Anatomy Flashcards
Which nerve arises from the L1-L2 roots, then runs downward through the psoas major, and later at the level of the inguinal ligament, divides into branches to innervate the skin of the anterior surface of the thigh and the cremaster?
• Femoral
- Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
- Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
- Genitofemoral
Genitofemoral
What structure would be trapped in between the dura and vertebral body by the swelling spinal cord?
• Pia matter
- Anterior longitudinal ligament
- Posterior longitudinal ligament
- Lateral longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
A 22-year-old male is examined in chiropractic treatment after sustaining a grade I ankle sprain three days ago in a baseball game. The patient’s description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would most likely be affected?
• anterior talofibular ligament
- calcaneofibular ligament
- anterior tibiofibular ligament
- deltoid ligament
anterior talofibular ligament
Which of the following thigh muscles receives significant innervation from both the peroneal and tibial portions of the sciatic nerve?
• Adductor magnus
- Semitendinosus
- Biceps femoris
- Vastus lateralis
Biceps femoris
- A 54-year-old female has difficulty abducting her right leg due to trochanteric bursitis. In which plane of movement is she limited?
• horizontal plane
- frontal plane
- sagittal plane
- transverse plane
Frontal plane
A female patient with a spinal cord injury following a skiing accident uses a head control mechanism in order to move her power wheelchair. From the following choices, what is the level of injury where someone would most likely need to use a head control mechanism?
• C6
- C4
- C5
- C7
C4
This major body cavity consists of a thoracic and an abdominopelvic portion
• dorsal cavity
- ventral cavity
- vertebral cavity
cranial cavity
Ventral cavity
Which movement would be completely intact if a client has sustained a laceration of the deep peroneal nerve?
• Dorsiflexion
- Inversion
- Eversion
- Plantar flexion.
Plantar flexion
This gland is one of the largest endocrine glands in the body: • Thyroid • Pituitary • Parathyroid • Adrenal
Thyroid gland
HGH is produced by which gland?
• adrenal gland
- thymus
- parathroid gland
- pituitary gland
Pituitary gland
Which of the following statements about the patella is TRUE?
• it attaches to the patellar ligament superiorly
- it does not protect the knee joint
- it sits on the patellar surface of the femur
- it is the smallest sesamoid bond in the body
it sits on the patellar surface of the femur
The patient is in the side lying position and the examiner’s hands are placed over the upper part of the iliac crest, pressing toward the floor. Pain in the sacroiliac joints commonly indicates:
• Lesions of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments
- Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments
- Hypo-mobility of the sacroiliac joint
- Lesions of the sacrotuberous ligaments
Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments
A spinal trauma patient loses the ability to use his rib or abdominal muscles, but is still able to breath because the diaphragm contracts. Injury at which of the following levels is consistent with this description?
• T7
- C2
- T5
- C7
C7
A chiropractor administers the Rinne test in attempts to assess the integrity of the vestibulocochlear nerve on a patient with a suspected upper motor neuron lesion. After striking the tine of the tuning fork to begin vibration, which bony prominence should the chiropractor utilize to position the stem of the tuning fork?
• midline of the skull
- inion
- mastoid process
- occipital protuberance
Mastoid process
Which part of the kidney contains about 1 million microscopic structures called nephrons? • interlobar artery • parenchyma • afferent arterioles • Medulla
Parenchyma
Which region is the superior, middle and inferior cluneal nerves are responsible for innervation of the skin?
• Gluteal
- Foot
- Thigh
- Leg
Gluteal
This test is used for assessing hypomobility of the sacroiliac joint:
• Ipsilateral prone kinetic test
- Sacroiliac rocking
- Approximation test
- Transverse anterior stress test
Ipsilateral prone kinetic test
Which epidermis layer has the most dead keratinocytes? • Corneum • Spinosum • Lucidum • Granulosum
Corneum
This portion of the hair that penetrates into the dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layer: • Shaft • bulb • follicle • Root
Root
Which of the following muscles can flex and medially rotate the thigh?
• Gastrocnemius
- Psoas major
- Tensor fasciae latae
Gracilis
TFL
What artery is based on the medial aspect of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the lower half of the neck?
• popliteal
- carotid
- ulnar
- dorsalis pedis
Carotid
What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the right ventricle to the left and right lungs?
• inferior vena cava
- superior vena cava
- aorta
pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary arteries
Which gland(s) are under the base of the tongue? • all of the options • sublingual • parotid • submandibular
Submandibular
What is the reason for encouraging patients on bed rest to periodically plantar and dorisflex their ankles?
• To promote cardiac contractility
- To increase blood flow to the legs
- To prevent blood clots
- To prevent muscle atrophy
To prevent blood clots
Which sensory receptor is found in greatest numbers in the skin? • pain receptors • warmth receptors • pressure receptors • touch receptors
pain receptors
Which nerve supplies sensation to the fifth finger?
• Ulnar
- Radial
- Median
- Musculocutaneous
ulnar
Which one of the following structures is NOT housed in the mediastinum?
• thoracic part of the trachea
- the heart
- thoracic part of the esophagus
lungs
lungs
What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the left ventricle?
• pulmonary arteries
- superior vena cava
- pulmonary veins
- aorta
aorta
This layer protects the kidney from trauma:
Renal capsule
Which gait pattern is characterized by excessive lateral trunk flexion and weight shifting over the stance leg due to gluteus medius weakness?
• antalgic
- trendelenburg
- vaulting
- circumduction
Trendelenburg
Following an upper arm stab wound, a patient has weakness of elbow flexion and forearm supination. You suspect severance of the:
• Ulnar nerve
- Musculocutaneous nerve
- Median nerve
- Axillary nerve
Musculocutaneous
Which part of the sphenoid bone is a depression found in the midline superior to the sphenoid sinus?
• Mandible
- Tuberculum sellae
- Dorsum sellae
- Sella turcica
Sella turcica
A soldier crawling along a ditch in live round training incautiously raised his rear. An ultimately bullet shattered his ischial tuberosity. Which of the following muscles would you expect to still be functional?
• The long head of the biceps femoris
- The semitendinosus
- The semimembranosus
- The short head of the biceps femoris
Short head biceps femoris
Diencephalon encloses the \_\_\_\_ ventricle • second • lateral • fourth • third
third
This system protects underlying tissues, regulates body temperature, houses sensory receptors, and synthesizes various substances • Integumentary • Skeletal • Endocrine • Muscular
Integumentary
The posterior one third of the tongue receives both general and taste innervation from which of the following nerves? • Lingual nerve • Glossopharyngeal nerve • Inferior palatine nerve • Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Which gland is also known as the “third eye” • Pineal • Parathyroid • Pituitary • Thyroid
Pineal
What artery is near the center of the long axis of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones?
• ulnar
- dorsalis pedis
- popliteal
- brachial
dorsalis pedis
A patient presents with spinous left body right at C4. Which supine adjustment would correct this problem?
• supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact left articular pillar
- supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar
- supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact right articular pillar
- supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact left articular pillar
supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar
Which objective finding would be consistent with a patient with a suspected injury to the thoracodorsal nerve?
• paralysis of the rhomboids
- paralysis of the diaphragm
- shoulder extension weakness
- shoulder medial rotation weakness
shoulder extension weakness
Which one of the following manifestations would you NOT expect to observe in a person with a right thoracic scoliosis?
• depressed shoulder on the right
- protruding scapula on the right
- prominent hip on the left
- depressed shoulder on the left
depressed shoulder on the right
Which is NOT apart of the lower respiratory system? • larynx • trachea • lungs • pharynx
pharynx
Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are most commonly in the: • Medulla • Midbrain • Cerebellar hemispheres • Cerebral hemispheres
Cerebral hemispheres
An effective cardiorespiratory training program session should include all of these basic components EXCEPT:
• Warm-up phase
- Cool-down phase
- Endurance phase
- Power phase
Power phase
which muscle performs cervical flexion Splenius suboccipital longus colli SCM
Longus colli
Which of the following pulses can be palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad? A. Subclavian B. Brachial C. Radial D. Ulnar
ulnar
Calcitonin is secreted by which of the following cells? A. Parafollicular B. Follicular C. Chief D. Macrophages
Parafollicular
Which of the following muscles is the medial rotator of the hip? A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius C. Obturator internus D. Quadratus lumborum
Gluteus medius
Damage to the long thoracic nerve produces paralysis of which of the following muscles? A. Pectorals major B. Serratus anterior C. Latissimus dorsi D. Subscapularis
Serratus anterior
Which embryological structure is the adrenal medulla derived from? A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Neural crest cells D. Mesoderm
Neural crest cells
Which nerve innervate the peronei muscles? A. Deep peroneal B. Superficial peroneal C. Superior gluteal D. Inferior gluteal
Superficial peroneal
What type of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract? A. Simple squamous B. Simple columnar C. Stratified squamous D. Psudostratified ciliated columnar
Psudostratified ciliated columnar
Which of the following nerves is palpable on the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula? A. Deep peroneal B. Superficial peroneal C. Common peroneal D. Tibial
Common peroneal
Posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert on which bone? A. Cuboid B. Calcaneous C. Talus1 D. 1st metatarsal
Calcaneous
The epiphyseal plate is considered to be what type of joint? A. Synchondrosis B. Syndesmosis C. Symphysis D. Synovial
Synchondrosis
In which bone is the soleal line? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Fibula D. Calcaneous
Tibia
The lateral malleolus is a feature of which of the following bones? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Fibula D. Calcaneous
Fibula
The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of which artery? A. Left coronary B. Marginal C. Circumflex D. Right coronary
Left coronary
Which ligament prevents the lateral displacement of the tibia? A. Tibia collateral B. Fibula collateral C. Post cruciate D. Ant cruciate
Fibula collateral
The spring ligament connects the calcaneous to which of the following bones? A. Cuboid B. Talus C. Navicular D. Tibia
Navicular
Which of the following muscles inserts on the 5th metatarsal? A. Peroneus longus B. Peroneus brevis C. Flexor hallicus longus D. Polliteus
Peroneus brevis
Which of the following nerves innervates the tibialis anterior muscles A. Deep peroneal B. Superficial peroneal C. Tibial D. Saphenous
Deep peroneal
The primary ossification of a long bone is located on? A. Metaphysis B. Diaphysis C. Epiphysis D. Epiphyseal plate
Diaphysis
Palatoglussus and palatopharyngeus form which of the following? A. Soft palate B. Uvula C. Piriform recess D. Pillars of fauceus
Pillars of fauceus
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine? A. Villi B. Rugae C. Peyers patches D. Haustra
Haustra
The radial notch articulates with which of the following? A. Head of the radius B. Head of the ulna C. Trochlea of the humerus D. Neck of the radius
Head of radius
On which bone is the olecranon fossa located? A. Scaphoid B. Radius C. Ulna D. Humerus
Humerus
The radial nerve is found on which bone? A. Post radius B. Medial ulna C. Medial scaphoid D. Medial pisiform
Post radius
The esophageal hiatus is located at which vertebral level? A. T8 B. T9 C. T10 D. T11
T10
The coronoid process is located on which bone? A. Scapula B. Ulna C. Radius D. Humerus
Ulna
Haversion systems are separated from each other by which of the following? A. Volkmann canals B. Interstitial lamina C. Endosteum D. Canaliculi
Interstitial lamina
Ankle inversion and plantar flexion of the foot is most restricted by which of the following ligaments? A. Deltoid B. Ant tibial C. Post talofibular D. Ant talofibular
Ant talofibular
Which of the following nerves supplies the extensor muscles of the fingers? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Musculocutaneous
Radial
Which of the following muscles externally rotates the arm? A. Infraspinatus B. Subscapularis C. Pectorals major D. Latissimus dorsi
Infraspinatus
Which of the following ligaments prevents anterior displacement of the tibia? A. Lateral collateral B. Medial collateral C. Ant cruciate D. Post cruciate
Ant cruciate
In the fetus blood bypasses the liver sinusoid through which of the following? A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ductus venosus C. Foramen ovale D. Ligamentus teres
Ductus venosus
The peroneus longus tendon into the foot and attaches to which bone? A. Cuboid B. Navicular C. Calcaneous D. Lateral cuneiform
Cuboid
What part of the humerus articulates with the radius? A. Trochlear B. Lateral epicondyle C. Olecranon D. Capitulum
Capitulum
Fracture of the medial epicondyle results in damage to which of the following muscles? A. Biceps brachii B. Abductor pollicis longus C. Flexor carpi ulnaris D. Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor carpi ulnaris
What are the 8-12 conical projections in the renal medulla called? A. Pyramids B. Minor calyces C. Major calyces D. Papilla
Pyramids
Which structure pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm? A. Aorta B. Esophagus C. Inf vena cava D. Vagus nerve
Inf vena cava
The apex of the lug is located at what level? A. At the level of the 1st rib B. Above the 1st rib C. At the level of the 2nd rib D. Below the 1st rib
Above the 1st rib
The lacrimal fossa is part of what bone? A. Frontal B. Maxillary C. Ethmoid D. Zygomatic
Frontal
The axillary nerve lies within which? A. Quadrangular sulcus B. Triangular sulcus C. Triangular space D. Quadrangular space
Quadrangular space
Which of the following is part of the nephron? A. Efferent arteriole B. Loop of Henle C. Straight collecting tubule D. Transverse collecting duct
Loop of Henle
Which muscle inserts into the scapula? A. Pectorals major B. Pectorals minor C. Subscapularis D. Brachialis
Pect minor
The gracillis muscle is supplied by which nerve? A. Superficial gluteal B. Obturator C. Femoral D. Tibial
Obturator
Surfactant is produced by? A. Type 1 alveolar cells B. Type 2 aveolar cells C. Dust cells D. Goblet cells
Type 2 aveolar cells
Chordae tendonae are fibrous cords the connect _____ to _____?
A. Valve cusps to papillary muscles
B. Valve cusps to arterial wall
C. Papillary muscles to arterial wall
D. Papillary muscles to ventricular walls
Valve cusps to papillary muscles
Which structure passes thru the deep inguinal of the male? A. Epididymus B. Transverse abdominus muscle C. Tunica albuginea D. Spermatis cord
Spermatis cord
Which of the following taste buds are the largest and fewest in number? A. Fungiform B. Filliform C. Foliate D. Circumvallate
Circumvallate
Posterior costal pleura extends caudally to the level of? A. T10 B. 9th rib C. 12th rib D. L2
12th rib
Which of the following cells types is located in the Lucunae of Howship? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Osteocytes D. Melanocyte
Osteoclasts
The radial artery terminates at? A. Deep palmer arch B. Superficial palmer arch C. Post interosseus D. Profunda brachii
Deep palmer arch
Which of the following is the insertion of the long head of the biceps brachii? A. Intertubercular groove B. Radial tuberosity C. Trochlear notch D. Olecranon fossa
Radial tuberosity
Which of the following is the superficial boundary of the perineal caviity? A. Pouch of Douglas B. Pelvic diaphragm C. Perineal space D. Colles flexure (fascia)
Colles flexure (fascia)
The ureter runs anterior to which of the following structures? A. Psoas major B. Abdominal aorta C. Sup mesenteric artery D. Renal vein
Psoas major
Which of the following is the vein most superficial on the calf? A. Schindylesis B. Greater Saphenous C. Lesser Saphenous D. Peroneal
Lesser Saphenous
The Interosseous membrane of the leg classified? A. Schindylesis B. Syndesmosis C. Symphysis D. Synchondrosis
Syndesmosis
Which of the following planes divides the body into Right & Left halves? A. Horizontal B. Median C. Transverse D. Coronal
Median
The superior mesenteric arteries which of the following? A. The spleen B. Jejunum C. Descending Colon D. Sigmoid Colon
Jejunum
Medial Rotation of the Tibia is accomplished by which of the following muscles? A. Rectus Femoris B. Popliteus C. Plantaris D. Biceps femoris
Popliteus
The thickest part of the heart is? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle
Left ventricle
Which of the following of the following bones contains the coronoid tubercle? A. Scapula B. Ulna C. Clavicle D. Humerus
Clavicle
60. The embryological derivation for epithelium is? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Splanchinic mesoderm D. Somatic mesoderm
Endoderm
Paralysis of which of the following muscles results in loss of abduction and external rotation of the humerus
A. Lateral Dorsal & Serratus Anterior
B. Middle Deltoid & Sub-Scapulerus
C. Supraspinatus & Teres Major
D. Supra & Infraspinatus
Supra and infraspinatus
Muscle spindles are what type of receptors?
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Stretch
Stretch
Which of the following structures is found in the peritoneal cavity? A. Kidney B. Abdominal aorta C. Pancreas D. Sigmoid colon
Sigmoid colon
From which granular structure is renin secreted?
A. Afferent arteriole
B. Glomerular capillary fenestration
C. Peritubular capillary
D. Basement membrane of glomerular capillary
Afferent arteriole
The sustentaculum tali is part of which bone? A. Cuboid B. Navicular C. Talus D. Calcaneous
Calcaneous
What joints is a fibrous articulation? A. Proximal tibiofibular B. Distal radiounlar C. Distal tibiofibular D. Interventricular disc
Distal tibiofibular
The laryngotrocheal diverticulum developed from which of the following? A. Pharynx B. Foregut C. Midgut D. Hindgut
Pharynx
The head of the fibula articulates with which of the following? A. Base of patella B. Base of talus C. Lateral condyle of tibia D. Lateral condyle of femurs
Lateral condyle of tibia
The midgut forms which of the following structures? A. Ileum B. Pancreas C. Duodenum D. Larynx
Ileum
Which is a feature of the humerus? A. Glenoid fossa B. Coronoid fossa C. Trochlear fossa D. Olecranon process
Coronoid fossa
How many tarsal bones are in the foot? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
7
What ligament reinforces the posterior portion of the hip joint? A. Ischiofemoral B. Pubofemoral C. Iliofemoral D. Transverse acetabular
Ischiofemoral
The articulation of the humerus and ulna during extension occurs at ____ &_____?
A. Supraulna and radius
B. Olecranon fossa and olecranon process
C. Capitulum and radius
D. Trochlea and olecranon
Olecranon fossa and olecranon process
What divides the muscles into fascicles? A. Epimysium B. Perimysium C. Endomysium D. Neurolemma
Perimysium
The biceps brachii tendon is held in place by? A. Transverse humeral ligament B. Coracoacromial ligament C. Glenohumeral ligament D. Acromiohumeral ligament
Transverse humeral ligament
Which of the following canals is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa?
A. Pudendal
B. Anal
C. Obturator
Pudendal
Which organs is devoid of lymphatics? A. Kidney B. Uterus C. Liver D. Brain
Brain
Which of the following organs has both endocrine and exocrine functions? A. Stomach B. Brain C. Pancreas D. Liver
Pancreas
The anterior portion of the hard palate is part of which of the following bones? A. Maxillary B. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid D. Palatine
Maxillary
Which of the following forms the inferior attachment of the inguinal ligament? A. Pecten pubis B. Pubic crest C. Obturator crest D. Pubic tubercle
Pubic tubercle
Which of the following veins closely follows the medial antebrachial cutaneous vein? A. Cephalic B. Basilic vein C. Superficial venous palmer arch D. Accessory cephalic
Basilic vein
Which of the following ligaments connects the medial and lateral leminiscus of the knee? A. Transverse B. Ant cruciate C. Post cruciate D. Collateral
Transverse
Which of the following structures separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches (foramen)? A. Ishial spine B. Ischial tuberosity C. Ischial ramus D. Ischiopubic ramus
Ischial spine
Which two carpal bones articulate with the radius? A. Pisiform and hamate B. Triquetium and triangular C. Scaphoid and lunate D. Trapezium and trapezoid
Scaphoid and lunate
What is the action of the soleus muscle (post aspect)? A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion
Plantar flexion
Fibrocartilage unites bone in which of the following articulations? A. Suture B. Symphysis C. Hinge D. Saddle joint
Symphysis
The linea aspera is located on which of the following bones? A. Post femur B. Ant femur C. Post fibula D. Ant fibula
Post femur
Which of the following is the most common location for a sesmoid bone? A. Extensor pollicis longus B. Adductor pollicis C. Flexor pollicis brevis D. Flexor pollicis longus
B. Adductor pollicis
C. Flexor pollicis brevis
At what vertebral level is the horizontal fissure of the lung located? A. T3 B. T4 C. T6 D. T8
T6
Meissner’s plexus is located in which part of the intestinal lining? A. Submucosa B. Mucosa C. Muscularis D. Serosa
Submucosa
Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle? A. Mylohyoid B. Thyrohyoid C. Omohyoid D. Sternohyoid
Mylohyoid
Which of the following structures lies proximal to the trochlea on the distal humerus? A. Olecranon B. Coronoid fossa C. Coracoid fossa D. Radial artery
Coronoid fossa
Arterial blood supply to urinary bladder is derived from superior & inferior branches? A. Internal iliac B. External ilia C. Common iliac D. Aorta
Internal iliac
Shape of the ligament on the liver that is a remnant of umbilical vein? A. Oval B. Left triangular C. Round ligament D. Right triangular
Round ligament
The peroneal artery is located in which of the following compartments of the leg? A. Ant B. Post C. Lateral D. Medial
Post
Which passes thru the foramen rotundum? A. Abducens nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Maxillary nerve D. Internal jugular nerve
Maxillary
Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) striated
b) voluntary
c) multinucleate
d) autorhythmic
d) autorhythmic
The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue:
a) striated
b) skeletal
c) cardiac
d) smooth
smooth
Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue:
a) is involuntary
b) is non-striated
c) has intercalated discs
d) contains smooth muscle tissue
c) has intercalated discs
Approximately what percentage of body heat is generated by muscle tissue:
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 55%
d) 85%
e) 98%
85%
A muscle fascicle is a:
a) bundle of myofibrils
b) bundle of connective tissue
c) bundle of muscle fibers
d) muscle cell
c) bundle of muscle fibers
The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a:
a) sarcomere
b) motor unit
c) synapse
d) thin filament
sarcomere
The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are:
a) myosin and tropomyosin
b) myosin and actin
c) actin and troponin
d) troponin and tropomyosin
d) troponin and tropomyosin
Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle:
a) constriction of blood vessels
b) heartbeat
c) dilation of pupil
d) eye movements
eye movements
Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction:
a) thick and thin filaments bind to each other
b) muscle fibers stretch
c) thick and thin filaments “slide” past each other
d) muscle fibers shorten
b) muscle fibers stretch
This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction:
a) calcium is released from intracellular storage sites
b) motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle
c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine
d) troponin binds calcium
c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine
The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from:
a) excessive acetycholine activity on muscle
b) excessive calcium release in muscle
c) excessive lactic acid build up
d) excessive contraction of the fibers
b) excessive calcium release in muscle
A single motor neuron may innervate as few as 3-5 fibers in muscles of the:
a) upper arms
b) legs
c) eye
d) heart
eye
) When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron:
a) calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber
b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
c) acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft
d) physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs
b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
) Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in:
a) decrease acetylcholine production by the motor neuron
b) relaxation of the muscle fiber
c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
d) inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fiber
c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
Curare, a toxin, blocks the acetylcholine receptors on muscle tissue. This would result in:
a) increased stimulation of the muscle fiber
b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus
c) contraction of the muscle fiber
d) excessive contractions and convulsions
b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus
Training excersizes such as jogging, swimming and aerobics have this effect on skeletal muscle tissue:
a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber
b) increase number of muscle fibers
c) increase number of motor units
d) increase number of skeletal muscles
a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber
Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder characterized by
a) skeletal muscle degeneration
b) excessive convulsions
c) shaking and trembling
d) only cardiac damage
a) skeletal muscle degeneration
Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful musculoskeletal “tender points”:
a) fibromyalgia
b) myasthenia gravis
c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d) Becker muscular dystrophy
a) fibromyalgia
) Anabolic steroids have all these effects except:
a) builds muscle proteins
b) increases muscle strength
c) increases number of muscles in the body
d) can result in liver cancer and heart disease
c) increases number of muscles in the body
Which of the following statements regarding aging and the muscular system is true:
a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
b) the effects of aging can be nearly completely reversed
c) satellite cells increase in aging causing fibrosis
d) young persons have more adipose in muscles compared to elderly persons
a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue:
a. lacunae
b. protein fibers
c. blood vessels
d. chondroitin
d. chondroitin
The most common type of exocrine gland is this type:
a. apocrine
b. merocrine
c. endocrine
d. holocrine
b. merocrine
Epithelia that consist of more than one layer of cells is termed:
a. striated
b. stratified
c. stipilated
d. intercalated
b. stratified
The matrix of connective tissue is composed of:
a. cells, fibers and ground substance
b. cells and fibers
c. fibers and ground substance
d. cells and ground substance
c. fibers and ground substance
Small hair-like structures on the surface of some epithelial cells are termed:
a. cilia
b. glia
c. villi
d. microvilli
cilia
These cells are located in bone tissue:
a. chondroblasts
b. osteocytes
c. fibroblasts
d. chondrocytes
b. osteocytes
Which of the following heals the quickest after injury:
a. bone
b. epithelium
c. cartilage
d. muscle
b. epithelium
The small holes in which some connective tissue cells reside are termed:
a. lumen
b. lamellae
c. lacunae
d. lamaze
c. lacunae
Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle tissue fibers:
a. striated
b. voluntary
c. multinucleate
d. branched
branched
Which of the following suffixes implies “growth” or “formation”:
a. -blast
b. -lemma
c. -stasis
d. -cyte
blast
Based on basic tissue type, which of the following terms does not belong grouped with the others:
a. muscle
b. ligament
c. cartilage
d. blood
muscle
A tissue viewed under the microscope displays cells in little holes, densely packed fibers and no blood vessels. This describes:
a. dense regular connective tissue
b. hyaline cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. adipose tissue
c. fibrocartilage
Which of the following characteristics can be used to describe epithelial tissue:
a. it is derived from mesenchyme
b. sarcomas originate from it
c. it is well vascularized
d. it forms the glands of the body
d. it forms the glands of the body
The serous membrane lining the surface of the lung is the:
a. parietal pleura
b. visceral peritoneum
c. visceral pleura
d. peritoneal pleura
c. visceral pleura
Read the following statements carefully. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT statements: (hint - a statement may appear to be stating correct facts and yet be incorrect as a whole statement. Read and Think.
1) Cartilage heals slower than skin because cartilage is a deeper tissue.
2) The inside lining of the intestine has a large surface area because of the presence of cilia.
3) Adipose is a type of connective tissue because that is where fat is stored.
a. all are correct statements
b. only #1 and #2 are incorrect
c. only #2 and #3 are incorrect
d. only #1 and #3 are incorrect
e. all are incorrect statements
e. all are incorrect statements
The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:
a) perichondrium
b) periosteum
c) endosteum
d) exofibrium
e) articular cartilage
b) periosteum
Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
a) sternum
b) ethmoid
c) femur
d) patella
e) phalanx
d) patella
These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
a) osteoclasts & collagen
b) mineralized salts & osteocytes
c) mineralized salts & collagen
d) collagen & elastic fibers
e) collagen & mesenchyme
c) mineralized salts & collagen
A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:
a) epiphysis
b) metaphysis
c) diaphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
e) mesenchyme
c) diaphysis
Yellow marrow consists of:
a) osteoprogenitor cells
b) blood cell progenitor cells
c) hyaline cartilage
d) adipose
e) spongy bone
d) adipose
Chondroblasts produce:
a) basement membranes
b) bone matrix
c) cartilage matrix
d) mesothelium
e) endothelium
c) cartilage matrix
These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:
a) Haversian canals
b) canaliculi
c) perforating canals
d) osteocytes
a) Haversian canals
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
a) osteoclasts
b) chondrocytes
c) osteocytes
d) fibroblasts
e) osteoblasts
c) osteocytes
Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
a) an indication of microcephaly
b) frontal sinuses
c) epiphyseal plates
d) cribriform plates
e) fontanelles
e) fontanelles
Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of:
a) bone remodeling
b) embryonic skeletal ossification
c) controlling blood calcium levels
d) cartilage synthesis
b) embryonic skeletal ossification
Which of the following is not a cranial suture:
a) epiphyseal
b) lambdoidal
c) coronal
d) sagittal
e) squamous
a) epiphyseal
The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:
a) zygomatic and temporal
b) palatine and maxillae
c) maxillae and zygomatic
d) maxillae and mandible
b) palatine and maxillae
The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:
a) nasal and lacrimal
b) inferior nasal choncae and vomer
c) vomer and ethmoid
d) ethmoid and sphenoid
c) vomer and ethmoid
Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:
a) deviated nasal septum
b) sinusitis
c) damaged cribriform plate
d) damaged or cleft palate
e) ruptured bursae
c) damaged cribriform plate
“Articulations” refers to:
a) broken bones
b) the study of individual bones
c) bone growth and remodeling
d) structures on bones where muscles attach
e) joints
e) joints
Which of the following bones is not part of the cranium:
a) sphenoid
b) palatine
c) ethmoid
d) occipital
b) palatine
Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
a) femur
b) sternum
c) mandible
d) sacrum
a) femur
The “Hunchback” of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
a) cleft palate
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lordosis
e) spina bifida
c) kyphosis
Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:
a) spina bifida
b) scoliosis
c) sinusitis
d) kyphosis
e) lordosis
a) spina bifida
The thickened cartilage “cushions” found in the knee that absorb compression are:
a) the menisci
b) the bursae
c) the ligaments
d) the synovial capsules
e) epiphyseal plates
a) the menisci
Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:
a) bones held together by cartilage
b) joint surfaces of bones covered with articulating cartilage
c) has joint cavity
d) has 2-layered joint capsule
e) most freely movable of joints
a) bones held together by cartilage
A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a:
a) cruciate
b) bursae
c) collateral
d) patellar
c) collateral
Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:
a) removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
b) removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
d) repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee
c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
a) chondroitin sulfate
b) hydroxyapatite
c) osteoblasts
d) blood vessels
e) synovial fluid
d) blood vessels
This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:
a) growth hormone
b) estrogen
c) parathyroid hormone
d) calcitonin
c) parathyroid hormone
The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following? A. 1st brachial arch B. 2nd brachial arch C. Occipital somites D. Pre-optic somites
C. Occipital somites
Which type of articulation is located between vertebral arches? A. Synarthosis B. Syndesmosis C. Synchondrosis D. Symphysis
D. Symphysis
What suboccipital muscle rotates the atlas on the axis? A. Obliques capitus superior B. Obliques capitus inferior C. Rectus captis posterior major D. Rectus captis posterior minor
B. Obliques capitus inferior
The pelvic diaphram is primarly made up of what muscle? A. Levator ani B. Piriformis C. Coccygeus D. Obturator externus
A. Levator ani
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygapophseal joints? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
B. 4
Vertebral formation is a result of which of the following ? A. Endochondral Os B. Mesenchymal Os C. Intermedually Os D. Chondroitin
A. Endochondral Os
Which receptors are not sensory to the epidermis? A. End bulb of Krause B. Meissner corpuscles C. Merkel’s endings D. Riffini corpuscles
C. Merkel’s endings
The glabella is part of which of the following bones? A. Maxillary B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Paritial
C. Frontal
Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle? A. Sternohyoid B. Omohyoid C. Thyrohyoid D. Mylohyoid
Mylohyoid
The cell bodies of the gustatory fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in what ganglion? A. Pterygopalatine B. Solitary C. Geniculate D. Superior vagal
C. Geniculate
The TVP forms the attachment for which of the following muscles? A. Levator scapulae B. Transverse thoracis C. Internal costalis D. External costalis
A. Levator scapulae
The ocular motor nerve does not innervate which of the following eye muscles? A. Superior oblique B. Medial rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique
A. Superior oblique
Which vertebral structure forms the superior & inferior borders of the IVF? A. Lamina B. Anterior IVD C. Pedicle D. Posterior IVD
C. Pedicle
The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the ? & the ? surfaces? A. Superior, internal B. Superior, external C. Inferior, external D. Inferior, internal
D. Inferior, internal
Inflammation around the pisiform bone may affect which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneous B. Median C. Ulnar D. Radial
C. Ulnar
The feature that is unique to the C-spine is? A. Vertebral notch B. Accessory process C. Pars interarticularis D. Transverse foramina
D. Transverse foramina
Axons of the optic nerve are formed by which of the following cells of the retina? A. Horizontal B. Bipolar C. Acrominal D. Ganglion
D. Ganglion
Flexion of the hip is the primary action of which of the following muscles? A. Psoas B. Piriformis C. Gluteus medius D. Biceps femoris
A. Psoas
What structure is located between the articulating surfaces of the TMJ? A. Articular capsule B. Synovial membrane C. Sphenomandibular ligament D. Articular disc
D. Articular disc
Which of the following ligaments would sustain damage in hyperextension of the C-spine? A. ALL B. Interspinous ligament C. Nuchal ligament D. Supraspinous ligament
A. ALL
Which of the following ligaments has attachments to the disc? A. PLL B. Cruciate ligament C. ALL D. Flaval ligament
A.PLL
Due to the positioning of the ligaments a disc herniation will go? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Posterolateral D. Anterolateral
C. Posterolateral
Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic foramen? A. Iliolumbar B. Sacrospinous C. Arcuate D. Sarcotuberous
B. Sacrospinous
Failure of the pupil to constrict when stimulated by a bright light indicates loss of integrity of? A. Ciliary muscle B. Dilator pupillae C. CN III D. CN IV
C. CN III
The visual pathway does not include which of the following? A. Medial geniculate body B. Optic radiation C. CN II D. Geniculocalcarine fiber
A. Medial geniculate body
The spinal nerve from L4—S3 form which of the following nerves? A. Sciatic B. Femoral C. Obturator D. Pudendal
A. Sciatic
The carotid canal goes through which bone? A. Sphenoid B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Maxillary
B. Temporal
Fast conducting axons are made of ? Fibers with ? diameter? A. Myelinated, large B. Myelinated, small C. Unmyelinated, large D. Unmyelinated, small
A. Myelinated, large
The embryological development of extensor muscles are derived from? A. Epimeric B. Appomeric C. Splanchic D. Brachiomeric
A. Epimeric
What is the name of the ligament that connects the external occipital protuberance with the SP of C7? A. Flaval B. Infraspinous C. Nuchal D. Supraspinatous
C. Nuchal
The coupling action of lateral flexion with ? is due to the orientation of mid-cervical articular facets? A. Ipsilateral rotation B. Flexion C. Extension D. Contralateral rotation
D. Contralateral rotation
Which rib articulates with the sternal notch? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
B. 2
Inflammation of the parotid gland inhibits which nerve? A. Hypoglossal B. Glossopharyngeal C. Vagus D. Facial
D. Facial
Which structure lies between the temporal & spenoid bones? A. Foramen lacerum B. Foramen ovale C. Foramen orbital fissure D. Foramen rotundem
A. Foramen lacerum
Rods and cones of the retina synapse @ which of the following cells? A. Ganglion B. Amacrine C. Horizontal D. Bipolar
D. Bipolar
Which rib is a true rib but not a typical rib? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
A. 1
Portion of the lumbar vertebrae that is between the superior & inferior articular process is? A. Mammillary process B. Costal tubercle C. Articular pillar D. Pars interarticularis
D. Pars interarticularis
Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM? A. Spinal accessory B. Supraclavicular C. Suprascapular D. Subscapular
A. Spinal accessory
Which of the following comprise the white rami communicants? A. Preganglionic sympathetic B. Postganglionic sympathetic C. Preganglionic parasympathetic D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
Muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch are supplies by which of the following CN? A. III B. V C. VII D. X
B. V
Which of the following attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible? A. Masseter B. Medial pterygoid C. Lateral pterygoid D. Temporalis
D. Temporalis
Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers? A. Anterior pituitary B. Posterior pituitary C. Adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla
D. Adrenal medulla
The dorsal funiculus contains which of the following structures? A. Fasciculus gracilis B. Spinothalamic C. Corticospinal D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
A. Fasciculus gracilis
The medullary pyramids contain which fibers? A. Reticulospinal B. Vestibulospinal C. Corticospinal D. Rubrospinal
C. Corticospinal
Which of the following peduncles connects the pons to the hindbrain? A. Lateral cerebellar B. Middle cerebellar C. Superior cerebellar D. Inferior cerebellar
B. Middle cerebellar
Which of the following is derived from dura mater? A. Choroid B. Lens C. Retina D. Sclera
D. Sclera
Which of the following supplies stimulation to the zygapophyseal joints? A. Ventral rami B. Dorsal rami C. White rami communicants D. Gray rami communicants
B. Dorsal rami
The carotid tubercle is located on which vertebrae? A. C-5 B. C-6 C. C-7 D. T-1
B. C-6
Which of the following is a auditory receptor? A. Organ of corti B. Cristae ampullaris C. Utricle D. Saccule
A. Organ of corti
Which of the following types of glial cells form myelin around the axons of the CNS? A. Oligodendrocytes B. Astrocytes C. Ependymal D. Schwan cells
A. Oligodendrocytes
The dorsal lateral fasciculus does not transmit sensation of? A. Pain B. Vibration C. Proprioception D. 2 point discrimation
Pain
The limbic system is not responsible for which of the following ? A. Effect hormones B. Regulate body temperature C. Control emotion D. Initiate muscle contraction
D. Initiate muscle contraction
The long thoracic nerve innervates which of the following muscles? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Serratus anterior C. Levator scapulae D. Subscapularis
B. Serratus anterior
On which part of the rib is the costal groove located? A. Shaft B. Tubercle C. Head D. Neck
Shaft
The cerebellum & pons are part of which primitive structure?
A. Rhombencephalon
B. Prosencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
A. Rhombencephalon
Which bone undergoes intermembranous ossification? A. Parietal B. Maxillary C. Zygomatic D. Mandible
A. Parietal
The final synapse for the somesthetic sensory neurons are located in the? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
The dorsal root ganglion, autonomic ganglion, & schwann cells are derived from which of the following embryonic structures? A. Somites B. Neural crest cells C. Mesoderm D. Sclerotome
B. Neural crest cells
Which of the following is the pathway for conscious proprioception in the brainstem? A. Medial lemniscus B. Spinothalamic tract C. Lateral lemniscus D. Central tegmental tract
A. Medial lemniscus
The gray matter of the spinal cord primarily consist of? A. Unipolar cells B. Nodes of ranvier C. Myelinated cells D. Nerve cell bodies
D. Nerve cell bodies
Which muscle attaches to the articular process of C-3 through C-6? A. Semispinalis muscle B. SCM & trapezius C. Splenus capitus & clavical D. Rhomboid & pectoralis minor
A. Semispinalis muscle
The anterior superior aspect of the vertebral body of S-1 is the sacral? A. Alar B. Apex C. Promontory D. Cornu
C. Promontory
Which of the following structures is found in the cistern of the lumbar region of the spine? A. Cauda equina B. Denticulate ligament C. Coccygeal ligament D. Meninges of spinal cord
A. Cauda equina
Which of the following structures does not attach the axis to the occipital bone? A. Tectorial membrane B. Alar ligament C. Apical ligament D. Denticulate ligament
D. Denticulate ligament
The spinothalamic & medial lemniscal tracts send neurons through the thalamus to which of the following gyrus? A. Postcentral B. Precentral C. Angular D. Cingulate
A. Postcentral
The superior cerebral veins drain into which of the following? A. Occipital B. Inferior sagittal C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Straight
C. Superior sagittal sinus
At the level of the T-4, T-5 vertebrae, which structure is located anteriorally on the sternum? A. Angle of louis B. Jugular notch C. Xyphoid D. Gladiolus
A. Angle of louis
Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve? A. Posterior digastric B. Levator palpebrae C. Mylohyoid D. Masseter
A. Posterior digastric
Which of the following bones contains the inferior orbital fissure? A. Ethmoid B. Sphenoid C. Frontal D. Maxillary
B. Sphenoid
What passes through foramen rotundum? A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Middle meningeal artery D. Ophthalmic nerve
A. Maxillary nerve
Which of the following is transmitted through foramen ovale? A. Mandibular nerve B. Maxillary nerve C. Mental meningeal artery D. Ophthalmic nerve
A. Mandibular nerve
Foramen spinosum contains? A. Middle meningeal artery B. Maxillary nerve C. Optic nerve D. Internal carotid artery
A. Middle meningeal artery
The crista ampularis is a feature of which of the following? A. Endolymphatic duct B. Perilymphatic duct C. Cohlear duct D. Semicochlear duct
D. Semicochlear duct
Obstruction of foramen of Monroe produces greatest build-up of pressure in? A. Lateral ventricle B. 3rd ventricle C. Fourth ventricle D. Aqueduct of Sylvius
A. Lateral ventricle
Cerebrospinal fluid is normally contained within what space? A. Epidural B. Subdural C. Subarachnoid D. Peridural
C. Subarachnoid
Primal tracks decussate? A. Pons B. Medulla C. mid brain D. internal capsule
B. Medulla
The orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbar is? A. Posterior and medial B. Posterior and lateral C. Anterior and medial D. Anterior and lateral
C. Anterior and medial
Dermatomes to middle finger is from where in the brachial Plexus? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. C8
C. C7
Which of the following cranial nerves originates from the 2nd pharyngeal arch? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10
B. 7
Which of the following cranial nerves is not Parasympathetic? A. 3 B. 6 C. 7 D. 11
B. 6
Which of the following cranial nerves goes through the cribriform plate A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 1
Cranial nerve II axis the cranial vault via? A. Superior orbital fissure B. Optic canal C. Supraoptic canal D. Foramen rotundum
B. Optic canal
The gray rami communicuntes contain which of the following fibers? A. Preganglionic sympathetic B. Preganglionic parasympathetic C. Postganglionic sympathetic D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
C. Postganglionic sympathetic
What part of the vertebra bears the greatest amount of weight? A. Facets B. Body C. Pedicles D. Lamina
Body
The most common direction for a disc to herniate is? A. Central B. Lateral C. Posteriomedial D. Posterolateral
D. Posterolateral
What fibers direct pain? A. Free nerve endings B. Meissners corpuscles C. End bulbs of Krause D. Organ of ruffini
A. Free nerve endings
The internal jugular vein drains which of the following? A. Sigmoid sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Occipital sinus D. Straight sinus
A. Sigmoid sinus
What splanchnic nerve is derived from spinal nerve T-10/11? A. Greater B. Lesser C. Least D. Pelvis
B. Lesser
At which level of the spinal cord is the conus medullaris found? A. L1 L2 B. L4 L5 C. L5 S1 D. S2 S3
L1 L2
Globus pallidus will transmit info to? A. Red nucleus B. Putamen C. Cortex D. Thalamus
Cortex
Which cell will extend from the pre-motor cortex all the way down the spinal cord? A. Pyramidal cell B. Purkinje cells C. Alpha motor neuron D. Sensory cells
A. Pyramidal cell
Cerebro, ponto, & cerebellar involves? A. Initiation of skilled movements B. Fine hand movements C. Coordination of movements D. Crude touch
C. Coordination of movements
The trigeminal nerve goes through the cerebral- spinal fluid through which cistern? A. Superior B. Pontine C. Lumbar D. Chyli
B. Pontine
Tectospinal tract responds to? A. Rotation of cervical spine B. Rotation of thoracic spine C. Rotation of lumbar spine D. Find hand movement
Rotation of cervical spine
Which of the following vertebra has a pair of full costal facets and one pair of demi facets? A. T1 B. T-3 C. T10 D. T12
T1
Oculomotor nerve innervates which of the following? A. Orbicularis oculi B. Risorius C. Levator palpebrae superioris D. Obicularis oris
C. Levator palpebrae superioris
The pons is supplied by which of the following arteries? A. Basilar B. Internal carotid C. For vertebral D. Superior cerebellar
A. Basilar
The fourth ventricle is continuous with? A. Subarachnoid space B. Subdural space C. Epidural space D. Lateral ventricles
A. Subarachnoid space
The superior continuation of the PLL is the? A. Tectorial membrane B. Ligamentum flavum C. Ligamentum nuchae D. Supraspinous ligament
A. Tectorial membrane
The nuchal ligament is a continuation of? A. Supraspinous ligament B. Ligamentum flavum C. Tectorial membrane D. ALL
A. Supraspinous ligament
A posterior ponticle results from calcification of which of the following ligaments? A. Capsular B. Anterior alanto-occipital C. Lateral alanto-occipital D. Posterior-alanto-occipital
D. Posterior-alanto-occipital
Which part of the vertebra contains a groove for the vertebral artery? A. Dense B. Condyles C. Posterior arch D. Anterior arch
C. Posterior arch
Which of the following vertebra does not have a bifid spinous process? A. C-2 B. C5 C. C6 D. C7
D. C7
At which vertebral level does the vertebral artery enter the spine? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. T1
B. C6
Which ligament attaches the TVP of L5 to the Iliac Crest? A. Superior band of iliolumbar ligament B. Inferior band of iliolumbar ligament C. Ligamentum flavum D. Supraspinotous ligament
A. Superior band of iliolumbar ligament
Which rib has both vertebral chondral and false rib? A. Five B. Eight C. Eleven D. Twelve
B. Eight
Coupling motion in the cervical spine during lateral flexion of the neck causes the vertebral body to? A. Ipsilateral rotation B. Contralateral rotation C. Flexion D. Extension
A. Ipsilateral rotation
Posterior chamber of the eye is located between? A. Iris to lens B. Cornea to iris C. Cornea to lens D. Lens to retina
A. Iris to lens
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscle of the eye? A. Trochlear B. Oculomotor C. Abducens D. Optic
A. Trochlear
What cervical nerve roots innervate the base of the skull to the vertex of the skull? A. C-1 C-2 B. C-2 C-3 C. C-3 C-4 D. C-4 C-5
A. C-1 C-2
Which of the following supplies cutaneous innervation to lower back? A. Anterior primary rami B. Posterior primary rami C. Thracodorsal nerve D. Axillary nerve
B. Posterior primary rami
Which of the following contains perilymph? A. Petrous portion of temporal B. Occipital C. Sphenoid D. Frontal
A. Petrous portion of temporal
Which of the following is a Excitatory to the pars compacta of the substantia nigra? A. Dopamine B. Glycine C. Glutamate D. Gaba
C. Glutamate
The posterior groove on the odontoid process is for what ligament? A. Transverse B. Apical C. Alar D. Cruciate
A. Transverse
At the tip of a lateral aspect of dense there are two small groups for the attachment of? A. Alar B. Apical C. Transverse D. Cruciate
A. Alar
Distraction of the posterior columns results in loss of? A. Temperature sensation B. Pain sensation C. Vibrations sensation D. Motor function
C. Vibrations sensation
The clivus is composed of the sphenoid bone and the? A. Ethmoid B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal
C. Occipital
Which of the following is a remnant of the notocord? A. Nucleus pulposis B. Annulus fibrosis C. Vertebral endplate D. Vertebral body
A. Nucleus pulposis
The splenius capitis muscle inserts into? A. EOP B. Mastoid process C. Ligamentum nuche D. TVP of C-1 and C-2
B. Mastoid process
The spinal cord is widest at? A. C-1 B. C6 C. T12 D. L3
B. C6
What is the function of the emissary vein?
A. To connect the intracranial venous sinuses with the veins outside the cranial
B. To connect the prostatic vein to lumbar veins
C. To connect veins in the hand
D. Connect IVC to SVC
A. To connect the intracranial venous sinuses with the veins outside the cranial
Normal orientation of the thoracic TVP is? A. 45 degrees anterolateral B. 45 degrees posterolateral C. Lateral D. 10 degrees anterior inferior
B. 45 degrees posterolateral
There is no intervertebral disc in which of the following locations? A. C-1 C-2 B. C-2 C-3 C. T-11 T-12 D. L-5 S-1
A. C-1 C-2
Auditory fibers are contained in the? A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Medial lemniscus C. Lateral lemniscus D. Superior colliculus
C. Lateral lemniscus
The uncus and amygdyla receive fibers from? A. Optic nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Olfactory bulb D. Facial nerve
C. Olfactory bulb
Which of the following is an example of a fibrocartilegous joint? In A. Symphsis B. Syndesmosis C. Gonphosis D. Condyler
A. Symphsis
The joint between occiput and C-1 is which type? A. Condylar B. Trochoid C. Saddle D. Hinged
A. Condylar
Apophyseal joints are used with structures for articulation of? A. Spinal processes B. Articular processes C. Bodies D. Lamina
B. Articular processes
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the medial pterygoid muscle? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10
A. 5
What are the biggest nerve innervates the laryngeal muscle? A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Inferior Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Cardiac branches D. Esophageal branches
B. Inferior Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Which of the following segmental levels comprise the phrenic nerve? A. C-1 C-2 B. C-3 C-4 C-5 C. C-5 C-6 C-7 D. C-6 C-7 C-8
B. C-3 C-4 C-5
Superior petrosal vein drains into? A. Sigmoid sinus B. Cavernous sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus
A. Sigmoid sinus
The parotid gland is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10
C. 9
Climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate in? A. Peduncles B. Nucleus solitaries C. Nucleus ambiguous D. Olivary nucleus
D. Olivary nucleus
The vertebral arteries enter the skull through which foramen? A. Stylomastoid foramen B. Foramen spinosum C. Jugular foramen D. Foramen magnum
D. Foramen magnum
Somatic visceral primary neurons are derived from? A. Mesoderm B. Endoderm C. Ectoderm D. Neural crest cells
D. Neural crest cells
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of oculomotor nerves synapse at what ganglion? A. Submandibular B. Pterygopalatine C. Optic D. Ciliary
D. Ciliary
The inability to move the jaw laterally indicates damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. VII D. X
A. V
What ligament attaches Lamina to Lamina? A. Posterior longitudinal B. Anterior longitudinal C. Supraspinous D. Ligamentum flavum
D. Ligamentum flavum
Which of the following is derived from the 3rd brachial arch? A. Stylopharyngeus B. Medial pterygoid C. Masseter D. Orbicularis oculi
A. Stylopharyngeus
Location of her vertebral venous plexus? A. Epidural B. Subdural C. Subarachnoid D. Peridural
A. Epidural
What is confluent with the central canal of SC? A. Foramen of Monroe B. Lateral ventricle C. 3rd ventricle D. 4th ventricle
D. 4th ventricle
Which ligaments is broadest in the C-spine region, narrows in the T-spine & attaches IVD? A. Posterior longitudinal B. Anterior longitudinal C. Ligamentum flavum D. Interspinous
A. Posterior longitudinal
Which of the following has no rods and cones? A. Fovea B. Macula C. Periphery of retina D. Optic disc
D. Optic disc
What separates cerebrum from cerebellum? A. Cavernous sinus B. Tentorium cerebelli C. Falx cerebelli D. Falx cerebri
B. Tentorium cerebelli
Physiologically, during extension of the lumbar spine the IVF’s ? and the spinal canal? A. Shortens, shortens B. Shortens, lengthens C. Lengthens, shortens D. Lengthens, lengthens
A. Shortens, shortens
Innervation of the Deltoid muscle is from? A. C-3 C-4 B. C-5 C-6 C. C-7 C-8 D. T-3 T-4
B. C-5 C-6
Mammillary processes of lumbar spine are located on? A. Lamina B. Pedicles C. Inferior articular processes D. Superior articular processes
D. Superior articular processes
Microglial cells are derived from? A. Mesenchymal cells B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm
D. Mesoderm
olfactory site of exit (soe)
cribriform plate, ethmoid
optic soe
optic canal; sphenoid
oculomotor soe
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid
trochlear soe
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid
trigeminal, opthalamic soe
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid
trigeminal, maxillary soe
foramen rotundum; sphenoid
trigeminal, mandibular soe
foramen ovale; sphenoid
facial soe
internal acoustic meatus then hiatus of facial canal
facial, greater petrosal soe
petrotympanic fissire
facial, chorda tympani soe
stylomastoid foramen
vestibulococochlear soe
internal acoustic meatus ( doesn’t leave skull)
glossopharyngeal soe
jugular foramen
