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CCEB Part 1 > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve arises from the L1-L2 roots, then runs downward through the psoas major, and later at the level of the inguinal ligament, divides into branches to innervate the skin of the anterior surface of the thigh and the cremaster?
• Femoral

  • Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
  • Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
  • Genitofemoral
A

Genitofemoral

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2
Q

What structure would be trapped in between the dura and vertebral body by the swelling spinal cord?
• Pia matter

  • Anterior longitudinal ligament
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Lateral longitudinal ligament
A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

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3
Q

A 22-year-old male is examined in chiropractic treatment after sustaining a grade I ankle sprain three days ago in a baseball game. The patient’s description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would most likely be affected?
• anterior talofibular ligament

  • calcaneofibular ligament
  • anterior tibiofibular ligament
  • deltoid ligament
A

anterior talofibular ligament

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4
Q

Which of the following thigh muscles receives significant innervation from both the peroneal and tibial portions of the sciatic nerve?
• Adductor magnus

  • Semitendinosus
  • Biceps femoris
  • Vastus lateralis
A

Biceps femoris

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5
Q
  1. A 54-year-old female has difficulty abducting her right leg due to trochanteric bursitis. In which plane of movement is she limited?
    • horizontal plane
  • frontal plane
  • sagittal plane
  • transverse plane
A

Frontal plane

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6
Q

A female patient with a spinal cord injury following a skiing accident uses a head control mechanism in order to move her power wheelchair. From the following choices, what is the level of injury where someone would most likely need to use a head control mechanism?
• C6

  • C4
  • C5
  • C7
A

C4

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7
Q

This major body cavity consists of a thoracic and an abdominopelvic portion
• dorsal cavity

  • ventral cavity
  • vertebral cavity

cranial cavity

A

Ventral cavity

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8
Q

Which movement would be completely intact if a client has sustained a laceration of the deep peroneal nerve?
• Dorsiflexion

  • Inversion
  • Eversion
  • Plantar flexion.
A

Plantar flexion

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9
Q 
This gland is one of the largest endocrine glands in the body:
• Thyroid 
• Pituitary 
• Parathyroid 
• Adrenal
A

Thyroid gland

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10
Q

HGH is produced by which gland?
• adrenal gland

  • thymus
  • parathroid gland
  • pituitary gland
A

Pituitary gland

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11
Q

Which of the following statements about the patella is TRUE?
• it attaches to the patellar ligament superiorly

  • it does not protect the knee joint
  • it sits on the patellar surface of the femur
  • it is the smallest sesamoid bond in the body
A

it sits on the patellar surface of the femur

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12
Q

The patient is in the side lying position and the examiner’s hands are placed over the upper part of the iliac crest, pressing toward the floor. Pain in the sacroiliac joints commonly indicates:
• Lesions of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments

  • Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments
  • Hypo-mobility of the sacroiliac joint
  • Lesions of the sacrotuberous ligaments
A

Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments

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13
Q

A spinal trauma patient loses the ability to use his rib or abdominal muscles, but is still able to breath because the diaphragm contracts. Injury at which of the following levels is consistent with this description?
• T7

  • C2
  • T5
  • C7
A

C7

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14
Q

A chiropractor administers the Rinne test in attempts to assess the integrity of the vestibulocochlear nerve on a patient with a suspected upper motor neuron lesion. After striking the tine of the tuning fork to begin vibration, which bony prominence should the chiropractor utilize to position the stem of the tuning fork?
• midline of the skull

  • inion
  • mastoid process
  • occipital protuberance
A

Mastoid process

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15
Q 
Which part of the kidney contains about 1 million microscopic structures called nephrons?
• interlobar artery 
• parenchyma 
• afferent arterioles 
• Medulla
A

Parenchyma

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16
Q

Which region is the superior, middle and inferior cluneal nerves are responsible for innervation of the skin?
• Gluteal

  • Foot
  • Thigh
  • Leg
A

Gluteal

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17
Q

This test is used for assessing hypomobility of the sacroiliac joint:
• Ipsilateral prone kinetic test

  • Sacroiliac rocking
  • Approximation test
  • Transverse anterior stress test
A

Ipsilateral prone kinetic test

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18
Q 
Which epidermis layer has the most dead keratinocytes?
• Corneum 
• Spinosum 
• Lucidum 
• Granulosum
A

Corneum

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19
Q 
This portion of the hair that penetrates into the dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layer:
• Shaft 
• bulb 
• follicle 
• Root
A

Root

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20
Q

Which of the following muscles can flex and medially rotate the thigh?
• Gastrocnemius

  • Psoas major
  • Tensor fasciae latae

Gracilis

A

TFL

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21
Q

What artery is based on the medial aspect of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the lower half of the neck?
• popliteal

  • carotid
  • ulnar
  • dorsalis pedis
A

Carotid

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22
Q

What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the right ventricle to the left and right lungs?
• inferior vena cava

  • superior vena cava
  • aorta

pulmonary arteries

A

Pulmonary arteries

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23
Q 
Which gland(s) are under the base of the tongue?
• all of the options 
• sublingual 
• parotid 
• submandibular
A

Submandibular

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24
Q

What is the reason for encouraging patients on bed rest to periodically plantar and dorisflex their ankles?
• To promote cardiac contractility

  • To increase blood flow to the legs
  • To prevent blood clots
  • To prevent muscle atrophy
A

To prevent blood clots

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25
Q 
Which sensory receptor is found in greatest numbers in the skin?
• pain receptors 
• warmth receptors 
• pressure receptors 
• touch receptors
A

pain receptors

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26
Q

Which nerve supplies sensation to the fifth finger?
• Ulnar

  • Radial
  • Median
  • Musculocutaneous
A

ulnar

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27
Q

Which one of the following structures is NOT housed in the mediastinum?
• thoracic part of the trachea

  • the heart
  • thoracic part of the esophagus

lungs

A

lungs

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28
Q

What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the left ventricle?
• pulmonary arteries

  • superior vena cava
  • pulmonary veins
  • aorta
A

aorta

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29
Q

This layer protects the kidney from trauma:

A

Renal capsule

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30
Q

Which gait pattern is characterized by excessive lateral trunk flexion and weight shifting over the stance leg due to gluteus medius weakness?
• antalgic

  • trendelenburg
  • vaulting
  • circumduction
A

Trendelenburg

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31
Q

Following an upper arm stab wound, a patient has weakness of elbow flexion and forearm supination. You suspect severance of the:
• Ulnar nerve

  • Musculocutaneous nerve
  • Median nerve
  • Axillary nerve
A

Musculocutaneous

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32
Q

Which part of the sphenoid bone is a depression found in the midline superior to the sphenoid sinus?
• Mandible

  • Tuberculum sellae
  • Dorsum sellae
  • Sella turcica
A

Sella turcica

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33
Q

A soldier crawling along a ditch in live round training incautiously raised his rear. An ultimately bullet shattered his ischial tuberosity. Which of the following muscles would you expect to still be functional?
• The long head of the biceps femoris

  • The semitendinosus
  • The semimembranosus
  • The short head of the biceps femoris
A

Short head biceps femoris

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34
Q 
Diencephalon encloses the \_\_\_\_ ventricle
• second 
• lateral 
• fourth 
• third
A

third

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35
Q 
This system protects underlying tissues, regulates body temperature, houses sensory receptors, and synthesizes various substances
• Integumentary 
• Skeletal 
• Endocrine 
• Muscular
A

Integumentary

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36
Q 
The posterior one third of the tongue receives both general and taste innervation from which of the following nerves?
• Lingual nerve 
• Glossopharyngeal nerve 
• Inferior palatine nerve 
• Hypoglossal nerve
A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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37
Q 
Which gland is also known as the “third eye”
• Pineal 
• Parathyroid 
• Pituitary 
• Thyroid
A

Pineal

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38
Q

What artery is near the center of the long axis of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones?
• ulnar

  • dorsalis pedis
  • popliteal
  • brachial
A

dorsalis pedis

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39
Q

A patient presents with spinous left body right at C4. Which supine adjustment would correct this problem?
• supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact left articular pillar

  • supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar
  • supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact right articular pillar
  • supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact left articular pillar
A

supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar

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40
Q

Which objective finding would be consistent with a patient with a suspected injury to the thoracodorsal nerve?
• paralysis of the rhomboids

  • paralysis of the diaphragm
  • shoulder extension weakness
  • shoulder medial rotation weakness
A

shoulder extension weakness

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41
Q

Which one of the following manifestations would you NOT expect to observe in a person with a right thoracic scoliosis?
• depressed shoulder on the right

  • protruding scapula on the right
  • prominent hip on the left
  • depressed shoulder on the left
A

depressed shoulder on the right

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42
Q 
Which is NOT apart of the lower respiratory system?
• larynx 
• trachea 
• lungs 
• pharynx
A

pharynx

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43
Q 
Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are most commonly in the:
• Medulla 
• Midbrain 
• Cerebellar hemispheres 
• Cerebral hemispheres
A

Cerebral hemispheres

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44
Q

An effective cardiorespiratory training program session should include all of these basic components EXCEPT:
• Warm-up phase

  • Cool-down phase
  • Endurance phase
  • Power phase
A

Power phase

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45
Q 
which muscle performs cervical flexion
Splenius 
suboccipital 
longus colli 
SCM
A

Longus colli

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46
Q 
Which of the following pulses can be palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad?
A. Subclavian 
B. Brachial 
C. Radial 
D. Ulnar
A

ulnar

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47
Q 
Calcitonin is secreted by which of the following cells?
A. Parafollicular 
B. Follicular 
C. Chief 
D. Macrophages
A

Parafollicular

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48
Q 
Which of the following muscles is the medial rotator of the hip?
A. Gluteus maximus 
B. Gluteus medius 
C. Obturator internus 
D. Quadratus lumborum
A

Gluteus medius

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49
Q 
Damage to the long thoracic nerve produces paralysis of which of the following muscles?
A. Pectorals major 
B. Serratus anterior 
C. Latissimus dorsi 
D. Subscapularis
A

Serratus anterior

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50
Q 
Which embryological structure is the adrenal medulla derived from?
A. Endoderm 
B. Ectoderm 
C. Neural crest cells 
D. Mesoderm
A

Neural crest cells

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51
Q 
Which nerve innervate the peronei muscles?
A. Deep peroneal 
B. Superficial peroneal 
C. Superior gluteal 
D. Inferior gluteal
A

Superficial peroneal

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52
Q 
What type of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract?
A. Simple squamous 
B. Simple columnar 
C. Stratified squamous 
D. Psudostratified ciliated columnar
A

Psudostratified ciliated columnar

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53
Q 
Which of the following nerves is palpable on the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula?
A. Deep peroneal 
B. Superficial peroneal 
C. Common peroneal 
D. Tibial
A

Common peroneal

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54
Q 
Posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert on which bone?
A. Cuboid 
B. Calcaneous 
C. Talus1 
D. 1st metatarsal
A

Calcaneous

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55
Q 
The epiphyseal plate is considered to be what type of joint?
A. Synchondrosis 
B. Syndesmosis 
C. Symphysis 
D. Synovial
A

Synchondrosis

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56
Q 
In which bone is the soleal line?
A. Femur 
B. Tibia 
C. Fibula 
D. Calcaneous
A

Tibia

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57
Q 
The lateral malleolus is a feature of which of the following bones?
A. Femur 
B. Tibia 
C. Fibula 
D. Calcaneous
A

Fibula

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58
Q 
The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of which artery?
A. Left coronary 
B. Marginal 
C. Circumflex 
D. Right coronary
A

Left coronary

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59
Q 
Which ligament prevents the lateral displacement of the tibia?
A. Tibia collateral 
B. Fibula collateral 
C. Post cruciate 
D. Ant cruciate
A

Fibula collateral

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60
Q 
The spring ligament connects the calcaneous to which of the following bones?
A. Cuboid 
B. Talus 
C. Navicular 
D. Tibia
A

Navicular

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61
Q 
Which of the following muscles inserts on the 5th metatarsal?
A. Peroneus longus 
B. Peroneus brevis 
C. Flexor hallicus longus 
D. Polliteus
A

Peroneus brevis

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62
Q 
Which of the following nerves innervates the tibialis anterior muscles
A. Deep peroneal 
B. Superficial peroneal 
C. Tibial 
D. Saphenous
A

Deep peroneal

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63
Q 
The primary ossification of a long bone is located on?
A. Metaphysis 
B. Diaphysis 
C. Epiphysis 
D. Epiphyseal plate
A

Diaphysis

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64
Q 
Palatoglussus and palatopharyngeus form which of the following?
A. Soft palate 
B. Uvula 
C. Piriform recess 
D. Pillars of fauceus
A

Pillars of fauceus

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65
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
A. Villi 
B. Rugae 
C. Peyers patches 
D. Haustra
A

Haustra

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66
Q 
The radial notch articulates with which of the following?
A. Head of the radius 
B. Head of the ulna 
C. Trochlea of the humerus 
D. Neck of the radius
A

Head of radius

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67
Q 
On which bone is the olecranon fossa located?
A. Scaphoid 
B. Radius 
C. Ulna 
D. Humerus
A

Humerus

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68
Q 
The radial nerve is found on which bone?
A. Post radius 
B. Medial ulna 
C. Medial scaphoid 
D. Medial pisiform
A

Post radius

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69
Q 
The esophageal hiatus is located at which vertebral level?
A. T8 
B. T9 
C. T10 
D. T11
A

T10

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70
Q 
The coronoid process is located on which bone?
A. Scapula 
B. Ulna 
C. Radius 
D. Humerus
A

Ulna

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71
Q 
Haversion systems are separated from each other by which of the following?
A. Volkmann canals 
B. Interstitial lamina 
C. Endosteum 
D. Canaliculi
A

Interstitial lamina

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72
Q 
Ankle inversion and plantar flexion of the foot is most restricted by which of the following ligaments?
A. Deltoid 
B. Ant tibial 
C. Post talofibular 
D. Ant talofibular
A

Ant talofibular

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73
Q 
Which of the following nerves supplies the extensor muscles of the fingers?
A. Radial 
B. Ulnar 
C. Median 
D. Musculocutaneous
A

Radial

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74
Q 
Which of the following muscles externally rotates the arm?
A. Infraspinatus 
B. Subscapularis 
C. Pectorals major 
D. Latissimus dorsi
A

Infraspinatus

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75
Q 
Which of the following ligaments prevents anterior displacement of the tibia?
A. Lateral collateral 
B. Medial collateral 
C. Ant cruciate 
D. Post cruciate
A

Ant cruciate

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76
Q 
In the fetus blood bypasses the liver sinusoid through which of the following?
A. Ductus arteriosus 
B. Ductus venosus 
C. Foramen ovale 
D. Ligamentus teres
A

Ductus venosus

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77
Q 
The peroneus longus tendon into the foot and attaches to which bone?
A. Cuboid 
B. Navicular 
C. Calcaneous 
D. Lateral cuneiform
A

Cuboid

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78
Q 
What part of the humerus articulates with the radius?
A. Trochlear 
B. Lateral epicondyle 
C. Olecranon 
D. Capitulum
A

Capitulum

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79
Q 
Fracture of the medial epicondyle results in damage to which of the following muscles?
A. Biceps brachii 
B. Abductor pollicis longus 
C. Flexor carpi ulnaris 
D. Flexor digitorum superficialis
A

Flexor carpi ulnaris

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80
Q 
What are the 8-12 conical projections in the renal medulla called?
A. Pyramids 
B. Minor calyces 
C. Major calyces 
D. Papilla
A

Pyramids

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81
Q 
Which structure pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm?
A. Aorta 
B. Esophagus 
C. Inf vena cava 
D. Vagus nerve
A

Inf vena cava

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82
Q 
The apex of the lug is located at what level?
A. At the level of the 1st rib 
B. Above the 1st rib 
C. At the level of the 2nd rib 
D. Below the 1st rib
A

Above the 1st rib

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83
Q 
The lacrimal fossa is part of what bone?
A. Frontal 
B. Maxillary 
C. Ethmoid 
D. Zygomatic
A

Frontal

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84
Q 
The axillary nerve lies within which?
A. Quadrangular sulcus 
B. Triangular sulcus 
C. Triangular space 
D. Quadrangular space
A

Quadrangular space

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85
Q 
Which of the following is part of the nephron?
A. Efferent arteriole 
B. Loop of Henle 
C. Straight collecting tubule 
D. Transverse collecting duct
A

Loop of Henle

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86
Q 
Which muscle inserts into the scapula?
A. Pectorals major 
B. Pectorals minor 
C. Subscapularis 
D. Brachialis
A

Pect minor

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87
Q 
The gracillis muscle is supplied by which nerve?
A. Superficial gluteal 
B. Obturator 
C. Femoral 
D. Tibial
A

Obturator

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88
Q 
Surfactant is produced by?
A. Type 1 alveolar cells 
B. Type 2 aveolar cells 
C. Dust cells 
D. Goblet cells
A

Type 2 aveolar cells

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89
Q

Chordae tendonae are fibrous cords the connect _____ to _____?
A. Valve cusps to papillary muscles
B. Valve cusps to arterial wall
C. Papillary muscles to arterial wall
D. Papillary muscles to ventricular walls

A

Valve cusps to papillary muscles

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90
Q 
Which structure passes thru the deep inguinal of the male?
A. Epididymus 
B. Transverse abdominus muscle 
C. Tunica albuginea 
D. Spermatis cord
A

Spermatis cord

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91
Q 
Which of the following taste buds are the largest and fewest in number?
A. Fungiform 
B. Filliform 
C. Foliate 
D. Circumvallate
A

Circumvallate

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92
Q 
Posterior costal pleura extends caudally to the level of?
A. T10 
B. 9th rib 
C. 12th rib 
D. L2
A

12th rib

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93
Q 
Which of the following cells types is located in the Lucunae of Howship?
A. Osteoblasts 
B. Osteoclasts 
C. Osteocytes 
D. Melanocyte
A

Osteoclasts

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94
Q 
The radial artery terminates at?
A. Deep palmer arch 
B. Superficial palmer arch 
C. Post interosseus 
D. Profunda brachii
A

Deep palmer arch

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95
Q 
Which of the following is the insertion of the long head of the biceps brachii?
A. Intertubercular groove 
B. Radial tuberosity 
C. Trochlear notch 
D. Olecranon fossa
A

Radial tuberosity

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96
Q 
Which of the following is the superficial boundary of the perineal caviity?
A. Pouch of Douglas 
B. Pelvic diaphragm 
C. Perineal space 
D. Colles flexure (fascia)
A

Colles flexure (fascia)

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97
Q 
The ureter runs anterior to which of the following structures?
A. Psoas major 
B. Abdominal aorta 
C. Sup mesenteric artery 
D. Renal vein
A

Psoas major

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98
Q 
Which of the following is the vein most superficial on the calf?
A. Schindylesis 
B. Greater Saphenous 
C. Lesser Saphenous 
D. Peroneal
A

Lesser Saphenous

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99
Q 
The Interosseous membrane of the leg classified?
A. Schindylesis 
B. Syndesmosis 
C. Symphysis 
D. Synchondrosis
A

Syndesmosis

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100
Q 
Which of the following planes divides the body into Right & Left halves?
A. Horizontal 
B. Median 
C. Transverse 
D. Coronal
A

Median

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101
Q 
The superior mesenteric arteries which of the following?
A. The spleen 
B. Jejunum 
C. Descending Colon 
D. Sigmoid Colon
A

Jejunum

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102
Q 
Medial Rotation of the Tibia is accomplished by which of the following muscles?
A. Rectus Femoris 
B. Popliteus 
C. Plantaris 
D. Biceps femoris
A

Popliteus

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103
Q 
The thickest part of the heart is?
A. Right atrium 
B. Right ventricle 
C. Left atrium 
D. Left ventricle
A

Left ventricle

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104
Q 
Which of the following of the following bones contains the coronoid tubercle?
A. Scapula 
B. Ulna 
C. Clavicle 
D. Humerus
A

Clavicle

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105
Q 
60. The embryological derivation for epithelium is?
A. Ectoderm 
B. Endoderm 
C. Splanchinic mesoderm 
D. Somatic mesoderm
A

Endoderm

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106
Q

Paralysis of which of the following muscles results in loss of abduction and external rotation of the humerus
A. Lateral Dorsal & Serratus Anterior
B. Middle Deltoid & Sub-Scapulerus
C. Supraspinatus & Teres Major
D. Supra & Infraspinatus

A

Supra and infraspinatus

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107
Q

Muscle spindles are what type of receptors?
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Stretch

A

Stretch

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108
Q 
Which of the following structures is found in the peritoneal cavity?
A. Kidney 
B. Abdominal aorta 
C. Pancreas 
D. Sigmoid colon
A

Sigmoid colon

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109
Q

From which granular structure is renin secreted?
A. Afferent arteriole
B. Glomerular capillary fenestration
C. Peritubular capillary
D. Basement membrane of glomerular capillary

A

Afferent arteriole

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110
Q 
The sustentaculum tali is part of which bone?
A. Cuboid 
B. Navicular 
C. Talus 
D. Calcaneous
A

Calcaneous

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111
Q 
What joints is a fibrous articulation?
A. Proximal tibiofibular 
B. Distal radiounlar 
C. Distal tibiofibular 
D. Interventricular disc
A

Distal tibiofibular

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112
Q 
The laryngotrocheal diverticulum developed from which of the following?
A. Pharynx 
B. Foregut 
C. Midgut 
D. Hindgut
A

Pharynx

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113
Q 
The head of the fibula articulates with which of the following?
A. Base of patella 
B. Base of talus 
C. Lateral condyle of tibia 
D. Lateral condyle of femurs
A

Lateral condyle of tibia

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114
Q 
The midgut forms which of the following structures?
A. Ileum 
B. Pancreas 
C. Duodenum 
D. Larynx
A

Ileum

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115
Q 
Which is a feature of the humerus?
A. Glenoid fossa 
B. Coronoid fossa 
C. Trochlear fossa 
D. Olecranon process
A

Coronoid fossa

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116
Q 
How many tarsal bones are in the foot?
A. 5 
B. 6 
C. 7 
D. 8
A

7

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117
Q 
What ligament reinforces the posterior portion of the hip joint?
A. Ischiofemoral 
B. Pubofemoral 
C. Iliofemoral 
D. Transverse acetabular
A

Ischiofemoral

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118
Q

The articulation of the humerus and ulna during extension occurs at ____ &_____?
A. Supraulna and radius
B. Olecranon fossa and olecranon process
C. Capitulum and radius
D. Trochlea and olecranon

A

Olecranon fossa and olecranon process

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119
Q 
What divides the muscles into fascicles?
A. Epimysium 
B. Perimysium 
C. Endomysium 
D. Neurolemma
A

Perimysium

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120
Q 
The biceps brachii tendon is held in place by?
A. Transverse humeral ligament 
B. Coracoacromial ligament 
C. Glenohumeral ligament 
D. Acromiohumeral ligament
A

Transverse humeral ligament

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121
Q

Which of the following canals is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa?
A. Pudendal
B. Anal
C. Obturator

A

Pudendal

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122
Q 
Which organs is devoid of lymphatics?
A. Kidney 
B. Uterus 
C. Liver 
D. Brain
A

Brain

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123
Q 
Which of the following organs has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
A. Stomach 
B. Brain 
C. Pancreas 
D. Liver
A

Pancreas

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124
Q 
The anterior portion of the hard palate is part of which of the following bones?
A. Maxillary 
B. Sphenoid 
C. Ethmoid 
D. Palatine
A

Maxillary

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125
Q 
Which of the following forms the inferior attachment of the inguinal ligament?
A. Pecten pubis 
B. Pubic crest 
C. Obturator crest 
D. Pubic tubercle
A

Pubic tubercle

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126
Q 
Which of the following veins closely follows the medial antebrachial cutaneous vein?
A. Cephalic 
B. Basilic vein 
C. Superficial venous palmer arch 
D. Accessory cephalic
A

Basilic vein

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127
Q 
Which of the following ligaments connects the medial and lateral leminiscus of the knee?
A. Transverse 
B. Ant cruciate 
C. Post cruciate 
D. Collateral
A

Transverse

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128
Q 
Which of the following structures separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches (foramen)?
A. Ishial spine 
B. Ischial tuberosity 
C. Ischial ramus 
D. Ischiopubic ramus
A

Ischial spine

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129
Q 
Which two carpal bones articulate with the radius?
A. Pisiform and hamate 
B. Triquetium and triangular 
C. Scaphoid and lunate 
D. Trapezium and trapezoid
A

Scaphoid and lunate

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130
Q 
What is the action of the soleus muscle (post aspect)?
A. Eversion 
B. Inversion 
C. Dorsiflexion 
D. Plantar flexion
A

Plantar flexion

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131
Q 
Fibrocartilage unites bone in which of the following articulations?
A. Suture 
B. Symphysis 
C. Hinge 
D. Saddle joint
A

Symphysis

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132
Q 
The linea aspera is located on which of the following bones?
A. Post femur 
B. Ant femur 
C. Post fibula 
D. Ant fibula
A

Post femur

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133
Q 
Which of the following is the most common location for a sesmoid bone?
A. Extensor pollicis longus 
B. Adductor pollicis 
C. Flexor pollicis brevis 
D. Flexor pollicis longus
A

B. Adductor pollicis

C. Flexor pollicis brevis

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134
Q 
At what vertebral level is the horizontal fissure of the lung located?
A. T3 
B. T4 
C. T6 
D. T8
A

T6

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135
Q 
Meissner’s plexus is located in which part of the intestinal lining?
A. Submucosa 
B. Mucosa 
C. Muscularis 
D. Serosa
A

Submucosa

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136
Q 
Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle?
A. Mylohyoid 
B. Thyrohyoid 
C. Omohyoid 
D. Sternohyoid
A

Mylohyoid

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137
Q 
Which of the following structures lies proximal to the trochlea on the distal humerus?
A. Olecranon 
B. Coronoid fossa 
C. Coracoid fossa 
D. Radial artery
A

Coronoid fossa

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138
Q 
Arterial blood supply to urinary bladder is derived from superior & inferior branches?
A. Internal iliac 
B. External ilia 
C. Common iliac 
D. Aorta
A

Internal iliac

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139
Q 
Shape of the ligament on the liver that is a remnant of umbilical vein?
A. Oval 
B. Left triangular 
C. Round ligament 
D. Right triangular
A

Round ligament

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140
Q 
The peroneal artery is located in which of the following compartments of the leg?
A. Ant 
B. Post 
C. Lateral 
D. Medial
A

Post

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141
Q 
Which passes thru the foramen rotundum?
A. Abducens nerve 
B. Trochlear nerve 
C. Maxillary nerve 
D. Internal jugular nerve
A

Maxillary

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142
Q

Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) striated
b) voluntary
c) multinucleate
d) autorhythmic

A

d) autorhythmic

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143
Q

The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue:

a) striated
b) skeletal
c) cardiac
d) smooth

A

smooth

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144
Q

Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue:

a) is involuntary
b) is non-striated
c) has intercalated discs
d) contains smooth muscle tissue

A

c) has intercalated discs

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145
Q

Approximately what percentage of body heat is generated by muscle tissue:

a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 55%
d) 85%
e) 98%

A

85%

146
Q

A muscle fascicle is a:

a) bundle of myofibrils
b) bundle of connective tissue
c) bundle of muscle fibers
d) muscle cell

A

c) bundle of muscle fibers

147
Q

The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a:

a) sarcomere
b) motor unit
c) synapse
d) thin filament

A

sarcomere

148
Q

The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are:

a) myosin and tropomyosin
b) myosin and actin
c) actin and troponin
d) troponin and tropomyosin

A

d) troponin and tropomyosin

149
Q

Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle:

a) constriction of blood vessels
b) heartbeat
c) dilation of pupil
d) eye movements

A

eye movements

150
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction:

a) thick and thin filaments bind to each other
b) muscle fibers stretch
c) thick and thin filaments “slide” past each other
d) muscle fibers shorten

A

b) muscle fibers stretch

151
Q

This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction:

a) calcium is released from intracellular storage sites
b) motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle
c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine
d) troponin binds calcium

A

c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine

152
Q

The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from:

a) excessive acetycholine activity on muscle
b) excessive calcium release in muscle
c) excessive lactic acid build up
d) excessive contraction of the fibers

A

b) excessive calcium release in muscle

153
Q

A single motor neuron may innervate as few as 3-5 fibers in muscles of the:

a) upper arms
b) legs
c) eye
d) heart

A

eye

154
Q

) When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron:

a) calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber
b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
c) acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft
d) physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs

A

b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft

155
Q

) Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in:

a) decrease acetylcholine production by the motor neuron
b) relaxation of the muscle fiber
c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
d) inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fiber

A

c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber

156
Q

Curare, a toxin, blocks the acetylcholine receptors on muscle tissue. This would result in:

a) increased stimulation of the muscle fiber
b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus
c) contraction of the muscle fiber
d) excessive contractions and convulsions

A

b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus

157
Q

Training excersizes such as jogging, swimming and aerobics have this effect on skeletal muscle tissue:

a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber
b) increase number of muscle fibers
c) increase number of motor units
d) increase number of skeletal muscles

A

a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber

158
Q

Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder characterized by

a) skeletal muscle degeneration
b) excessive convulsions
c) shaking and trembling
d) only cardiac damage

A

a) skeletal muscle degeneration

159
Q

Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful musculoskeletal “tender points”:

a) fibromyalgia
b) myasthenia gravis
c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d) Becker muscular dystrophy

A

a) fibromyalgia

160
Q

) Anabolic steroids have all these effects except:

a) builds muscle proteins
b) increases muscle strength
c) increases number of muscles in the body
d) can result in liver cancer and heart disease

A

c) increases number of muscles in the body

161
Q

Which of the following statements regarding aging and the muscular system is true:

a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
b) the effects of aging can be nearly completely reversed
c) satellite cells increase in aging causing fibrosis
d) young persons have more adipose in muscles compared to elderly persons

A

a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production

162
Q

Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue:

a. lacunae
b. protein fibers
c. blood vessels
d. chondroitin

A

d. chondroitin

163
Q

The most common type of exocrine gland is this type:

a. apocrine
b. merocrine
c. endocrine
d. holocrine

A

b. merocrine

164
Q

Epithelia that consist of more than one layer of cells is termed:

a. striated
b. stratified
c. stipilated
d. intercalated

A

b. stratified

165
Q

The matrix of connective tissue is composed of:

a. cells, fibers and ground substance
b. cells and fibers
c. fibers and ground substance
d. cells and ground substance

A

c. fibers and ground substance

166
Q

Small hair-like structures on the surface of some epithelial cells are termed:

a. cilia
b. glia
c. villi
d. microvilli

A

cilia

167
Q

These cells are located in bone tissue:

a. chondroblasts
b. osteocytes
c. fibroblasts
d. chondrocytes

A

b. osteocytes

168
Q

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury:

a. bone
b. epithelium
c. cartilage
d. muscle

A

b. epithelium

169
Q

The small holes in which some connective tissue cells reside are termed:

a. lumen
b. lamellae
c. lacunae
d. lamaze

A

c. lacunae

170
Q

Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle tissue fibers:

a. striated
b. voluntary
c. multinucleate
d. branched

A

branched

171
Q

Which of the following suffixes implies “growth” or “formation”:

a. -blast
b. -lemma
c. -stasis
d. -cyte

A

blast

172
Q

Based on basic tissue type, which of the following terms does not belong grouped with the others:

a. muscle
b. ligament
c. cartilage
d. blood

A

muscle

173
Q

A tissue viewed under the microscope displays cells in little holes, densely packed fibers and no blood vessels. This describes:

a. dense regular connective tissue
b. hyaline cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. adipose tissue

A

c. fibrocartilage

174
Q

Which of the following characteristics can be used to describe epithelial tissue:

a. it is derived from mesenchyme
b. sarcomas originate from it
c. it is well vascularized
d. it forms the glands of the body

A

d. it forms the glands of the body

175
Q

The serous membrane lining the surface of the lung is the:

a. parietal pleura
b. visceral peritoneum
c. visceral pleura
d. peritoneal pleura

A

c. visceral pleura

176
Q

Read the following statements carefully. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT statements: (hint - a statement may appear to be stating correct facts and yet be incorrect as a whole statement. Read and Think.

1) Cartilage heals slower than skin because cartilage is a deeper tissue.
2) The inside lining of the intestine has a large surface area because of the presence of cilia.
3) Adipose is a type of connective tissue because that is where fat is stored.
a. all are correct statements
b. only #1 and #2 are incorrect
c. only #2 and #3 are incorrect
d. only #1 and #3 are incorrect
e. all are incorrect statements

A

e. all are incorrect statements

177
Q

The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:

a) perichondrium
b) periosteum
c) endosteum
d) exofibrium
e) articular cartilage

A

b) periosteum

178
Q

Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:

a) sternum
b) ethmoid
c) femur
d) patella
e) phalanx

A

d) patella

179
Q

These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:

a) osteoclasts & collagen
b) mineralized salts & osteocytes
c) mineralized salts & collagen
d) collagen & elastic fibers
e) collagen & mesenchyme

A

c) mineralized salts & collagen

180
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:

a) epiphysis
b) metaphysis
c) diaphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
e) mesenchyme

A

c) diaphysis

181
Q

Yellow marrow consists of:

a) osteoprogenitor cells
b) blood cell progenitor cells
c) hyaline cartilage
d) adipose
e) spongy bone

A

d) adipose

182
Q

Chondroblasts produce:

a) basement membranes
b) bone matrix
c) cartilage matrix
d) mesothelium
e) endothelium

A

c) cartilage matrix

183
Q

These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:

a) Haversian canals
b) canaliculi
c) perforating canals
d) osteocytes

A

a) Haversian canals

184
Q

The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:

a) osteoclasts
b) chondrocytes
c) osteocytes
d) fibroblasts
e) osteoblasts

A

c) osteocytes

185
Q

Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:

a) an indication of microcephaly
b) frontal sinuses
c) epiphyseal plates
d) cribriform plates
e) fontanelles

A

e) fontanelles

186
Q

Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of:

a) bone remodeling
b) embryonic skeletal ossification
c) controlling blood calcium levels
d) cartilage synthesis

A

b) embryonic skeletal ossification

187
Q

Which of the following is not a cranial suture:

a) epiphyseal
b) lambdoidal
c) coronal
d) sagittal
e) squamous

A

a) epiphyseal

188
Q

The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:

a) zygomatic and temporal
b) palatine and maxillae
c) maxillae and zygomatic
d) maxillae and mandible

A

b) palatine and maxillae

189
Q

The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:

a) nasal and lacrimal
b) inferior nasal choncae and vomer
c) vomer and ethmoid
d) ethmoid and sphenoid

A

c) vomer and ethmoid

190
Q

Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:

a) deviated nasal septum
b) sinusitis
c) damaged cribriform plate
d) damaged or cleft palate
e) ruptured bursae

A

c) damaged cribriform plate

191
Q

“Articulations” refers to:

a) broken bones
b) the study of individual bones
c) bone growth and remodeling
d) structures on bones where muscles attach
e) joints

A

e) joints

192
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the cranium:

a) sphenoid
b) palatine
c) ethmoid
d) occipital

A

b) palatine

193
Q

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:

a) femur
b) sternum
c) mandible
d) sacrum

A

a) femur

194
Q

The “Hunchback” of Notre Dame probably suffered from:

a) cleft palate
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lordosis
e) spina bifida

A

c) kyphosis

195
Q

Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:

a) spina bifida
b) scoliosis
c) sinusitis
d) kyphosis
e) lordosis

A

a) spina bifida

196
Q

The thickened cartilage “cushions” found in the knee that absorb compression are:

a) the menisci
b) the bursae
c) the ligaments
d) the synovial capsules
e) epiphyseal plates

A

a) the menisci

197
Q

Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:

a) bones held together by cartilage
b) joint surfaces of bones covered with articulating cartilage
c) has joint cavity
d) has 2-layered joint capsule
e) most freely movable of joints

A

a) bones held together by cartilage

198
Q

A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a:

a) cruciate
b) bursae
c) collateral
d) patellar

A

c) collateral

199
Q

Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:

a) removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
b) removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
d) repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee

A

c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee

200
Q

The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:

a) chondroitin sulfate
b) hydroxyapatite
c) osteoblasts
d) blood vessels
e) synovial fluid

A

d) blood vessels

201
Q

This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:

a) growth hormone
b) estrogen
c) parathyroid hormone
d) calcitonin

A

c) parathyroid hormone

202
Q 
The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?
A. 1st brachial arch
B. 2nd brachial arch
C. Occipital somites
D. Pre-optic somites
A

C. Occipital somites

203
Q 
Which type of articulation is located between vertebral arches?
A. Synarthosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Symphysis
A

D. Symphysis

204
Q 
What suboccipital muscle rotates the atlas on the axis?
A. Obliques capitus superior
B. Obliques capitus inferior
C. Rectus captis posterior major
D. Rectus captis posterior minor
A

B. Obliques capitus inferior

205
Q 
The pelvic diaphram is primarly made up of what muscle?
A. Levator ani
B. Piriformis
C. Coccygeus
D. Obturator externus
A

A. Levator ani

206
Q 
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygapophseal joints?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A

B. 4

207
Q 
Vertebral formation is a result of which of the following ?
A. Endochondral Os
B. Mesenchymal Os
C. Intermedually Os
D. Chondroitin
A

A. Endochondral Os

208
Q 
Which receptors are not sensory to the epidermis?
A. End bulb of Krause
B. Meissner corpuscles
C. Merkel’s endings
D. Riffini corpuscles
A

C. Merkel’s endings

209
Q 
The glabella is part of which of the following bones?
A. Maxillary
B. Occipital
C. Frontal
D. Paritial
A

C. Frontal

210
Q 
Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle?
A. Sternohyoid
B. Omohyoid
C. Thyrohyoid
D. Mylohyoid
A

Mylohyoid

211
Q 
The cell bodies of the gustatory fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in what ganglion?
A. Pterygopalatine
B. Solitary
C. Geniculate
D. Superior vagal
A

C. Geniculate

212
Q 
The TVP forms the attachment for which of the following muscles?
A. Levator scapulae
B. Transverse thoracis
C. Internal costalis
D. External costalis
A

A. Levator scapulae

213
Q 
The ocular motor nerve does not innervate which of the following eye muscles?
A. Superior oblique
B. Medial rectus
C. Inferior rectus
D. Inferior oblique
A

A. Superior oblique

214
Q 
Which vertebral structure forms the superior & inferior borders of the IVF?
A. Lamina
B. Anterior IVD
C. Pedicle
D. Posterior IVD
A

C. Pedicle

215
Q 
The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the ? & the ? surfaces?
A. Superior, internal
B. Superior, external
C. Inferior, external
D. Inferior, internal
A

D. Inferior, internal

216
Q 
Inflammation around the pisiform bone may affect which of the following nerves?
A. Musculocutaneous
B. Median
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
A

C. Ulnar

217
Q 
The feature that is unique to the C-spine is?
A. Vertebral notch
B. Accessory process
C. Pars interarticularis
D. Transverse foramina
A

D. Transverse foramina

218
Q 
Axons of the optic nerve are formed by which of the following cells of the retina?
A. Horizontal
B. Bipolar
C. Acrominal
D. Ganglion
A

D. Ganglion

219
Q 
Flexion of the hip is the primary action of which of the following muscles?
A. Psoas
B. Piriformis
C. Gluteus medius
D. Biceps femoris
A

A. Psoas

220
Q 
What structure is located between the articulating surfaces of the TMJ?
A. Articular capsule
B. Synovial membrane
C. Sphenomandibular ligament
D. Articular disc
A

D. Articular disc

221
Q 
Which of the following ligaments would sustain damage in hyperextension of the C-spine?
A. ALL
B. Interspinous ligament
C. Nuchal ligament
D. Supraspinous ligament
A

A. ALL

222
Q 
Which of the following ligaments has attachments to the disc?
A. PLL
B. Cruciate ligament
C. ALL
D. Flaval ligament
A

A.PLL

223
Q 
Due to the positioning of the ligaments a disc herniation will go?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Posterolateral
D. Anterolateral
A

C. Posterolateral

224
Q 
Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic foramen?
A. Iliolumbar
B. Sacrospinous
C. Arcuate
D. Sarcotuberous
A

B. Sacrospinous

225
Q 
Failure of the pupil to constrict when stimulated by a bright light indicates loss of integrity of?
A. Ciliary muscle
B. Dilator pupillae
C. CN III
D. CN IV
A

C. CN III

226
Q 
The visual pathway does not include which of the following?
A. Medial geniculate body
B. Optic radiation
C. CN II
D. Geniculocalcarine fiber
A

A. Medial geniculate body

227
Q 
The spinal nerve from L4—S3 form which of the following nerves?
A. Sciatic
B. Femoral
C. Obturator
D. Pudendal
A

A. Sciatic

228
Q 
The carotid canal goes through which bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Temporal
C. Occipital
D. Maxillary
A

B. Temporal

229
Q 
Fast conducting axons are made of ? Fibers with ? diameter?
A. Myelinated, large
B. Myelinated, small
C. Unmyelinated, large
D. Unmyelinated, small
A

A. Myelinated, large

230
Q 
The embryological development of extensor muscles are derived from?
A. Epimeric
B. Appomeric
C. Splanchic
D. Brachiomeric
A

A. Epimeric

231
Q 
What is the name of the ligament that connects the external occipital protuberance with the SP of C7?
A. Flaval
B. Infraspinous
C. Nuchal
D. Supraspinatous
A

C. Nuchal

232
Q 
The coupling action of lateral flexion with ? is due to the orientation of mid-cervical articular facets?
A. Ipsilateral rotation
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. Contralateral rotation
A

D. Contralateral rotation

233
Q 
Which rib articulates with the sternal notch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
A

B. 2

234
Q 
Inflammation of the parotid gland inhibits which nerve?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Vagus
D. Facial
A

D. Facial

235
Q 
Which structure lies between the temporal & spenoid bones?
A. Foramen lacerum
B. Foramen ovale
C. Foramen orbital fissure
D. Foramen rotundem
A

A. Foramen lacerum

236
Q 
Rods and cones of the retina synapse @ which of the following cells?
A. Ganglion
B. Amacrine
C. Horizontal
D. Bipolar
A

D. Bipolar

237
Q 
Which rib is a true rib but not a typical rib?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
A

A. 1

238
Q 
Portion of the lumbar vertebrae that is between the superior & inferior articular process is?
A. Mammillary process
B. Costal tubercle
C. Articular pillar
D. Pars interarticularis
A

D. Pars interarticularis

239
Q 
Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?
A. Spinal accessory
B. Supraclavicular
C. Suprascapular
D. Subscapular
A

A. Spinal accessory

240
Q 
Which of the following comprise the white rami communicants?
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
B. Postganglionic sympathetic
C. Preganglionic parasympathetic
D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
A

A. Preganglionic sympathetic

241
Q 
Muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch are supplies by which of the following CN?
A. III
B. V
C. VII
D. X
A

B. V

242
Q 
Which of the following attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible?
A. Masseter
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Temporalis
A

D. Temporalis

243
Q 
Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Adrenal medulla
A

D. Adrenal medulla

244
Q 
The dorsal funiculus contains which of the following structures?
A. Fasciculus gracilis
B. Spinothalamic
C. Corticospinal
D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
A

A. Fasciculus gracilis

245
Q 
The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?
A. Reticulospinal
B. Vestibulospinal
C. Corticospinal
D. Rubrospinal
A

C. Corticospinal

246
Q 
Which of the following peduncles connects the pons to the hindbrain?
A. Lateral cerebellar
B. Middle cerebellar
C. Superior cerebellar
D. Inferior cerebellar
A

B. Middle cerebellar

247
Q 
Which of the following is derived from dura mater?
A. Choroid
B. Lens
C. Retina
D. Sclera
A

D. Sclera

248
Q 
Which of the following supplies stimulation to the zygapophyseal joints?
A. Ventral rami
B. Dorsal rami
C. White rami communicants
D. Gray rami communicants
A

B. Dorsal rami

249
Q 
The carotid tubercle is located on which vertebrae?
A. C-5
B. C-6
C. C-7
D. T-1
A

B. C-6

250
Q 
Which of the following is a auditory receptor?
A. Organ of corti
B. Cristae ampullaris
C. Utricle
D. Saccule
A

A. Organ of corti

251
Q 
Which of the following types of glial cells form myelin around the axons of the CNS?
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
C. Ependymal
D. Schwan cells
A

A. Oligodendrocytes

252
Q 
The dorsal lateral fasciculus does not transmit sensation of?
A. Pain
B. Vibration
C. Proprioception
D. 2 point discrimation
A

Pain

253
Q 
The limbic system is not responsible for which of the following ?
A. Effect hormones
B. Regulate body temperature
C. Control emotion
D. Initiate muscle contraction
A

D. Initiate muscle contraction

254
Q 
The long thoracic nerve innervates which of the following muscles?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Serratus anterior
C. Levator scapulae
D. Subscapularis
A

B. Serratus anterior

255
Q 
On which part of the rib is the costal groove located?
A. Shaft
B. Tubercle
C. Head
D. Neck
A

Shaft

256
Q

The cerebellum & pons are part of which primitive structure?
A. Rhombencephalon
B. Prosencephalon
C. Mesencephalon

A

A. Rhombencephalon

257
Q 
Which bone undergoes intermembranous ossification?
A. Parietal
B. Maxillary
C. Zygomatic
D. Mandible
A

A. Parietal

258
Q 
The final synapse for the somesthetic sensory neurons are located in the?
A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum
A

C. Thalamus

259
Q 
The dorsal root ganglion, autonomic ganglion, & schwann cells are derived from which of the following embryonic structures?
A. Somites
B. Neural crest cells
C. Mesoderm
D. Sclerotome
A

B. Neural crest cells

260
Q 
Which of the following is the pathway for conscious proprioception in the brainstem?
A. Medial lemniscus
B. Spinothalamic tract
C. Lateral lemniscus
D. Central tegmental tract
A

A. Medial lemniscus

261
Q 
The gray matter of the spinal cord primarily consist of?
A. Unipolar cells
B. Nodes of ranvier
C. Myelinated cells
D. Nerve cell bodies
A

D. Nerve cell bodies

262
Q 
Which muscle attaches to the articular process of C-3 through C-6?
A. Semispinalis muscle
B. SCM & trapezius
C. Splenus capitus & clavical
D. Rhomboid & pectoralis minor
A

A. Semispinalis muscle

263
Q 
The anterior superior aspect of the vertebral body of S-1 is the sacral?
A. Alar
B. Apex
C. Promontory
D. Cornu
A

C. Promontory

264
Q 
Which of the following structures is found in the cistern of the lumbar region of the spine?
A. Cauda equina
B. Denticulate ligament
C. Coccygeal ligament
D. Meninges of spinal cord
A

A. Cauda equina

265
Q 
Which of the following structures does not attach the axis to the occipital bone?
A. Tectorial membrane
B. Alar ligament
C. Apical ligament
D. Denticulate ligament
A

D. Denticulate ligament

266
Q 
The spinothalamic & medial lemniscal tracts send neurons through the thalamus to which of the following gyrus?
A. Postcentral
B. Precentral
C. Angular
D. Cingulate
A

A. Postcentral

267
Q 
The superior cerebral veins drain into which of the following?
A. Occipital
B. Inferior sagittal
C. Superior sagittal sinus
D. Straight
A

C. Superior sagittal sinus

268
Q 
At the level of the T-4, T-5 vertebrae, which structure is located anteriorally on the sternum?
A. Angle of louis
B. Jugular notch
C. Xyphoid
D. Gladiolus
A

A. Angle of louis

269
Q 
Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve?
A. Posterior digastric
B. Levator palpebrae
C. Mylohyoid
D. Masseter
A

A. Posterior digastric

270
Q 
Which of the following bones contains the inferior orbital fissure?
A. Ethmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Frontal
D. Maxillary
A

B. Sphenoid

271
Q 
What passes through foramen rotundum?
A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Ophthalmic nerve
A

A. Maxillary nerve

272
Q 
Which of the following is transmitted through foramen ovale?
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Mental meningeal artery
D. Ophthalmic nerve
A

A. Mandibular nerve

273
Q 
Foramen spinosum contains?
A. Middle meningeal artery
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Internal carotid artery
A

A. Middle meningeal artery

274
Q 
The crista ampularis is a feature of which of the following?
A. Endolymphatic duct
B. Perilymphatic duct
C. Cohlear duct
D. Semicochlear duct
A

D. Semicochlear duct

275
Q 
Obstruction of foramen of Monroe produces greatest build-up of pressure in?
A. Lateral ventricle
B. 3rd ventricle
C. Fourth ventricle
D. Aqueduct of Sylvius
A

A. Lateral ventricle

276
Q 
Cerebrospinal fluid is normally contained within what space?
A. Epidural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Peridural
A

C. Subarachnoid

277
Q 
Primal tracks decussate?
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. mid brain
D. internal capsule
A

B. Medulla

278
Q 
The orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbar is?
A. Posterior and medial
B. Posterior and lateral
C. Anterior and medial
D. Anterior and lateral
A

C. Anterior and medial

279
Q 
Dermatomes to middle finger is from where in the brachial Plexus?
A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8
A

C. C7

280
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves originates from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
A

B. 7

281
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves is not Parasympathetic?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
A

B. 6

282
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves goes through the cribriform plate
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

A. 1

283
Q 
Cranial nerve II axis the cranial vault via?
A. Superior orbital fissure
B. Optic canal
C. Supraoptic canal
D. Foramen rotundum
A

B. Optic canal

284
Q 
The gray rami communicuntes contain which of the following fibers?
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic
C. Postganglionic sympathetic
D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
A

C. Postganglionic sympathetic

285
Q 
What part of the vertebra bears the greatest amount of weight?
A. Facets
B. Body
C. Pedicles
D. Lamina
A

Body

286
Q 
The most common direction for a disc to herniate is?
A. Central
B. Lateral
C. Posteriomedial
D. Posterolateral
A

D. Posterolateral

287
Q 
What fibers direct pain?
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissners corpuscles
C. End bulbs of Krause
D. Organ of ruffini
A

A. Free nerve endings

288
Q 
The internal jugular vein drains which of the following?
A. Sigmoid sinus
B. Superior sagittal sinus
C. Occipital sinus
D. Straight sinus
A

A. Sigmoid sinus

289
Q 
What splanchnic nerve is derived from spinal nerve T-10/11?
A. Greater
B. Lesser
C. Least
D. Pelvis
A

B. Lesser

290
Q 
At which level of the spinal cord is the conus medullaris found?
A. L1 L2
B. L4 L5
C. L5 S1
D. S2 S3
A

L1 L2

291
Q 
Globus pallidus will transmit info to?
A. Red nucleus
B. Putamen
C. Cortex
D. Thalamus
A

Cortex

292
Q 
Which cell will extend from the pre-motor cortex all the way down the spinal cord?
A. Pyramidal cell
B. Purkinje cells
C. Alpha motor neuron
D. Sensory cells
A

A. Pyramidal cell

293
Q 
Cerebro, ponto, & cerebellar involves?
A. Initiation of skilled movements
B. Fine hand movements
C. Coordination of movements
D. Crude touch
A

C. Coordination of movements

294
Q 
The trigeminal nerve goes through the cerebral- spinal fluid through which cistern?
A. Superior
B. Pontine
C. Lumbar
D. Chyli
A

B. Pontine

295
Q 
Tectospinal tract responds to?
A. Rotation of cervical spine
B. Rotation of thoracic spine
C. Rotation of lumbar spine
D. Find hand movement
A

Rotation of cervical spine

296
Q 
Which of the following vertebra has a pair of full costal facets and one pair of demi facets?
A. T1
B. T-3
C. T10
D. T12
A

T1

297
Q 
Oculomotor nerve innervates which of the following?
A. Orbicularis oculi
B. Risorius
C. Levator palpebrae superioris
D. Obicularis oris
A

C. Levator palpebrae superioris

298
Q 
The pons is supplied by which of the following arteries?
A. Basilar
B. Internal carotid
C. For vertebral
D. Superior cerebellar
A

A. Basilar

299
Q 
The fourth ventricle is continuous with?
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Subdural space
C. Epidural space
D. Lateral ventricles
A

A. Subarachnoid space

300
Q 
The superior continuation of the PLL is the?
A. Tectorial membrane
B. Ligamentum flavum
C. Ligamentum nuchae
D. Supraspinous ligament
A

A. Tectorial membrane

301
Q 
The nuchal ligament is a continuation of?
A. Supraspinous ligament
B. Ligamentum flavum
C. Tectorial membrane
D. ALL
A

A. Supraspinous ligament

302
Q 
A posterior ponticle results from calcification of which of the following ligaments?
A. Capsular
B. Anterior alanto-occipital
C. Lateral alanto-occipital
D. Posterior-alanto-occipital
A

D. Posterior-alanto-occipital

303
Q 
Which part of the vertebra contains a groove for the vertebral artery?
A. Dense
B. Condyles
C. Posterior arch
D. Anterior arch
A

C. Posterior arch

304
Q 
Which of the following vertebra does not have a bifid spinous process?
A. C-2
B. C5
C. C6
D. C7
A

D. C7

305
Q 
At which vertebral level does the vertebral artery enter the spine?
A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. T1
A

B. C6

306
Q 
Which ligament attaches the TVP of L5 to the Iliac Crest?
A. Superior band of iliolumbar ligament
B. Inferior band of iliolumbar ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Supraspinotous ligament
A

A. Superior band of iliolumbar ligament

307
Q 
Which rib has both vertebral chondral and false rib?
A. Five
B. Eight
C. Eleven
D. Twelve
A

B. Eight

308
Q 
Coupling motion in the cervical spine during lateral flexion of the neck causes the vertebral body to?
A. Ipsilateral rotation
B. Contralateral rotation
C. Flexion
D. Extension
A

A. Ipsilateral rotation

309
Q 
Posterior chamber of the eye is located between?
A. Iris to lens
B. Cornea to iris
C. Cornea to lens
D. Lens to retina
A

A. Iris to lens

310
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscle of the eye?
A. Trochlear
B. Oculomotor
C. Abducens
D. Optic
A

A. Trochlear

311
Q 
What cervical nerve roots innervate the base of the skull to the vertex of the skull?
A. C-1 C-2
B. C-2 C-3
C. C-3 C-4
D. C-4 C-5
A

A. C-1 C-2

312
Q 
Which of the following supplies cutaneous innervation to lower back?
A. Anterior primary rami
B. Posterior primary rami
C. Thracodorsal nerve
D. Axillary nerve
A

B. Posterior primary rami

313
Q 
Which of the following contains perilymph?
A. Petrous portion of temporal
B. Occipital
C. Sphenoid
D. Frontal
A

A. Petrous portion of temporal

314
Q 
Which of the following is a Excitatory to the pars compacta of the substantia nigra?
A. Dopamine
B. Glycine
C. Glutamate
D. Gaba
A

C. Glutamate

315
Q 
The posterior groove on the odontoid process is for what ligament?
A. Transverse
B. Apical
C. Alar
D. Cruciate
A

A. Transverse

316
Q 
At the tip of a lateral aspect of dense there are two small groups for the attachment of?
A. Alar
B. Apical
C. Transverse
D. Cruciate
A

A. Alar

317
Q 
Distraction of the posterior columns results in loss of?
A. Temperature sensation
B. Pain sensation
C. Vibrations sensation
D. Motor function
A

C. Vibrations sensation

318
Q 
The clivus is composed of the sphenoid bone and the?
A. Ethmoid
B. Parietal
C. Occipital
D. Temporal
A

C. Occipital

319
Q 
Which of the following is a remnant of the notocord?
A. Nucleus pulposis
B. Annulus fibrosis
C. Vertebral endplate
D. Vertebral body
A

A. Nucleus pulposis

320
Q 
The splenius capitis muscle inserts into?
A. EOP
B. Mastoid process
C. Ligamentum nuche
D. TVP of C-1 and C-2
A

B. Mastoid process

321
Q 
The spinal cord is widest at?
A. C-1
B. C6
C. T12
D. L3
A

B. C6

322
Q

What is the function of the emissary vein?
A. To connect the intracranial venous sinuses with the veins outside the cranial
B. To connect the prostatic vein to lumbar veins
C. To connect veins in the hand
D. Connect IVC to SVC

A

A. To connect the intracranial venous sinuses with the veins outside the cranial

323
Q 
Normal orientation of the thoracic TVP is?
A. 45 degrees anterolateral
B. 45 degrees posterolateral
C. Lateral
D. 10 degrees anterior inferior
A

B. 45 degrees posterolateral

324
Q 
There is no intervertebral disc in which of the following locations?
A. C-1 C-2
B. C-2 C-3
C. T-11 T-12
D. L-5 S-1
A

A. C-1 C-2

325
Q 
Auditory fibers are contained in the?
A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Lateral lemniscus
D. Superior colliculus
A

C. Lateral lemniscus

326
Q 
The uncus and amygdyla receive fibers from?
A. Optic nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Olfactory bulb
D. Facial nerve
A

C. Olfactory bulb

327
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a fibrocartilegous joint? In
A. Symphsis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Gonphosis
D. Condyler
A

A. Symphsis

328
Q 
The joint between occiput and C-1 is which type?
A. Condylar
B. Trochoid
C. Saddle
D. Hinged
A

A. Condylar

329
Q 
Apophyseal joints are used with structures for articulation of?
A. Spinal processes
B. Articular processes
C. Bodies
D. Lamina
A

B. Articular processes

330
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the medial pterygoid muscle?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
A

A. 5

331
Q 
What are the biggest nerve innervates the laryngeal muscle?
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Inferior Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Cardiac branches
D. Esophageal branches
A

B. Inferior Recurrent laryngeal nerve

332
Q 
Which of the following segmental levels comprise the phrenic nerve?
A. C-1 C-2
B. C-3 C-4 C-5
C. C-5 C-6 C-7
D. C-6 C-7 C-8
A

B. C-3 C-4 C-5

333
Q 
Superior petrosal vein drains into?
A. Sigmoid sinus
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Transverse sinus
D. Superior sagittal sinus
A

A. Sigmoid sinus

334
Q 
The parotid gland is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
A

C. 9

335
Q 
Climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate in?
A. Peduncles
B. Nucleus solitaries
C. Nucleus ambiguous
D. Olivary nucleus
A

D. Olivary nucleus

336
Q 
The vertebral arteries enter the skull through which foramen?
A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Foramen spinosum
C. Jugular foramen
D. Foramen magnum
A

D. Foramen magnum

337
Q 
Somatic visceral primary neurons are derived from?
A. Mesoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. Neural crest cells
A

D. Neural crest cells

338
Q 
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of oculomotor nerves synapse at what ganglion?
A. Submandibular
B. Pterygopalatine
C. Optic
D. Ciliary
A

D. Ciliary

339
Q 
The inability to move the jaw laterally indicates damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V
B. VII
C. VII
D. X
A

A. V

340
Q 
What ligament attaches Lamina to Lamina?
A. Posterior longitudinal
B. Anterior longitudinal
C. Supraspinous
D. Ligamentum flavum
A

D. Ligamentum flavum

341
Q 
Which of the following is derived from the 3rd brachial arch?
A. Stylopharyngeus
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Orbicularis oculi
A

A. Stylopharyngeus

342
Q 
Location of her vertebral venous plexus?
A. Epidural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Peridural
A

A. Epidural

343
Q 
What is confluent with the central canal of SC?
A. Foramen of Monroe
B. Lateral ventricle
C. 3rd ventricle
D. 4th ventricle
A

D. 4th ventricle

344
Q 
Which ligaments is broadest in the C-spine region, narrows in the T-spine & attaches IVD?
A. Posterior longitudinal
B. Anterior longitudinal
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Interspinous
A

A. Posterior longitudinal

345
Q 
Which of the following has no rods and cones?
A. Fovea
B. Macula
C. Periphery of retina
D. Optic disc
A

D. Optic disc

346
Q 
What separates cerebrum from cerebellum?
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Falx cerebelli
D. Falx cerebri
A

B. Tentorium cerebelli

347
Q 
Physiologically, during extension of the lumbar spine the IVF’s ? and the spinal canal?
A. Shortens, shortens
B. Shortens, lengthens
C. Lengthens, shortens
D. Lengthens, lengthens
A

A. Shortens, shortens

348
Q 
Innervation of the Deltoid muscle is from?
A. C-3 C-4
B. C-5 C-6
C. C-7 C-8
D. T-3 T-4
A

B. C-5 C-6

349
Q 
Mammillary processes of lumbar spine are located on?
A. Lamina
B. Pedicles
C. Inferior articular processes
D. Superior articular processes
A

D. Superior articular processes

350
Q 
Microglial cells are derived from?
A. Mesenchymal cells
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Mesoderm
A

D. Mesoderm

351
Q

olfactory site of exit (soe)

A

cribriform plate, ethmoid

352
Q

optic soe

A

optic canal; sphenoid

353
Q

oculomotor soe

A

superior orbital fissure; sphenoid

354
Q

trochlear soe

A

superior orbital fissure; sphenoid

355
Q

trigeminal, opthalamic soe

A

superior orbital fissure; sphenoid

356
Q

trigeminal, maxillary soe

A

foramen rotundum; sphenoid

357
Q

trigeminal, mandibular soe

A

foramen ovale; sphenoid

358
Q

facial soe

A

internal acoustic meatus then hiatus of facial canal

359
Q

facial, greater petrosal soe

A

petrotympanic fissire

360
Q

facial, chorda tympani soe

A

stylomastoid foramen

361
Q

vestibulococochlear soe

A

internal acoustic meatus ( doesn’t leave skull)

362
Q

glossopharyngeal soe

A

jugular foramen

CCEB Part 1 (1 decks)

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