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VTNE > Anatomy And Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy And Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the essential foundations of veterinary technology

A

Anatomy and physiology

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2
Q

The science of the structure of the body amd the relation of its parts

A

Anatomy

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3
Q

The science of how the body functions

A

Physiology

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4
Q

The basic unit of life

A

A cell

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5
Q

Cells are either

A

Prokaryotes or eukaryotes

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6
Q

A cell that lacks a true membrane bound nucleus and organelles. Ex: all bacteria

A

Prokaryotes

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7
Q

All bacteria are what type of cell

A

Prokaryotes

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8
Q

A cell that has a membrane bound nucleus and contains many different membrane bound organelles

A

eukaryote

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9
Q

All multicellular organisms are made of what type of cells

A

eukaryotes

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10
Q

eukaryotes are made of what 3 main parts

A

cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus

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11
Q

What are some characteristics of a cell membrane?

A
  1. Separates the cell from its external environment
  2. Consists of a double phospholipid bilayer with interspersed proteins
  3. Semipermeable
  4. Some have surface modifications
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12
Q

What are some components of the phospholipid bilayer

A
  1. Proteins
  2. Carbohydrate chains
  3. Cholesterol
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13
Q

What are some examples of surface modifications of a phospholipid bilayer

A
  1. Cilia
  2. Flagellum
  3. Microvilli
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14
Q

These organelles float freely or are attached to endoplasmic reticulum

A

Ribosomes

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15
Q

These organelles are composed of protein and rRNA

A

Ribosomes

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16
Q

This organelle is the site of protein synthesis

A

Ribosomes

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17
Q

This organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell

A

Mitochondria

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18
Q

This organelle contains protein and mitochondrial DNA

A

Mitochondria

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19
Q

This organelle has a double membrane

A

Mitochondria

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20
Q

This organelle has an outer and inner membrane. The inner membrane extends into folds called

A

Cristae

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21
Q

Cristae increase surface area for the production of _____

A

ATP

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22
Q

ATP is produced through the process of cellular respiration called ______, _______, or _______

A

Krebs cycle, citric acid cycle, or tricarboxylic acid cycle

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23
Q

Cells that use large amounts of energy have large amounts of what organelle?

A

Mitochondria

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24
Q

This organelle is a hollow system of flattened membranous channels with attached ribosomes and acts as a transportation network for proteins

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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25
Q

This organelle is a hollow system of flattened membranous channels without ribosomes and is NOT involved in. Protein synthesis

A

Smooth ER

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26
Q

What organelle is important for synthesizing cholesterol, steroid based hormones, and lipids, important in drug detox, breakdown of glycogen, and transport of fats

A

Smooth ER

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27
Q

Liver cells, intestinal cells, and interstitial cells of testes all have large amounts of this organelle

A

Smooth ER

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28
Q

Organelles that have stacked saucer shaped membranes that function as a receiving, packaging, and distribution center

A

Golgi complex

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29
Q

What organelle modifies and synthesizes the carb portion of glycoproteins

A

Golgi complex

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30
Q

Packaged substances received from ER and exports them from the cell or releases them into the cytoplasm for internal use

A

Golgi complex

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31
Q

This organelle produces lysosomes

A

Golgi complex

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32
Q

Organelle that contains digestive enzymes that can digest intracellular bacteria and can break down non functional organelles

A

Lysosomes

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33
Q

The principal organelles in digestion of nutrients

A

Lysosomes

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34
Q

Autolysis occurs if enzymes from this organelle are released into the cytoplasm

A

Lysosomes

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35
Q

Large numbers of these organelles are found in phagocytic cells

A

Lysosomes

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36
Q

membrane bound organelles that contain strong oxidase and catalase enzymes

A

peroxisomes

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37
Q

this organelle uses oxygen to detoxify toxic substances, especially alcohol and formaldehyde

A

peroxisomes

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38
Q

these organelles are very important in converting free radicals into hydrogen peroxide

A

peroxisomes

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39
Q

a large number of these organelles are found in liver and kidney cells

A

peroxisomes

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40
Q

organelles consist of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments, which are all made of proteins

A

cytoskeleton

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41
Q

this provides an elaborate internal framework that gives the cell form, structure, and support; anchors organelles; and enables movement

A

cytoskeleton

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42
Q

microtubules are arranged to form a hollow tube

A

centrioles

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43
Q

these are important in organizing the mitotic spindle

A

centrioles

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44
Q

form the base of cilia and flagella

A

centrioles

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45
Q

this is considered the control center of the cell

A

nucleus

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46
Q

this contains DNA, which governs heredity and protein synthesis

A

nucleus

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47
Q

____ is in the form of chromatin in the non dividing cell and in the form of chromosomes in the dividing cell

A

DNA

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48
Q

what organelle has a double, semipermeable nuclear membrane or envelope

A

nucleus

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49
Q

contains one or more nucleoli, which manufacture the ribosomal units

A

nucleus

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50
Q

a substance that can be dissolved

A

solute

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51
Q

a substance that does the dissolving

A

solvent

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52
Q

when the solute has dissolved and is no longer distinguishable from the solvent (a uniform mixture)

A

solution

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53
Q

within a cell

A

intracellular

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54
Q

outside of the cell

A

extracellular

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55
Q

between cells (interstitial)

A

intercellular

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56
Q

no energy is expended by the cell

A

passive processes

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57
Q

movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration

A

diffusion

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58
Q

oxygen enters a cell and carbon dioxide exits a cell by simple diffusion through the lipid layer of the cell membrane

A

diffusion

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59
Q

this type of diffusion has the aid of carrier proteins. Glucose enters the cell through this method

A

facilitated diffusion

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60
Q

movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration

A

osmosis

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61
Q

water constantly moves in and out of the cell by this method

A

osmosis

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62
Q

this is amount of pressure necessary to stop the flow of water across the membrane

A

osmotic pressure

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63
Q

substances are forced through a membrane by hydrostatic pressure; small solutes pass through; larger molecules do not

A

filtration

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64
Q

_____ is important in kidney function

A

filtration

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65
Q

in this process, energy is expended by the cell

A

active processes

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66
Q

when materials are taken into the cell

A

endocytosis

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67
Q

called ‘cell eating’ where the cell membrane extends around solid particles

A

phagocytosis

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68
Q

some white blood cells and macrophages are _______

A

phagocytic

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69
Q

considered the ‘bulk phase’ or ‘cell drinking’ where the cell membrane extends around fluid droplets

A

pinocytosis

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70
Q

______ is an important process in absorptive cells in small intestine

A

pinocytosis

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71
Q

______ specialized membrane receptors bind to substances entering the cell

A

receptor-mediated

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72
Q

by what method do enzymes, insulin, hormones, iron, and cholesterol enter the cell

A

receptor-mediated

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73
Q

process where materials are expelled by the cell

A

exocytosis

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74
Q

in this process, waste products are excreted, and useful products are secreted into the extracellular space

A

exocytosis

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75
Q

by why method are hormones, neurotransmitters, and mucus released by the cell

A

exocytosis

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76
Q

movement of molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration with the aid of carrier proteins

A

active transport

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77
Q

what’s an example of an active transport pump within cell membranes, most ions and amino acids move into cells by this method

A

sodium-potassium pump

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78
Q

____ where extracellular fluid is less concentrated than the intracellular fluid

A

hypotonic

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79
Q

extracellular fluid is more concentrated than the intracellular fluid

A

hypertonic

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80
Q

concentrations of the extracellular and intracellular fluids are equal

A

isotonic

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81
Q

Red blood cells placed into a hypotonic solution do what?

A

gain water through osmosis and burst

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82
Q

red blood cells placed into a hypertonic solution do what

A

lose water through osmosis and shrink

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83
Q

red blood cells placed into an isotonic solution do what

A

remain unchanged because osmotic pressures are equal

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84
Q

____ are groups of similar cells with related functions

A

tissues

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85
Q

the study of tissues

A

histology or microanatomy

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86
Q

what are the four primary types of tissues

A
  1. epithelial
  2. connective
  3. muscle
  4. nervous
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87
Q

this tissue covers the body surface, lines body cavities, and forms the active part of glands

A

epithelial tissue

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88
Q

the functions of this tissue are protection, secretion, excretion, filtration, absorption of nutrients, and receipt of sensory information

A

epithelial tissue

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89
Q

This tissue can form simple (one cell layer) or stratified (more than one cell layer) tissue

A

epithelial tissue

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90
Q

what are the subtypes of epithelial tissues

A
  1. squamous epithelium
  2. cuboidal epithelium
  3. columnar epithelium
  4. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
  5. transitional epithelium
  6. glandular epithelium
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91
Q

This tissue has flat, thin, plate-like cells.
The simple type of this tissue lines blood vessels, alveoli of lungs, and thoracic and abdominal cavities.
The stratified type of this tissue is found in areas of wear:
- nonkeratinized types line the mouth, esophagus, vagina, and rectum
- keratinized types makes up the epidermis

A

squamous epithelium

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92
Q

This subtype of tissue is identified by sub shaped cells.
Simple type is important in absorption and secretion; forms the active part of glands and small ducts, ovary surface, and kidney tubules.
Stratified type is fairly rare but lines the ducts of sweat, salivary, and mammary glands.

A

cuboidal epithelium

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93
Q

This tissue type is identified by tall, rectangular cells.
Simple type lines the digestive tract from stomach to rectum and is important for absorption and secretion; these cells also have a surface modification known as microvilli and are associated with mucus secreting cells known as goblet cells.
Simple type with cilia lines bronchi, uterine tubes, and uterus.
Stratified type is relatively rare but is found in mammary ducts and portions of the male urethra.

A

Columnar epithelium

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94
Q

This tissue type appears to be more than one layer, but all cells touch the basal membrane.
These are usually ciliated and often associated with goblet cells; found in the respiratory tract

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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95
Q

This tissue type may resemble both cuboidal and squamous shapes depending on the thickness of the organ but is found in areas where a great degree of distention is needed such as the urinary bladder, ureters, and part of the urethra. (i.e. cuboidal when bladder is empty and squamous when bladder is full)

A

transitional epithelium

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96
Q

This tissue type is highly specialized with the ability to secrete various products.
It is classified as endocrine or exocrine.

A

glandular epithelium

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97
Q

ductless and secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream (estrogen secreted by ovaries)

A

endocrine

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98
Q

have ducts and secrete onto an epithelial surface (sweat glands)

A

exocrine

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99
Q

This tissue is widely distributed throughout the body and composed of three elements: cells, fibers, and matrix (ground substance)

A

connective tissue

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100
Q

_____ tissue has a variety of functions depending on tissue type ( connects and supports, protects, insulates, transports fluids, and stores energy)

A

connective

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101
Q

these fibers are long, straight, very strong white fibers composed of collagen

A

collagen fibers

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102
Q

these fibers are long, thin, branching, stretchable yellow fibers composed of elastin

A

elastic fibers

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103
Q

these fibers are fine collagen fibers in a complex network

A

reticular fibers

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104
Q

There are many different cell types depending on the tissue.
Immature and active cells have the suffix _____
Mature cells have the suffix ______
Cells that break down substances have the suffix ____

A
  • blast
  • cyte
  • clast
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105
Q

what two categories are connective tissues divided into

A

connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue and their subtypes

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106
Q

what are the three types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal
smooth
cardiac

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107
Q

this type of muscle tissue has

  • voluntary control
  • long, parallel striated fibers with multiple nuclei located at their periphery
  • attaches to and moves bones
A

skeletal

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108
Q

this type of muscle tissue has

  • involuntary control
  • spindle-shaped, smooth cells with a centrally located nucleus
  • found in the walls of hollow organs
  • lacks bony attachments
A

smooth

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109
Q

this type of muscle tissue has

  • involuntary control
  • long, striated cells that are joined at points known as intercalated discs; have a single, centrally located nucleus
  • found only in the heart
A

cardiac

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110
Q

This tissue is specialized for conducting electrical impulses.
The major locations are brain, spinal cord, and nerves
They are known by two major cell types: neurons, neuroglial cells

A

nervous tissue

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111
Q

Give examples of connective tissue proper

A

loose (areolar, adipose, reticular)

dense (regular, irregular, elastic)

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112
Q

this is the most widely distributed connective tissue that supports organs, protects and provides flexibility for all three fiber types
Fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, white blood cells

A

areolar

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113
Q

this connective tissue insulates, protects, and cushions

reserve energy composed of fat cells

A

adipose

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114
Q

this connective tissue is supportive tissue and is found in the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and bone marrow. network of fine reticular fibers, macrophages, and fibroblasts

A

reticular connective tissue proper

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115
Q

Give examples of specialized tissue

A

cartilage (hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage)
bone (compact /dense)
blood (spongy/ cancellous)

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116
Q

This is a dense connective tissue such as tendons, ligaments, and aponeuroses. collagen fibers arranged in a parallel pattern and fibroblasts provide strong attachments

A

regular dense tissue

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117
Q

this dense connective tissue is found in dermis of the skin, organ capsules, joint capsules. collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern, elastic fibers, fibroblasts. provides strength and support to areas experiencing tension from all directions

A

irregular dense connective tissue

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118
Q

this dense connective tissue is found in ligaments that contain more elastic fibers than collagen; nuchal ligament in horse’s neck

A

elastic dense connective tissue

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119
Q

this specialized cartilaginous tissue is found in nose, trachea, larynx, embryonic skeleton, costal cartilage, articular cartilage. collagen fibers and chondrocytes support with some flexibility

A

hyaline cartilage

120
Q

this specialized cartilage is found in pinna, auditory canal, epiglottis, elastic fibers. provides shape and great flexibility

A

elastic cartilage

121
Q

this specialized cartilage is found in intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, disc in stifle, thick collagen fibers, and chondrocytes. provides strong support

A

fibrocartilage

122
Q

this bone tissue is found in bones, collagen fibers, osteocytes, and calcified matrix. supports, protects, houses blood-producing tissue; stores calcium and other minerals

A

compact (dense)

123
Q

this blood tissue is found in lattice like bone structure.

erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes, plasma

A

spongy cancellous blood tissue

124
Q

______ are made up of more than one tissue, which is usually a type of epithelial tissue attached to a type of connective tissue

A

membrane

125
Q

What are the three types of membranes

A
  1. mucous
  2. serous
  3. cutaneous
126
Q

This type of membranes line cavities that ultimately connect to the exterior of the body

A

mucous membrane

127
Q

This type of membrane is usually stratified, squamous, or simple columnar epithelium attached to loos connective tissue known as lamina propria

A

mucous membrane

128
Q

lamina propria is an example of what type of membrane

A

mucous membrane

129
Q

these membranes are adapted to absorb and secrete; normally secrete mucus, which lubricates both the respiratory, digestive, and urogenital pathways

A

mucous membranes

130
Q

This type of membrane lines body cavities but does not connect to the exterior of the body

A

serous membrane

131
Q

this type of membrane is usually simple squamous epithelium connected to a layer of loose connective (areolar) tissue

A

serous membrane

132
Q

this type of membrane secretes thin, watery fluid which reduces friction between parietal and visceral surfaces

A

serous membrane

133
Q

this type of membrane is named according to their location and organ

A

serous membrane

134
Q

parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium, parietal pleura and visceral pleura are all examples of what type of membrane

A

serous membrane

135
Q

integument or skin is what type of membrane

A

cutaneous membrane

136
Q

this type of membrane consists of keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium attached to a later of dense irregular connective tissue

A

cutaneous membrane

137
Q

this type of membrane is exposed to external environment; provides durability; protection, and waterproofing

A

cutaneous membrane

138
Q

toward the head; also in reference to the anterior aspect of the front and rear limbs proximal to the carpus or tarsus

A

cranial

139
Q

toward the nose; used to describe structures on the head

A

rostral

140
Q

toward the tail; also in reference to the posterior aspect of the front and rear limbs proximal to the carpus or tarsus

A

caudal

141
Q

toward the backbone; also in reference to the front and rear limbs distal to and including the carpus or tarsus

A

dorsal

142
Q

away from the backbone

A

ventral

143
Q

closest to the median plane

A

medial

144
Q

farthest from the medial plane

A

lateral

145
Q

the point closest to the backbone; used especially in reference to limbs

A

distal

146
Q

toward the head; used especially in reference to limbs

A

anterior

147
Q

toward the tail; used especially in reference to limbs

A

posterior

148
Q

bottom of the front foot

A

palmar

149
Q

bottom of the rear foot

A

plantar

150
Q

toward the outer surface of the animal

A

superficial

151
Q

away from the outer surface of the animal

A

deep

152
Q

the study of bone

A

osteology

153
Q

what are the skeletal divisions

A
  1. axial skeleton

2. appendicular skeleton

154
Q

these bones are found on the midline or attached to it (includes ribs, skull, vertebral column, and sternum)

A

axial skeleton

155
Q

all bones present in the limbs (femur, humerus, etc)

A

appendicular skeleton

156
Q

what are the function of bones?

A
  1. support soft tissues of the body
  2. protect vital organs
  3. act as levers for muscle attachment
  4. store minerals
  5. produce blood cells
157
Q

what are the two types of bones?

A
  1. compact (dense) bone

2. spongy (cancellous) bone

158
Q

this type of bone has very few spaces, appears solid, and provides strength and support

A

compact bone

159
Q

this type of bone is made haversian systems (osteons)

A

compact bone

160
Q

______ systems or _____ are composed of the following:

  1. central haversian canal: houses blood vessels and nerves
  2. canaliculi: very small canals that radiate out, connecting all lacunae to each other and to the central haversian canal
  3. lamellae: concentric rings of bone
  4. lacunar: small spaces that house osteocytes (mature bone cells)
A

haversian systems or osteons

161
Q

house blood vessels and nerves

A

central haversian canal

162
Q

very small canals that radiate out, connecting all lacunae to each other and to the central haversian canal

A

canaliculi

163
Q

concentric rings of bone

A

lamellae

164
Q

small spaces that house osteocytes or mature bone cells

A

lacunae

165
Q

These types of bone have no Haversian systems, have large spaces between lattice like pieces of bone (trabeculae), and have spaces that are filled with marrow

A

spongy (cancellous) bone

166
Q

spongy bone of the skill is known as ______

A

diploe

167
Q

what are the different types of bone cells?

A
  1. osteoblast
  2. osteocyte
  3. osteoclast
168
Q

immature bone cells that produce the bone matrix known as osteoid

A

osteoblast

169
Q

mature bone cells; each cell occupies a lacuna in bone

A

osteocyte

170
Q

very large multinucleated cells capable of dissolving bone matrix and releasing minerals

A

osteoclast

171
Q

the process of dissolving bone matrix and releasing minerals is known as

A

osteolysis or resorption

172
Q

it is important for the body to maintain a balance between ____ and ____ activity

A

osteoblast and osteoclast

173
Q

what are the different classifications of bones?

A
  1. long bones
  2. short bones
  3. flat bones
  4. pneumatic bones
  5. irregular bones
  6. sesamoid bones
174
Q

this type of bone consists of a long cylindrical shaft (diaphysis), two ends (epiphyses), and a marrow cavity. They are the main supporting bones of the body.

A

long bones

175
Q

what are the different parts of a long bone

A

epiphysis
disphysis
epiphysis

176
Q

what are the different parts of a long bone

A 
epiphysis - articular cartilage
disphysis - spongy bone
epiphysis - epiphyseal plate
                 - red marrow cavities
                 - compact bone
                 - endosteum
                 - medullary cavity
                 - yellow marrow
                 - periosteum
                 - epiphyseal plate
177
Q

part of the long bone known as the shaft

A

diaphysis

178
Q

part of the long bone on the proximal or distal end of the bone

A

epiphysis

179
Q

part of the long bone - hyaline cartilage that covers ends of the bones

A

articular cartilage

180
Q

part of the long bone - fibrous membrane covering the outside of the bone; rich in blood, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

A

periosteum

181
Q

part of the long bone that lines the marrow cavity

A

endosteum

182
Q

part of the long bone - space within the bone center that contains marrow (red or yellow)

A

medullary (marrow) cavity

183
Q

hematopoietic tissue that produces blood cells

A

red marrow

184
Q

yellow marrow is primarily ____

A

fat

185
Q

part of the long bone - region between diaphysis and epiphysis where bone grows in length; often referred to as the growth plate; becomes the ______ line in mature animals

A

epiphysial cartilage

186
Q

these bones are small, cube shaped bones with two thin layers of compact bone with spongy bone between the layers and function as shock absorbers

A

short bones

187
Q

these bones are thin, flat bones comprised of two layers of compact bone with spongy bone between the layers; resembling a sandwich, that have a protective function

A

flat bones

188
Q

these bones contain sinuses and in avians, act as part of the respiratory system

A

pneumatic bones

189
Q

these bones are unpaired bones with complicated shapes that do not fit any other category

A

irregular bones

190
Q

these bones are found near freely moving joints. they are small short bones attached to tendons and reduce friction along a joint

A

sesamoid bones

191
Q

formation of a bone is called

A

osteogenesis

192
Q

these bones are formed from cartilage bars laid down in the embryo and the majority of bones in the body are formed by this method

A

endochondral

193
Q

these bones are formed from fibrous membranes laid down in the embryo. most flat bones are formed by this method. This method is where osteoblasts product new bone and become mature osteocytes.

A

intramembranous

194
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do dogs and cats have

A

7

195
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do horse have

A

7

196
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do cattle have

A

7

197
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do pigs have

A

7

198
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do sheep have

A

7

199
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do humans have

A

7

200
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do dogs and cats have

A

13

201
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do horse have

A

18

202
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do cattle have

A

13

203
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do pigs have

A

14-15

204
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do sheep have

A

13

205
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do humans have

A

12

206
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do dogs and cats have

A

7

207
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do horses have

A

6

208
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do cattle have

A

6

209
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do pigs have

A

6-7

210
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do sheep have

A

6-7

211
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae do humans have

A

5

212
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do dogs and cats have

A

3

213
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do horses have

A

5

214
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do cattle have

A

5

215
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do pigs have

A

4

216
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do sheep have

A

4

217
Q

how many sacral vertebrae do humans have

A

5

218
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do cats and dogs have

A

6-23

219
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do horses have

A

15-20

220
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do cattle have

A

18-20

221
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do pigs have

A

20-23

222
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do sheep have

A

16-18

223
Q

how many caudal or coccygeal vertebrae do humans have

A

4

224
Q

in cats and dogs, which has a clavicle and which does not

A

cats have clavicles, dogs do not

225
Q

male dogs and cats have a nonarticulating bone in the _____

A

penis

226
Q

cattle have a nonarticulating bone in the ______

A

heart

227
Q

pigs have a nonarticulating bone in the _______

A

snout

228
Q

what are formed when two or more bones are united by fibrous, elastic, or cartilaginous tissue

A

articulations (joints)

229
Q

what are the different classifications of joints

A
  1. synarthrosis
  2. amphiarthrosis
  3. diarthrosis
230
Q

an immovable joint is called _____. Give an example.

A

synarthrosis; skull sutures

231
Q

a slightly moveable joint is called _____. Give an example.

A

amphiarthrosis; pubic symphysis

232
Q

freely moveable joints are called ______. Give an example.

A

diarthrosis; stifle

233
Q

what are the different classifications of joint by function?

A
  1. synarthrotic
  2. amphiarthrotic
  3. diarthrotic
234
Q

what are this different classifications of joints by structure?

A
  1. fibrous
  2. cartilaginous
  3. synovial
235
Q

joint structure united by fibrous tissue; no joint cavity; synarthroses

A

fibrous

236
Q

joint structure united by cartilage; no joint cavity; amphiarthroses

A

cartilaginous

237
Q

joint structure where joint cavity is filled with fluid; membrane and joint capsule; diarthroses

A

synovial

238
Q

a majority of the joints in the body are ____-

A

synovial

239
Q

synovial joints are classified into several types based on ____ and ____

A

structure and function

240
Q

what are the main functions of the muscular system?

A
  1. produces movement of entire body or parts
  2. maintains posture
  3. produces heat
241
Q

what are the three types of muscle?

A
  1. skeletal
  2. smooth
  3. cardiac
242
Q

______ muscle cells are long, striated fibers that run parallel to each other

A

skeletal

243
Q

______ muscle cells are multinucleated with the nuclei on the periphery

A

skeletal

244
Q

each muscle fiber is a muscle cell consisting of many ______

A

myofibrils

245
Q

myofibrils are composed of _______ (actin and myosin)

A

myofilaments

246
Q

what is the functional unit of a muscle cell

A

sarcomere

247
Q

in sarcomere, the connective tissue that lies between the sarcomeres

A

z line

248
Q

in sarcomere, this line runs through the exact center

A

M line

249
Q

in a sarcomere, these are the darker striations and are the total length of the thick filament - includes portions of the thin ligament (actin)

A

A band

250
Q

This is the area within the A band with only thick filaments

A

H zone

251
Q

area with lighter striations, area of the sarcomere with only thin filament

A

i band

252
Q

what are the types of smooth muscle

A

visceral
nonstriated
involuntary

253
Q

these cells are spindle shaped with one centrally located nucleus and no striations

A

smooth muscle cells

254
Q

what muscles are responsible for involuntary movement. give an example of involuntary movement

A

smooth muscle. digestion.

255
Q

what are the two types of smooth muscle

A

single unit/visceral smooth

multiunit smooth

256
Q

this type of smooth muscle is found in sheets and forms the walls of many hollow organs such as intestines and contractions occur in waves called peristalsis with the whole muscle acting as one unit

A

single unit smooth

257
Q

this type of smooth muscle is found as individual fibers, and the fibers are activated individually by the autonomic nervous system such as the arrector of the hair, eye muscles

A

multiunit smooth

258
Q

this muscle (myocardium) is involuntary, striated cells that branch to form a network. they are joined by intercalated discs, which aid in conduction of the nervous impulse to coordinate contraction

A

cardiac muscle

259
Q

what does the all-or-none principle in regards to muscle fibers state?

A

all - or - none principle states that muscle fibers either contract to their fullest or not at all

260
Q

contraction of skeletal muscle by mechanism is described in the sliding filament theory. what are those steps from beginning to end?

A
  1. a nerve impulse travels down a motor nerve axon
  2. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft, transmitting the impulse to the sarcolemma
  3. Impulse is conducted into the T tubules and to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  4. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  5. Calcium binds to troponin, which causes a change in the conformation of tropomyosin
  6. this change exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin
  7. ATP is hydrolyzed, providing the energy required for contraction
  8. Myosin binds to actin, forming cross-bridges
  9. Myosin shortens, brings Z bands closer together
    9a. cross-bridges detach, move, and reattach
    9b. myosin continues to attach, pull and detach, which moves the actin toward the center of the sarcomere during this active phase of muscle contraction
  10. when the nerve impulse stops, calcium is actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and muscle relaxes; energy is also required for relaxation
261
Q

this muscle action usually decreases the angle of the joint

A

flexor

262
Q

this muscle action usually increases the angle of a joint

A

extensor

263
Q

muscle action that moves the bone away from the midline

A

abductor

264
Q

muscle action that moves a bone toward the midline

A

adductor

265
Q

muscle action that produces a dorsally directed movement

A

levator

266
Q

muscle action that produces a ventrally directed movement

A

depressor

267
Q

muscle action that decreases the size of an opening

A

sphincter

268
Q

this joint structure has a ball shaped head that articulates with a cup shaped depression

A

ball and socket (spheroid)

269
Q

give an example of a ball and socket joint

A

shoulder, hip

270
Q

what muscle movements are ball and socket joints capable of

A 
flexion
extension
abduction
adduction
rotation
circumduction
271
Q

this joint structure has oval articulating surfaces

A

arthrodial (condyloid)

272
Q

give an example of arthodial (condyloid) joints

A

radiocarpal joints

273
Q

what muscle movements are arthrodial (condyloid) joints capable of

A

flexion

extension

274
Q

this joint structure has a cylindrical bone that fits into a depression

A

hinge (ginglymus)

275
Q

what are some examples of a hinge (ginglymus) joint

A

stifle, elbow

276
Q

what muscle movements are trochoid (pivot) joints capable of

A

rotation

277
Q

this joint structure has a rounded end of one bone that articulates with a ring of bone

A

trochoid (pivot)

278
Q

what are some examples of trochoid (pivot) joints

A

atlantoaxial

279
Q

what muscle movements are hinge (ginglymus) joints capable of

A

flexion

extension

280
Q

this joint structure has flat, articulating surfaces

A

gliding

281
Q

what are some examples of gliding joints

A

radioulnar, intervertebral

282
Q

what muscle movements are gliding joints capable of

A

flexion

extension

283
Q

this joint structure has a concave surface that articulates with a convex bone

A

saddle

284
Q

what are some examples of saddle joints

A

carpometacarpal, in primates only

285
Q

what muscle movements are saddle joints capable of

A 
flexion
extension
abduction
adduction
rotation
circumduction
286
Q

the brain and spinal cord compose what system?

A

central nervous system (CNS)

287
Q

this system consists of all the nerves connecting to the CNS

A

peripheral nervous system (PNS)

288
Q

This part of the brain is the site of motor control, interpretation of sensory impulses, and areas of association

A

cerebrum

289
Q

what is the basic arrangement of the cerebrum

A

outer gray matter that contains neuron cell bodies, and inner white matter that consists mainly of axons

290
Q

the surface area of the cerebrum is increased by ______ (elevations) and ______ (fissures)

A

gyri (elevations) and sulci (fissures)

291
Q

this is the prominent groove that divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres

A

longitudinal fissure

292
Q

name the four lobes that the brain is divided into

A

frontal
parietal
occipital
temporal

293
Q

This is the region of thalamus and hypothalamus

A

diencephalon

294
Q

the ______ acts as the relay station for sensory impulses and interprets some sensations, such as temperature and pain

A

thalamus

295
Q

the _____ regulates many homeostatic functions such as body temperature, fluid balance, thirst, urine output, food intake, emotion, and behavioral patterns. It also has an important connection with the endocrine system

A

hypothalamus

296
Q

the brainstem consists of what three parts?

A

midbrain
pons
medulla oblongata

297
Q

The midbrain serves as a connecting link between _____ and _____

A

between the forebrain (cerebrum) and hindbrain

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