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Spleen
What are the dimensions of the windows in the spleen that separate splenic cords from venous sinuses?
How are cells filtered within the spleen?
What happens to cells that cannot deform sufficiently to pass through the spleen’s windows?
Describe the process of destruction of blood cells in the spleen.
What happens to the proteins of red blood cells during destruction in the spleen?
Where is the iron from red blood cells transported after destruction in the spleen?
What is the fate of the porphyrin ring of red blood cells in the spleen?
How many blood cells are destroyed every second, and how many of them are red blood cells?
What is the primary function of the spleen in relation to blood cells?
What process does the spleen utilize to remove old or damaged blood cells from circulation?

A

The windows in the spleen are 3 micrometers in size.
Cells are filtered based on their ability to deform and pass through the windows.
Cells that cannot deform sufficiently are filtered from the blood and subsequently destroyed.
The process involves phagocytes engulfing the cells.
The proteins of red blood cells are broken down into amino acids during destruction in the spleen.
The iron from red blood cells is transported back to the bone marrow.
The porphyrin ring of red blood cells is converted into bilirubin in the spleen.
Approximately 4 million blood cells are destroyed every second, with 2.5 million of them being red blood cells.
The spleen serves as the primary organ for the destruction of old or damaged blood cells.
The spleen accomplishes the removal of blood cells through phagocytosis.

225
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Red Blood Cell Characteristics:

A

Lack of Nucleus: Ejected to create space for hemoglobin, enhancing oxygen transport, and increasing cell flexibility for passage through capillaries.
Absence of Mitochondria: Mitochondria are absent to prevent oxygen consumption, ensuring efficient oxygen transport without competing for oxygen.
Production and Lifespan: Approximately 2.5 million red blood cells are produced and destroyed every second out of 4 million, with a lifespan of 120 days.
Quantity and Shape: Mammalian blood contains 6-8 million red blood cells per mm3, with a diameter of 7 micrometers. They are biconcave discs, facilitating passage through narrow capillaries.
Function: Despite lacking a nucleus and mitochondria, red blood cells play a crucial role in transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide, facilitating respiration.

226
Q

Week 7 - Red blood cells -

A

Biconcave disks ​
7-12µm in diameter, ~90fL​
No nucleus (anucleate)​
No mitochondria​
4-6 x 1012/L​
about 25 trillion in the average human with 5L of blood, varies ♀ ♂​
Long life span - 120 days (300 miles) ​

Function​
Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide around the body​
Critical role in respiration ​

227
Q

Week 7 - Haemoglobin (Blood)

A

Haemoglobin (Hb)​
Responsible for the red appearance of RBC’s​

About 250 million molecules / RBC​

4 polypeptide chains each with a cofactor called a haem group, that has an iron atom at the centre. ​

Each iron atom binds one molecule of O2.​

​Co-operativity in O2 binding and release.​

Binds to O2, CO2 and NO (can also bind CO) and transports these molecules around the body​

228
Q

Week 7 - Haemoglobin - Hemoglobin Structure:
Comprises four polypeptide chains: two alpha and two beta chains.
Each chain contains a heme group with an iron atom.
Approximately 250 million hemoglobin molecules per red blood cell.
Roughly 25 trillion hemoglobin molecules in the human body.

A

Cooperative Binding:
Eases binding of subsequent oxygen molecules after the first attaches.
Harder to offload the first oxygen, progressively easier for the second and third, but harder again for the fourth.
Ensures efficient oxygen delivery, holding onto the last oxygen molecule until necessary.

229
Q

Week 7 - Haemoglobin
Bohr Effect:
Influences oxygen offloading.
Factors: acidity, higher CO2, and temperature.
Easier to release oxygen in actively respiring tissues.
More challenging in colder tissues, impacting arctic animals.

A

Other Hemoglobin Functions:
Binds to carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and carbon monoxide.
Facilitates transport of gases throughout the body.
Ensures optimal oxygen delivery to tissues, explored further in respiratory lectures.

230
Q

Week 7 - Pulmonary circulation system

A

The pulmonary system is the blood vessels surrounding the lungs.

The pulmonary artery brings blood from the heart to the lungs (but this is deoxygenated), and the pulmonary vein carries the oxygenated blood back to the heart to be pumped around the body. The capillary bed surrounds the alveoli.

Air enters via nose / mouth, travels down trachea to the 2 bronchi, then bronchioles, to the alveoli.

The red blood cells, the hemoglobin is able to pick up the oxygen from the lungs, so through the pulmonary circulation

231
Q

Week 7 - Transport of oxygen process

A

Cooperative Binding:

Once one molecule of O2 binds, the binding of the 2nd and 3rd molecules becomes easier due to cooperative binding.
Oxygen Transport Process:

Oxygen is taken into the alveoli of the lungs.
It dissolves in the plasma, becoming a dissolved gas.
Oxygen binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, oxygenating them.
This process, called oxygenation, forms oxyhemoglobin, which is bright red.
Upon losing oxygen, it becomes deoxyhemoglobin, appearing dark red.
Oxygen is released from hemoglobin in tissues, dissolving in plasma again.
It then moves into the interstitial fluid and enters cells, where it’s used in cellular respiration.

232
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Carbon dioxide transport process

A

Tissue to Interstitial Fluid: CO2 moves from tissues to interstitial fluid.
Interstitial Fluid to Plasma: It follows the concentration gradient into the plasma.
Travel in Plasma: Around 7% of CO2 travels back dissolved in plasma.
Red Blood Cell Uptake: About 90% of CO2 enters red blood cells (RBCs).
CO2 Binding to Hemoglobin: Some (~23%) CO2 binds to Hb in RBCs.
Formation of Carbonic Acid: Majority (~70%) reacts with water in RBCs, forming carbonic acid.
Bicarbonate Ion Formation: Carbonic acid dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+).
Bicarbonate Transport: HCO3- travels in plasma; H+ binds to Hb to maintain blood pH.
Lung Exchange: In the lungs, HCO3- and H+ combine to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into CO2 and H2O.
Exhalation: CO2 follows the concentration gradient out of the blood into alveolar sacs and is exhaled.

(Production: Cells produce carbon dioxide.
Dissolution: Carbon dioxide dissolves in the interstitial fluid.
Movement: It enters the plasma; about 7% returns to the lungs dissolved in plasma.
Red Blood Cell Uptake: Around 90% of carbon dioxide is taken up by red blood cells.
Binding to Hemoglobin: Approximately 23% of carbon dioxide binds to hemoglobin, but not at the same site as oxygen.
Formation of Carbonic Acid: Most of the carbon dioxide (70%) reacts with water inside red blood cells, forming carbonic acid.
Dissociation: Carbonic acid dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions.
Bicarbonate Transport: Bicarbonate ions diffuse into the plasma and travel back to the lungs.
Hydrogen Ion Capture: Hemoglobin binds to hydrogen ions, preventing changes in blood pH.
Return to Lungs: In the lungs, bicarbonate ions re-enter red blood cells, react with hydrogen ions, and form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into water and carbon dioxide.
Exhalation: Carbon dioxide diffuses into the airspaces of the lungs and is exhaled.)

233
Q

Week 7 - Pathologies of RBCs: eg. anaemia

A

A reduced haemoglobin concentration in blood​

Several classifications ​
 Low haematocrit​
 Small red cells ​
Most common causes:​
Poor diet – iron deficiency​
Chronic blood loss​
Malabsorption of iron​
Pregnancy​

Signs and Symptoms:​
Fatigue, pallor, tachycardia, shortness of breath

234
Q

Week 7 - Neutrophil

A

Size: Approximately twice the size of red blood cells
Nucleus: Multi-lobed for squeezing through small spaces
Granules: Neutral-staining granules containing myeloperoxidase
Count: 2.5-7.5 x 10^9/L
Lifespan: 6 hours to a few days
Function: Vital role in protection from bacterial infections, phagocytosis of bacteria - phagocytose bacteria
Name: Derived from their neutral-staining granules

235
Q

Week 7 - Eosinophil

A

Size: Approximately the same size as neutrophils
Nucleus: Bi-lobed nucleus
Granules: Large pink-staining granules containing histamine, plasminogen, DNase, RNase, etc.
Count: 0.04-0.44 x 10^9/L
Lifespan: 8-12 days
Functions: Immune-protection, phagocytosis of antibody-coated pathogens, attacks parasites, allergic responses
Name: Derived from their eosin-staining granules
The granules are a kind of pink color and they contain things like histamine, plasminogen, DNases, RNases. So enzymes that break down DNA and RNA

236
Q

Week 7 - Basophils

A

Size: Slightly smaller than neutrophil
Nucleus: Bi-lobed
Granules: Large purple-staining granules containing histamine, heparin, proteolytic enzymes
Count: 0.01-0.1 x 10^9/L
Lifespan: A few hours to a few days
Functions: Release of histamine during inflammation, not phagocytes

bilobed just like our eosinophils.

This time the granules are purple staining containing things like histamine, heparin, proteolytic enzymes.

Another key role in things like allergy and inflammation, they release histamine.

237
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Monocytes (blood) / ​

Macrophages (tissue)​

A

Large kidney-shaped nucleus​
Larger than neutrophil​
0.2-0.8 x 109/L​
Life span - last many months​
Function​

Vital role in protection from infections​
Ingest bacteria, dead cells and cellular debris​
Phagocytosis​

Nucleus: Large kidney-shaped nucleus
Size: Bigger than neutrophils
Count: 0.2 to 0.8 x 10^9/L
Lifespan: Many months
Functions: Leave blood to become macrophages in tissues, clear debris, dead cells, bacteria, proficient in phagocytosis

238
Q

Week 7 - Lymphocytes

A

Large and relatively round nucleus that fills the cytoplasm​
Slightly smaller than neutrophil​
1.5-3.5 x 109/L​
Life span - can persist for many years​ Divided into two types of cell due to function - T & B cells​
Function​
Central role in the immune system – protecting from infections, esp viral infections​
Some lymphocytes attack pathogens directly (T-cells) and some produce antibodies (B-cells) ​

Nucleus: Large and relatively round, filling the cytoplasm
Size: Slightly smaller than neutrophils
Count: 1.5-3.5 x 10^9/L
Lifespan: Can persist for many years
Function: Central role in the immune system, protecting from infections, especially viral infections. T-cells attack pathogens directly, while B-cells produce antibodies.

239
Q

Week 7 - Natural Killer cells​

Look similar to lymphocytes (same family)​
large round nucleus​
Purple-staining granules (perforin, proteolytic enzymes)​
Secrete cytokines (IFN and TNF) ​
Very rare, not typically counted (elevated with Forest bathing, physical exercise, massage!)​
Life span – 1-2 weeks

Functions​
Immunological surveillance ​
Kill virus infected cells and some tumour cells non-specifically ie. part of innate immunity​

A

Classification: Group I Innate Lymphocytes (ILCs), part of the innate immune system
Origins: Same progenitor as T and B cells
Function: Respond quickly to various pathological challenges, including viral infections and cancer
Role in Pregnancy: Found in the placenta, may play a crucial role in pregnancy
Killing Mechanism: Ability to kill tumor cells and infected cells without prior activation
Secretion: Release cytokines such as IFNγ and TNFα to enhance the immune response
Receptor Balance: Killing depends on a balance of signals from activating and inhibitory receptors on the NK cell surface
Recognition: Activating receptors recognize molecules on cancer cells and infected cells, while inhibitory receptors recognize MHC I receptors on normal healthy cells
Killing Process: Once activated, NK cells release cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes, leading to lysis of the target cell.

240
Q

Week 7 - Neutrophils​ Pathology

A

2.5 – 7.5​ [x 10*9/L]​
Elevated in : Bacterial infection, stress, exercise, myeloproliferative diseases (some leukaemias)

241
Q

Week 7 - Lymphocytes Pathology

A

1.5 – 3.5 [x 10*9/L]​
Elevated in : Viral infection, some lymphoproliferative diseases (some leukaemias)

242
Q

Week 7 - Monocytes Pathology

A

0.2 – 0.8 [x 10*9/L]​
Elevated in: Infection, inflammation, tissue damage, monocytic leukaemia

243
Q

Week 7 - Eosinophils Pathology

A

0.04 – 0.44 [x 10*9/L]​
Elevated in : Allergy, intestinal parasites, some myeloproliferative diseases (some leukaemias)

244
Q

Week 7 - Basophils Pathology

A

0.01 – 0.1 [x 10*9/L]​
Elevated in : Some myeloproliferative diseases (esp. CGL)

245
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Platelets​

A

Small anucleate fragments of large precursor cells called megakaryocytes​
2-4µm diameter ​
Appear in blood films as dark-staining granules​
150-400 x 10*9/L​
Life span - 5-10 days
Functions​
Roles in blood clotting and prevention of blood loss (haemostasis)

Definition: Small, anucleate blood cells measuring 2 to 4 micrometers in diameter, produced by megakaryocytes. They circulate for 5 to 10 days and play a key role in hemostasis, transforming upon activation to aid in clot formation.

246
Q

Week 7 - Blood
Term: Platelet Activation
Term: Pseudopodia
Term: Filopodia
Term: Lamellipodia
Term: Fibrin

A

Term: Platelet Activation
Definition: The process by which activated platelets change from a smooth discoid shape to sending out filopodia and forming lamellipodia, crucial for clot formation.
Back of Flashcard:

Term: Pseudopodia
Definition: Projections of membrane formed by activated platelets, including filopodia and lamellipodia, which aid in platelet function during clot formation.
Front of Flashcard:

Term: Filopodia
Definition: Slender projections extended by activated platelets, facilitating platelet-platelet contacts during clot formation.
Back of Flashcard:

Term: Lamellipodia
Definition: Large, flat spreading projections formed by activated platelets, aiding in platelet coverage during clot formation.
Front of Flashcard:

Term: Fibrin
Definition: A protein produced by the coagulation cascade, enhancing the binding of blood cells together and strengthening clot formation.

247
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Donating blood
Term: Red Blood Cell Storage
Fact: Red blood cells can be stored for up to 35 days at 4°C.
Back of Flashcard:

Term: Platelet Storage
Fact: Platelets can be stored for up to 7 days at room temperature.
Front of Flashcard:

Term: Plasma Storage
Fact: Plasma can be stored for up to 3 years at -30°C.
Back of Flashcard:

Term: Leucodepletion
Fact: Leucodepletion involves the removal of white blood cells, reducing the risk of febrile transfusion reactions, HLA incompatibility, and transmission of certain infections.
Front of Flashcard:

Term: Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
Fact: FFP is administered to individuals experiencing bleeding due to a deficiency in one or more clotting factors, such as after severe bleeding.
Back of Flashcard:

Term: Cryoprecipitate
Fact: Cryoprecipitate is precipitated or thawed FFP rich in clotting factors, particularly fibrinogen. It is often used to replenish clotting factors in patients with specific deficiencies.

A

red blood cells can be stored for up to 35 days at 4degC

*platelets can be stored for up to 7 days at room temp

*plasma can be stored for up to 3 years at -30degC

Leucodepletion: removal of WBCs reduces incidence of febrile transfusion reactions and HLA incompatibility and reduces transmission of some infections.

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is given to people that are bleeding because they have run out of one or more clotting factors eg. after severe bleeding.

For patients missing one specific clotting factor often only that factor is replaced using synthetically made clotting factors.

Cryoprecipitate is precipitated or thawed FFP that is high in clotting factors, particularly fibrinogen (most clotting factors are now synthetically made to replace genetically malfunctioning / missing clotting factors rather than coming from FFP).

248
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Donating blood - Safety of blood transfusion is maximised by careful selection of donors

A

Good health​

Unpaid volunteers​

Excluding risk factors (jaundice (?hepatitis), travel in malarial areas, recent tattoo or piercing, risk factors for HIV or CJD).​

Screening of blood.​

Screening for compatibility of donor and recipient.​

249
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Cell Membrane Composition:

A

Glycolipids:

Examples: ABO antigens.
Proteins:

Example: Rhesus factor.
Glycoproteins:

Functions: Channels, receptors, identification markers.
Antigens (Ag) and Immune System:

Antigens:
Location: Present on cell membrane.
Importance:
Crucial for immune system recognition.
Immune System Response:

Recognition:
Identifies non-self molecules like those on foreign cells, bacteria, or viruses.
Tolerance:
Ignores self-molecules to prevent attacking healthy cells.

250
Q

Week 7 - Blood - The ABO group
The A antigen, along with other blood group antigens like the B antigen, is embedded in the cell membrane of red blood cells. These antigens are glycoproteins or glycolipids that protrude from the surface of the membrane. They are crucial for identifying blood types and play a key role in immune recognition and compatibility during blood transfusions.

A

People of blood group A will have A antigens on the surface of their RBCs.
Those blood group A people on your red blood cells have the A antigen. So, you have a surface molecule called the A antigen that sits on the surface of your red blood cells.

People of blood group B will have B antigens on the surface of their RBCs.
blood group B have the B antigen on the surface of their red blood cells.

People of blood group AB will have both A antigens and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs.
are blood group AB have both the A and the B antigen. They have both molecules on the surface

People of blood group O have neither the A antigen nor the B antigen on the surface of their RBCs (but they do have the H antigen (stalk)!).
who are blood group O, they don’t have either A or B on the surface, but they still have this little stalk

251
Q

Week 7 - Blood - ABO antigens
sugar chains, composed of molecules that attach to the red blood cell via a lipid molecule called ceramide. This ceramide binds to the lipid membrane of the cell. Now, the sugar chain itself consists of glucose, galactose, genac (N-acetylglucosamine), another galactose, and a few codes.

A

ABO Ag’s are sugar chains attached to the surface of the RBC via the lipid ceramide.
The gene for the ABO Ag’s is autosomal dominant (chr9q34) and encodes a specific glycosyl transferase.

ABO Antigens
Sugar chains composed of glucose, galactose, genac (N-acetylglucosamine), and other molecules, attaching to the red blood cell via ceramide lipid.

These chains form the H antigen, present in individuals with blood group O.
This H antigen is present on the surface of red blood cells for individuals with blood group O.
Blood group A individuals have the H antigen with an additional galnac side branch,
If you belong to blood group A, you still have the H antigen, but you also have a side branch consisting of a galnac molecule (N-acetylgalactosamine).

while blood group B individuals have the H antigen with a galactose side branch.
if you’re blood group B, you have the H antigen initially, but your side branch contains a galactose molecule. Individuals with blood group AB have both the A and B antigens on their red blood cell surface.

Blood group AB individuals have both A and B antigens on their red blood cell surface.

252
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Genes and ABO Antigens

The gene for the ABO Ag’s is autosomal dominant (chr9q34) and encodes a specific glycosyl transferase. Note that the surface antigen is a sugar chain. Antigens don’t have to be proteins.

Ceramide is a lipid molecule (anchoring the sugar chain to the membrane).

A

Definition: A gene on chromosome 9 codes for an enzyme called glycosyl transferase, which instructs sugar molecules to link and form the ABO antigens.
The gene follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Unlike proteins translated from mRNA, sugars are synthesized by enzymes.
These enzymes regulate the formation of sugar chains, determining the antigens present on red blood cells.

These sugar molecules are encoded by genes, but unlike proteins which are translated from mRNA, sugars are synthesized by enzymes. The gene responsible for determining your blood group codes for an enzyme called glycosyl transferase. This enzyme instructs the sugar molecules to link together in the specified chain.

253
Q

Week 7 - Antibodies

A

Proteins that recognise foreign molecules (Ag) in the body​
Trigger an immune response​
5 types with slightly different structures. These include:
Immunogoblin G (IgG)
Immunogoblin M (IgM)

IgG Abs are only made after exposure to a foreign Ag e.g. infections.

*Some Abs (naturally occurring IgM) are made without prior exposure to the Ag (ie. From early life).

IgM is made of 5 of the IgGs stuck together. This makes IgM much bigger than IgG. This is important as size determines where each type can be found.

This way if you have the antigen (ie it is self), the Ab raised against it will be destroyed. If you don’t have the antigen (ie non-self) the Ab raised will be kept, ready to attach to the antigen if it ever appears. (technically it is the Ab producing cells that are either destroyed or kept).

Many antibodies are only made after exposure to a foreign antigen eg. against infections. However, some are made without prior exposure eg. naturally occurring Ab.

Newborn babies don’t have any Ab against these Ag in their blood.

254
Q

Week 7 - Antibodies (Blood) - IgM

A

Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is the largest antibody, formed by five IgG molecules joined together to form a pentamer. IgM is substantially larger than IgG.

As the body produces antibodies, it screens them against self to prevent autoimmune reactions. Any antibodies recognizing self are eliminated, as we don’t want our immune system attacking our own cells.

IgM antibodies are naturally occurring and can be produced without prior exposure to foreign antigens.

Naturally occurring antibodies are our IgM antibodies, and we make these without prior exposure to the foreign thing. So, we can make IgM from early in life without prior exposure to that foreign substance

255
Q

Week 7 - Antibodies (Blood) - IgG

A

we have immunoglobulin G (IgG), which has a classic Y-shaped structure and is adept at recognizing various substances.

IgG antibodies are generated only after exposure to foreign substances like viruses, bacteria, or foreign blood

The IgG antibodies, these are only made after you get exposed to something foreign. Whether that’s a virus or a bacteria or someone else’s blood, you only make the IgG antibody if you see it. So, you see it. That’s not me. That’s foreign. I’m going to make more antibodies to that. But some antibodies are what’s called naturally occurring.

256
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Antibodies and ABO group
People with Type A

A

For someone with blood group A, they have the A antigen on their red blood cells’ surface. Naturally occurring antibodies produced by their body include anti-A and anti-B. However, the anti-A antibodies react with the self-antigen A, so the body destroys the cells producing them. As a result, there are no anti-A antibodies present in their plasma. Conversely, the body keeps the anti-B antibodies because they don’t target self-antigens. Therefore, individuals with blood group A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma.

257
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Antibodies and ABO group
People with Type B

A

Similarly, individuals with blood group B have the B antigen on their red blood cells and produce anti-A and anti-B antibodies. However, the anti-B antibodies would target self-antigens, so the body eliminates cells producing them. Therefore, individuals with blood group B have no anti-B antibodies in their plasma but retain the anti-A antibodies.

258
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Antibodies and ABO group
People with Type AB

A

For blood group AB, which has both A and B antigens, the body recognizes both anti-A and anti-B antibodies as self and destroys cells producing them. Consequently, individuals with blood group AB have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in their plasma.

259
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Antibodies and ABO group
People with Type O

A

In contrast, individuals with blood group O lack A and B antigens on their red blood cells. They produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, which do not react with their own cells. Therefore, individuals with blood group O have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies circulating in their plasma.

260
Q

Week 7 - Blood - ABO antigens and the antibodies

A

We make all of the antibodies (anti-A and anti-B), but people who are group A (A-antigen on the surface) will destroy any B-cells that make Ab against self (anti-A), but will keep B-cells making antibodies against non-self (anti-B) in their plasma. The antibodies made will be the IgM type (the big ones). IgM is made by natural immunity. This is the production of antibodies without being exposed to the antigen.

IgG antibodies are made after exposure to an antigen, such as when you get an infection.

261
Q

Week 7 - Blood - The Rhesus factor
Rhesus is a transmembrane protein on the surface of RBCs. ​

There are lots of different Rh antigens (RhD most common).​

(d), D, c, C, e, E​ - only know D

The rhesus gene is autosomal recessive (so most people are rhesus positive).​

A

the Rh factor involves a protein located on the surface of red blood cells.

This protein, called the Rh antigen, specifically the RhD antigen, is a transmembrane protein, meaning it spans the cell membrane multiple times, creating loops that traverse back and forth across the membrane.

Among the various types of Rh antigens, RhD is the most prevalent and significant. It’s crucial to remember RhD when discussing blood types. The RhD antigen is inherited through autosomal recessive genetics, with most individuals being Rh positive, meaning they possess the RhD antigen

262
Q

Week 7 - Blood - The Rhesus factor***
Rhesus antibodies (IgG) are only present in the plasma if a RhD-person is exposed to rhesus antigen (ie. non-self) triggering an immune response.

People of blood group A+ have both A antigens AND rhesus D antigens on the surface of their RBCs, therefore they will destroy any Ab made against self (anti-D). People who are A - (minus) have the A antigen but lack the D antigen.

IgG antibodies are made after exposure to an antigen, such as when you get an infection, or receive a blood transfusion containing antigens that you don’t have on your own cells. Only rhesus negative people would make antibodies against rhesus (if they were exposed to blood that was rhesus positive), because rhesus negative people see rhesus as something foreign. Rhesus positive people exposed to blood that was rhesus positive would have no effect as they would see the rhesus as something they have on their own cells and so not generate antibodies to it.

Other blood group antigens
ABO strongest

*Rh stronger than other blood groups

*RhD evokes a stronger reaction than the other Rhesus antigens
The others are all very minor and not of great importance for one off transfusions BUT if you require transfusions regularly they become more important as you build a stronger and stronger response to the foreign antigen.

A

within each of these blood groups, there’s the additional factor of Rh, which can either be present (Rh positive) or absent (Rh negative).

For instance, someone could be A positive, indicating they have the A blood group and the RhD antigen on their red blood cell surface. Conversely, an individual could be A negative, meaning they possess the A blood group but lack the RhD antigen.

Similarly, one could be B positive (having both the B antigen and the RhD antigen), B negative (having the B antigen but lacking the RhD antigen), AB positive, AB negative, O positive, or O negative.

It’s important to note that antibodies produced against the Rh factor are of the IgG type, unlike the antibodies against the ABO blood groups, which are primarily IgM. IgG antibodies against the Rh factor are not naturally occurring; they’re only developed after exposure to foreign RhD antigens.

The antibodies that we can develop to recess are IgG. These are not naturally occurring. We will only produce antibodies against recess if we are recess negative and we see some recess positive. So we have to be negative ourselves and then get exposed to something we’re not used to seeing.

263
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Immune Response to Foreign Blood

A

Natural immunity: IgM antibodies, no prior exposure, anti-A and anti-B in plasma.
Adaptive immunity: IgG antibodies, exposure-dependent.
Mismatched transfusions may trigger immune responses, emphasizing the need for proper donor-recipient matching.

The natural immunity, those IgM1s, those large antibodies are produced without prior exposure. So we already have the anti-A and the anti-B in our plasma. We don’t need to have been exposed to it in advance. We’ll recognize things first time.

So that’s why it gives such a strong reaction. The adaptive immunity that IgG, the small antibodies, these are only produced when we see something foreign. So if you had a blood transfusion, if you were given blood and it was the wrong recess group, it would raise an immune response when you first see it and it’s on the second time you see it, you have the big problems. So first time, it’s not going to be great, but it’s not the end of the world. Second time, big problems. It’s important that donors and recipients are matched prior to transfusions to avoid immune reactions.

264
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Consequences of transfusion of incorrectly matched blood

A

Let’s explore the consequences of incorrect blood matching. Consider a scenario where a person with blood group A receives blood containing the A antigen. If the recipient’s blood type is B, meaning they have anti-A antibodies in their plasma, these antibodies will bind to the A antigens on the donated red blood cells. This binding, facilitated by IgM antibodies in pentameric form, leads to clumping or agglutination of the red blood cells, resulting in an acute reaction known as agglutination.

Agglutination not only causes the cells to stick together but also activates complement, a protein system that creates pores in cells, leading to their leakage. Consequently, hemoglobin leaks into the bloodstream, resulting in hemoglobinuria, characterized by red-colored urine. Hemoglobin breakdown products like bilirubin become toxic, causing symptoms such as fever, chills, nausea, and potential clot formation in blood vessels. Moreover, it damages kidney cells, contributing to kidney failure and potentially fatal outcomes.

Most ABO mismatches occur due to clerical or administrative errors, highlighting the importance of stringent identification procedures in healthcare settings. Measures like barcoding patients and verifying their identity multiple times help mitigate such errors and reduce the risk of acute transfusion reactions caused by ABO mismatching.

265
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Consequences of transfusion of incorrectly matched blood

A

Acute Transfusion Reaction caused by ABO mismatch:​
Within minutes (acute)​
Agglutination by IgM​
Complement mediated lysis​
Release of Hb (haemoglobinuria)​
Breakdown to bilirubin​
Toxic (Fever, chills, nausea, clotting within blood vessels, necrosis of kidneys

Complement mediated lysis:

Agglutination activates the complement system.
Complement proteins punch holes in the red blood cell membranes.
This leads to lysis or rupture of the red blood cells.
Release of Hb (haemoglobinuria):

Due to red blood cell lysis, hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream.
Hemoglobinuria occurs, where hemoglobin is excreted in the urine.
Breakdown to bilirubin:

Hemoglobin breakdown products, including bilirubin, are released.
Bilirubin is formed as a result of the breakdown of heme, a component of hemoglobin.
Toxic effects:

Bilirubin is toxic and can lead to various symptoms:
Fever, chills, and nausea: systemic inflammatory response.
Clotting within blood vessels: can lead to thrombosis or blockage.
Necrosis of kidneys: Bilirubin toxicity can cause kidney cell death, leading to kidney failure.
Most incompatible blood transfusions arise from clerical errors and mistaken patient identity.

266
Q

Week 7 - Blood - - Delayed Transfusion Reaction
Definition: A type of transfusion reaction occurring due to mismatches in blood groups other than ABO, such as Rh, Kell, Duffy, or Kidd.

1st mismatch triggers production of IgG Ab​

On repeat exposure IgG binds RBCs​

IgG less effective at activating complement  less aggressive symptoms​

Fever, low Hb, increased bilirubin, mild jaundice, and anaemia​

Should be prevented by proper cross-matching​

A

Unlike ABO mismatches, delayed reactions often occur during repeat transfusions. The initial mismatch triggers a less severe immune response, but subsequent exposures lead to more robust reactions.
IgG antibodies are produced in delayed transfusion reactions, binding to red blood cells upon repeat exposure and activating complement proteins, causing red blood cell destruction.
Symptoms include fever, anemia, and jaundice, but are generally less severe compared to ABO mismatch reactions.
Proper cross-matching of blood donors and recipients can prevent these mismatches, ensuring safer transfusions.

267
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Haemolytic Disease of the Foetus and Newborn (HDFN)

Mother produces Ab that attack baby’s RBCs in utero​

Most common antigen involved - RhD (very antigenic and high frequency)​
Baby’s symptoms caused by destruction of his/her RBCs​
Enlarged liver and spleen as a result of red cell lysis.​

Symptoms of anaemia.​

Jaundice caused by elevated bilirubin (breakdown product of haemoglobin – toxic, may cause brain damage).​

A

In hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, the mother produces antibodies that then cross the placenta and attack the baby’s red blood cells. And most commonly, this involves rhesus, rhesus D. When mum’s antibodies attack baby’s red blood cells, what results then is baby ends up with a large liver and spleen because that’s clearing up all the debris from all those damaged red blood cells and is trying to produce more red blood cells. The baby has symptoms of anemia, so remember those symptoms, tachycardia, pallor, fatigue, all of those sorts of things. And then we also get high levels of bilirubin.

Remember the cells are being broken up and lysed, releasing bilirubin into the circulation. Bilirubin is toxic, and in newborn babies or in the fetus, it can cause brain damage.

cause brain damage

268
Q

Week 7 - Haemolytic Disease of the Foetus and Newborn - cause of the disorder
We only get it if she has a baby that is rhesus positive. So in other words, dad must have been rhesus positive.

When someone is Rh positive, it means their red blood cells carry the D antigen on their surface. Conversely, Rh negative individuals lack the D antigen on their red blood cell
Anti-RhD” refers to antibodies that target the Rh(D) antigen
These antibodies are produced by individuals who lack the Rh(D) antigen on their red blood cells (Rh negative) when they are exposed to Rh(D) positive blood, typically during pregnancy or blood transfusions.

Does the Rh positive have antibodies too
ChatGPT
No, individuals who are Rh positive typically do not have anti-Rh antibodies naturally circulating in their bloodstream

Only happens if RhD -ve mother has a RhD +ve baby
Haemolytic disease of the newborn is only a risk in RhD negative mothers. RhD positive mothers will recognise any Rh as self and so not produce an antibody response to it.If RhD positive cells enter the mothers circulation she will recognise the RhD as foreign and make antibodies to it. These anti-RhD antibodies (IgG as adaptive immunity) will circulate in the mother quietly waiting to see the antigen again. If the mother carries another RhD positive foetus the anti-RhD (IgG) is small enough to cross the placenta and enter the foetal circulation. Here the antibodies attack and destroy the foetal RBCs, leaving the foetus very anaemic. The build up of waste products like bilirubin are toxic to the brain and can result in brain damage

It depends on what dad is. If dad’s negative as well, then baby will be rhesus negative

A

Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh negative. Remember, this only applies to about 15% of females in the population. It’s crucial to note that Rh incompatibility arises when the mother carries a baby who is Rh positive, indicating that the father must also be Rh positive.

During childbirth, significant blood loss can occur as the placenta separates from the uterine wall. This process releases a substantial amount of blood into the mother’s circulation. As a result, some of the baby’s Rh-positive red blood cells may enter the mother’s bloodstream.

Being Rh negative, the mother’s immune system recognizes these Rh-positive cells as foreign and mounts an immune response. This response involves the production of IgG antibodies specifically targeting the Rh antigen present on the baby’s red blood cells.

When the first baby is born, it remains unaffected by these antibodies. However, if the mother has a subsequent Rh-positive baby, she already has circulating anti-Rh antibodies (IgG) from her previous pregnancy. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the Rh-positive baby, potentially causing severe complications.

Unlike IgM antibodies against ABO blood groups, which are too large to cross the placenta, IgG antibodies against the Rh factor can pass through. This scenario poses a risk if the mother is carrying an Rh-positive baby in subsequent pregnancies. However, it’s essential to recognize that this condition is relatively rare genetically.

269
Q

What is the likelihood of HDFN?

A

As RhD+ is dominant and RhD- is recessive, the likelihood of a mother being RhD –ve is about:

RhD-………………23% ie. Minority of pregnant women

RhD+………………77%

Likelihood of baby being RhD+ also depends on the father:

Inheritance of Factor D (RhD)

All pregnant women are screened to see what blood group they are (?RhD status). They tend not to screen the fathers because not all children are fathered by the man who thinks he is the father! If the mother is RhD negative they treat her as at risk, if she is RhD positive there is no further action necessary.

If a RhD –ve woman has a baby, there is a 50% chance that it will be RhD+ve (depends on the father). – Mendelian genetics.

270
Q

Week 7 - Prophylactic treatment for HDFN

Prophylactic treatment involving the injection of anti-D antibodies to RhD-negative mothers immediately after the birth of their first RhD-positive child serves as a preventive measure against a condition known as hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).

During childbirth, if the newborn is RhD-positive while the mother is RhD-negative, there is a risk that some of the RhD-positive fetal red blood cells may enter the mother’s bloodstream. This can sensitize the mother’s immune system to the RhD antigen, leading to the production of anti-RhD antibodies. In subsequent pregnancies with RhD-positive fetuses, these antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells, causing HDN, a condition characterized by the destruction of fetal red blood cells and subsequent complications.

By administering anti-D antibodies to the RhD-negative mother immediately after the birth of her first RhD-positive child, any RhD-positive fetal red blood cells that may have entered her bloodstream are neutralized by the antibodies. This prevents the sensitization of the mother’s immune system to the RhD antigen, thus averting the production of anti-RhD antibodies. As a result, in subsequent pregnancies with RhD-positive fetuses, there is no risk of HDN since the mother does not produce anti-RhD antibodies that could harm the fetal red blood cells. This prophylactic treatment effectively protects future RhD-positive children from developing hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A

Anti-D antibody is injected to RhD- mother immediately after birth of first child (if RhD+)

  • Neutralises RhD+ red cell from foetus
  • No anti-RhD antibodies raised in mother
  • Second RhD+ child does not develop haemolytic disease of the newborn

Haemolytic disease of the new born can be prevented if the foetal RBCs can all be mopped up before an immune response is raised. Immediately after birth a RhD negative mother is injected with anti-D. The anti-D antibody mops up all the foetal RhD positive RBCs and prevents the immune response happening, so no IgG are made.

Anti-D injections are given during pregnancy as well as at birth to mask any foetal RBCs and prevent the mother from raising an immune response.

271
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Determination of blood group - the agglutination assay (gel system)

A

Add the blood to the cup at the top of the card. In the cup is some of the antibodies. If the antibodies bind to and agglutinate the RBCs they can’t fall to the bottom of the well (can’t get through the gel as they are too big when stuck together). Eg. Group B reacts with anti-B causing agglutination (sticking together), so that the RBCs can’t fall to the bottom of the yellow well and stay as a band at the to

272
Q

Week 7 - Transfusion compatibility – just RBCs transfused, not whole blood - look at lecture for this slide 36

A

O group is the universal dOnor​

AB group is the universal recipient

A person who is group A has A antigens on the surface of their RBCs. In their plasma they will have anti-B antibodies (IgM). If they are given RBCs with the B antigen on the surface (ie groups B or AB) the anti-B in their plasma will attack the donated cells. They will not attack either group A or group O RBCs.​

O is the universal dOnor.​

​

O- or B- donors more frequent (16 weeks) as O is the universal donor and B is rare.​

​

​

Example B​

So B on the surfaces ​

So Have anti A in the plasma ​

Incompatible to A and AB​

​

​

However this doesn’t take into Rhesus at all​

Rhesus D = one part of gene​

273
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Blood type A (recipient)
Antigen:
Antibody:
Compatible with:
Incompatible with:

A

Antigen: A
Antibody: Anti-B
Compatible with: A, O
Incompatible with: B, AB

274
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Blood type B (recipient)
Antigen:
Antibody:
Compatible with:
Incompatible with:

A

Antigen: B
Antibody: Anti-A
Compatible with: B, O
Incompatible with: A, AB

275
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Blood type AB
Antigen:
Antibody:
Compatible with:
Incompatible with:

A

Blood Type AB

Antigen: A, B
Antibody: Neither anti-A nor anti-B
Compatible with: A, B, AB, O
Incompatible with: -

276
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Blood type O (recipient)
Antigen:
Antibody:
Compatible with:
Incompatible with:

A

Blood Type O

Antigen: Neither A nor B
Antibody: Anti-A, Anti-B
Compatible with: O
Incompatible with: A, B, AB

277
Q

Week 7 - Blood - Blood cross matching

A

Since there are many blood groups (>44) and allogeneic variants (>400) with varying degrees of antigenicity and rarity, the suitability of blood for transfusion is double checked by cross-matching.

*Blood cells from the donation are mixed with plasma from the recipient.

*Agglutination indicates that the donor blood is incompatible.

278
Q
A
279
Q

Thoracic Cavity​

A

trachea, 2 bronchi, 2 lungs​

Heart, aorta, superior and inferior vena cava, numerous other blood vessels​

Oesophagus​

Lymph vessels and nodes​

Some important nerves​

Mediastinum = space between lungs (contains heart, oesophagus, blood vessels)​

280
Q

Pelvic Cavity​

A

Formed by pelvis, sacrum/coccyx, pelvic floor, continuous with abdominal cavity​ontains:​

Sigmoid colon, rectum, anus​

Some loops of small intestine​

Urinary bladder, lower parts of ureters, urethra​

Reproductive system of males / females​

Anatomy and Physiology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions