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Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q 
Posterior ramus (plural: rami) 
Anterior ramus (ventral branch)
Plexus 
Ganglion 
Afferent 
Efferent 
Dura
Arachnoid 
Pia 
White ramus communicans 
Grey ramus communicans
A

Posterior ramus (plural: rami) (dorsal branch) – posterior division of spinal nerve
Anterior ramus (ventral branch) – anterior division of spinal nerve
Plexus (Latin for “braid”) – branching network of nerves/vessels
Ganglion – nerve cell cluster/group of nerve bodies in the autonomic nervous system/sensory system
Afferent – input nerve fibres (receive information)
Efferent – output nerve fibres (motor supply)
Dura – thick outer meningeal layer attached to skull
Arachnoid – layer containing arachnoid spaces/blood brain barrier for exchange between blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Pia – protective layer directly over the brain and continues down spinal cord.
White ramus communicans - preganglionic sympathetic nerve tract fibres from the spinal cord.
Grey ramus communicans – Postganglionic nerve fibres for sympathetic tract

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2
Q 
Radial nerve supplies
A
M
U
M
A

Radial nerve linked to triceps, posterior part of arm.
Axillar nerve supplies deltoid muscle
Medial nerve supplies thumb and 2 forefingers
Ulnar nerve supplies remmaining 2 fingers
Musculocutaneous nerve supplies biceps only

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3
Q

List the names of major bones in the body

A 
Clavicle 
Scapula 
Humerus 
Radial 
Ulnar 
Femur 
Tibia 
Fibula
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4
Q

What are the bones of the hand

A

Carpals
Metacarpals
Phalanges

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5
Q

What are the bones of the feet

A

Tarsals
Metatarsals
Phalanges

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6
Q

Where are sesamoid bones found

A

Tendons

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7
Q

What is the foramen of the bone

A

Foramina are where blood vessels or nerves enter or leave the bone, or the cavity which the bone encloses.
A deeper hollow is a fossa

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8
Q

What are the bumps and points on bone called and what are their function

A 
Bumps = tubercles or tuberosities 
Points= spines or processes

They all serve as attachment points for tendons and ligaments

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9
Q

Role of grooves of a bone

A

grooves are formed where blood vessels, nerves or tendons lie close to the bone.

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10
Q

What are condyles

A

Smooth parts of the bone which form the joint surfaces and the epicondyles are points just outside the joint, often where ligaments are attached.

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11
Q 
Give an example of the following: 
Long bones 
Short bones 
Irregular bones 
Flat bones 
Pneumatic bones 
Sesamoid bones
A

Long bone =femur. Long bones are tubular
Short bones =tarsals, they are cuboidal
Irregular bones = C7 vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx-bones with various shapes.
flat bones: parietal, frontal, occipital. They consist of 2 compact bone plates separated by spongy bone. Trabecular bone inside, compact bone outside, trabecular part is called diploë. Vessels that cross this are diploë vessels.
Pneumatic bones= bones in face have air spaces, they are hollow, maxilla.
Sesamoid bones = patella (found in tendons).

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12
Q

What is the axial skeleton

A

skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum

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13
Q

Different types of joints that occur between bones

A

Fibril joints-gomphosir joint, between tooth and alveolar cavity
Cartilaginous joints -pubic symphysis
Synovial joints

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14
Q

what is the brain case of skull called

A

calvaria

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15
Q

Where do the flat bones of the skull articulate at?

A

Sutures

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16
Q

What is the type of joint that occurs at a suture line of the calvaria

A

Synarthroses fibrous joint (immovable)

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17
Q

What structure passes through the formamen magnum in the occipital bone?

A

Spinal cord, accessory nerves (spinal roots); meningeal lymphatics; spinal meninges; vertebral arteries.

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18
Q

Describe the vertebral column

A 
Cervical (7) 
Thoracic (12) 
Lumbar (5) 
Sacral (5 fused) 
coccygeal (4 fused)
intervertebral discs lie between successive vertebrae.
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19
Q

What is the joint between the manubrium and the body of the sternum?

A

Manubriosternal joint, it is an important anatomical landmark at T4/5 level.

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20
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle

A

scapula and clavicle

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21
Q

What is the joint between the acromion on the scapula with the clavicle called?

A

Acromioclavicular joint

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22
Q

What is the glenoid cavity

A

It is where the humerus articulates with the scapula.

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23
Q

What are the consequences of the lack of congruence between the glenoid fossa and the head of the humerus

A

Frequent shoulder dislocation

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24
Q

What is the function of the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments?

A

to attach the pelvis to the spine

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25
Q

Acetabalum

A

Socket of hip joint

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26
Q

Acromion

A

Process from scapula

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27
Q

Calcaneus

A

Heel bone

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28
Q

what is process of scapula called?

A

Carocoid

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29
Q

Epiphysis

A

Growth at the end of long bone

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30
Q

wHAT IS SOCKET OF shoulder joint?

A

Glenoid

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31
Q

Ilium

A

Uppermost pelvic bone

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32
Q

Ischium

A

Posterior pelvic bone

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33
Q

wHAT TYPE OF BONE IS Lunate

A

Carpal bone

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34
Q

What is the Malleolus

A

Bony prominences either side of the ankle

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35
Q

what is the Manubrium

A

Upper part of sternum (breast bone)

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36
Q

what is the Mastoid

A

Bony protuberance behind the ear

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37
Q

wHAT IS THE Olecranon

A

Bony tip of elbow

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38
Q

Phalanx, phalanges

A

Bone of finger or toe

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39
Q

what is the Pisiform

A

Sesamoid bone in carpus (wrist)

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40
Q

Process

A

Bony protuberance

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41
Q

what type of bone is Scaphoid

A

Carpal bone

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42
Q

Sesamoid

A

Bone with a tendon (eg patella, pisiform)

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43
Q

what is the Styloid

A

Bony prominence either side of the wrist

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44
Q

what is the Symphysis

A

Secondary cartilaginous joint (pubic symphysis)

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45
Q

Tubercle

A

Small bony lump to which muscle is attached (eg lesser tubercle of the humerus)

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46
Q

Tuberosity

A

Bony lump to which muscle is attached (eg deltoid tuberosity)

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47
Q

Xiphoid

A

Lowest, cartilaginous part of sternum (breast bone)

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48
Q

what is diploë

A

spongy cancellous bone, separating inner and outer layer or corticol bone of skull (flat bones have diploë instead of tubular bones inside)

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49
Q

what are the 2 types of bone tissue?

A

spongy and compact

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50
Q

Where does growth of long bones occur

A

epiphysis

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51
Q

distal vs proximal

A

distal -away from torso

proximal -close to torso

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52
Q

dIFFERENCE between diaphysis and epiphysis

A

disphysis is formed by compact bone, it is the shaft of long bone. Epiphysis is at the end, growth happens at the epiphysis.

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53
Q

what is bone spicule?

A

describes bony matrix in the development of new bone.

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54
Q

wHAT is periosteum?

A

A dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones, except of the surfaces of the joints. it is a fibrous connective tissue membrane, not found in the area of joints. The periosteum is supplied with numerous sensory nerve fibres, and is very sensitive to any type of injury. It is highly innervated, causes pain in injury is bone is broken. Periosteum is the only tissue with the ability to form new osteoblasts. This can happen when there is a fracture during development, and non differentiated cells will form into osteoblasts.

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55
Q

Describe osteoporosis

A

In osteoporosis, we lose minerals in our bones, and our bones become very light. After menopause, females lose some hormones which are needed to help keep minerals inside bones. By losing minerals, the trabecula will become thin and more fragile and vulnerable for fractures. Trabecula–> ends if long bones like femur, bone is not solid, but is full of holes, connected by thin rods and plates of bone tissue.

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56
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Smooth white tissue that covers the ends of bones when they come together to form joints.
It covers the external surface to the epiphyses. Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage, decreases friction at bone joints.

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57
Q

what is fontanelle membrane

A

it is membrane on epiphyseal plate, which allows growth of long bones. This membrane is found on newborn skull, permits the growth of brain.

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58
Q

Where do all bones come from during development?

A

All bones come from mesenchyme, by either

1) intramembranous ossification (mesenchymal models of bones undergo ossification) or
2) endochondral ossification (cartilaginous models of bones form from mesenchyme and undergo ossification)

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59
Q

What hormones stop growth?

A

Sex hormones

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60
Q

What happens to soft callus in a fracture?

A

Soft callus is replaced by bony callus (soft callus will be ossified because periosteum will permit ossification. It will then create bony callus. This process doesn’t happen in intramembranous ossification.

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61
Q

What are the common types of fractures

A

Comminuted -bone breaks into many fragments
compression-bone is crushed
depressed-broken bone portion is pressed inward
impacted-broken bone ends are forced into each other
Spiral-ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone
greenstick-bone breaks incompletely

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62
Q

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

Air filled cavities, lighten skull, give resonance and amplification to voice. Give rise to pneumatic bones.

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63
Q

Where are frontal bones found?

A

Mastoid process.

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64
Q

what is the floating bone?

A

Hyoid bone.

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65
Q

what are the 3 bones of the ear?

A

Malleus, incus, stapes, which is the smallest bone in body.

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66
Q 
Describe flexibility of the following joints classified by movement 
Synarthroses 
Amphiarthroses 
Diarthroses 
Classified by structure 
Fibrous joints 
Cartilaginous joints 
Synovial joints
A

Synarthroses- immovable
Amphiarthroses- slightly moveable
Diarthroses- freely moveable

Fibrous joints -immoveable, gomphosir joint
Cartilaginous joints -immoveable or slightly movemable, pubic symphysis
Synovial joints -freely mobile, have synovial membrane produces liquid to fill synovial cavity.

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67
Q 
Joints on movement 
Hinge joint 
Ball and socket 
pivot joint 
saddle joint 
gliding joints 
conyloid joint
A

Hinge joint -movement in one direction, in one axis
Ball and socket -movement in 3 axis
pivot joint-permit rotation, happen in cervical vertebras, eg head movement
saddle joint - saddle shaped, permit movement in 2 axis
gliding joints -able to permit sliding movement
conyloid joint permit movement in 2 axis

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68
Q

What spinal roots supply the upper limb?

A

5 spinal nerve roots from C5-T1

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69
Q

Describe the brachial plexus

A

Brachial plexus consists of 5 roots, 3 trunks, 6 divisions and 3 cords, from which the 5 main branches arise. Brachial plexus passes deep to the clavicle (collar bone) and continues into the axilla (underarm).

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70
Q

What are the 5 major peripheral nerves formed by brachial plexus

A

These 5 major peripheral nerves carry motor and sensory fibres to the upper limb:
The musculo-cutaneous nerve (C5, C6, C7), innervates brachilis, biceps and coracobrachialis
The radial nerve (C5-T1) innervates the triceps and posterior compartment of forearm. Sensory posterior aspect of arm, forearm, posteriolateral aspect of hand. If radial nerve damaged, cannot extend the back of the hand.
The axillary nerve (C5,C6) innervates teres minor and deltoid, sensory-inferior region of deltoid (regimental patch area)
The median nerve (C6-T1) forearm flexors, thenar muscles. Sensation lateral for 3 fingers (thumb and 2 fingers)
The ulnar nerve (C8-T1) muscles of the hand and flexor carpi ulnaris + medial half flexor digitorum profundus. Sensory-anterior + post medial (remaining 2 fingers).

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71
Q

What are the sites at which the peripheral nerves are vulnerable to damage
Axillary nerve, radial nerve, ulnar nerve.

A

The axillary nerve -within the axilla
The radial nerve -as it winds around the shaft of the humerus
The ulnar nerve-as it passes behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus the median nerve deep to the flexor retinaculum in the wrist.

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72
Q

Describe the nerve innervation of the lower limb

A

The lower limb is supplied by 8 spinal nerve roots (L1-S3) which contribute to the lumbar and sacral plexuses.
The Lumbar plexus (L1-L4) branches within the psoas major muscle (big hip flexor muscle located from the lumbar spine) and supplies the anterior and medial compartments of the thigh.
The rest of the lower limb is supplied by the sacral plexus (S1-S3) WHICH INCLUDES THE LUMBOSACRAL TRUNK (l4/5).

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73
Q

What does the sciatic nerve bifurcate into?

A

The common fibular (peroneal nerve)
-Motor: muscles of the anterior leg, lateral leg and the remaining foot muscles
-Sensory: innervates the lateral leg and the dorsal surface of the foot.
The tibial nerve (supplies the posterior thing ‘hamstring’ muscles, and the calf muscles called soleus and gastrocnemius).
-Motor: muscles of the posterior leg (calf muscles) + intrinsic foot muscles
-Sensory: innervates the posterolateral and anterolateral sides of the leg + plantar surface of foot.

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74
Q

what nerve supplies the quadricepts?

A

The femoral nerve.

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75
Q

What nerve supplies the medial (adductor) compartment of the thigh?

A

The obturator nerve

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76
Q

What nerves run with the ribs, emerging from the vertebral column?

A

The intercostal nerves, there are 11 intercostal nerves and 1 subcostal nerve, that runs under rib 12.

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77
Q

Role of CNX (Vagus nerve)

A

Supplies parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and abdomen. Vagus nerve is one of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves which arise from the base of the brain.

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78
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

the phrenic nerve (C3,4,5) which supplies the diaphragm and is therefore important in breathing.

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79
Q

What does the grey and white matter of spinal cord contain

A

Grey matter is neuronal cell bodies

White matter is myelinated axons, linking different parts of the CNS.

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80
Q

What level does the spinal cord end?

A

L2

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81
Q

Describe the layers of the spinal cord?

A

Dura
Subdural space, full with CSF
Arachnoid matter with arachnoid spaces, contains blood brain barrier to allow exchange between blood and CSF
Pia mater, protective layer, directly over brainand goes down to spinal cord. Spinal cord ends at level L2
Spinal cord (L2)
Conus medullaris
Cauda equina (horses tail)

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82
Q

Lumbosacral plexus

A

Femoral triangle (NAVY)
Femoral nerve follows femoral bone
Femoral nerve supplies anterior part of thigh
Obturator foramen nerve supplies inner thigh, allows crossing of legs)
Sciatic nerve comes from L4, all the way down
Sciatic nerve splits into tibial (anterior) and fibular nerve (posterior).

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83
Q

Superficial peroneal nerve

A

Where head of fibula is.

Damage to nerve causes foot drop appearance.

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84
Q

What muscles allow you to move your ankle outwards

A

Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
Tertius tendon

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85
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Patients effected by nerve roots to different areas in skin.
It is an autoimmune system, attacking myelin sheath, so communication signal slows down. They lose sensation of sections in skin.

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86
Q

Describe the somatic and autonomic division

A

Somatic = motor supply to somatic/skeletal musculature
Voluntary
Autonmic - involuntary, supply visceral smooth muscle and glands. Divides into sympathetic and parasympathetic

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87
Q

What is innervation of thorax and abdomen

A

mainly sympathetic,

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88
Q

saliva production

A

parasympathetic, it follows stimulus of vagus nerve. Vagus nerve innervates gut all the way to splenic flexture. Splanchnic nerves, mesenteric nerves, help digestion.

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89
Q

Chordia equina syndrome

A

Paralysed from a level down because of compression on spinal cord. tHEY WILL GET INCONTINENCE, HAVE HAVE LOST CONTROL of what is going on.

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90
Q

Where do the urinary and reproductive systems come from?

A

They come from the intermediate mesoderm

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91
Q

What are the 3 components of the upper and lower female genital tracts?

A

Upper: ovaries; uterus; fallopian tube
Lower: labia minora/majora

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92
Q

What is the function of the uterus?

A

Secondary sex organ, so development occurs during puberty under the influence of sex hormones; responsible for the maintenance and transportation of gametes. In pregnancy: it allows protection and support for the foetus.

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93
Q

what are the 2 main subdivisions of the uterus?

A

3; fundus, body and cervix (body might include fundus_

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94
Q

What is meant by internal os and external os?

A

External os: marks the transition from the ectocervix to the endocervical canal

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95
Q

what is meant by version and flexion of the uterus?

A

Flexion: the bending of the uterus on itself (angle between the longitudinal axis of cervix, and that of the vagina)
Version: The displacement of the entire organ forwards or backwards (is the angle between the longitudinal axis of the uterus and that of the cervix)
Normal position: anteverted and ante flexed.

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96
Q

What are the important relations of uterus?

A 
Anterior = bladder
posterior = rectum
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97
Q

What are the ligaments which support the uterus?

A

Broad ligament: a sheet of peritoneum associated with both the uterus and ovaries.
Mesovarium, meso metrium, meso salpinx

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98
Q

What is the ovarian ligament, what is the suspensory ligament of the ovary?

A

Ovarian ligament: attached to the ovary inferiorly. It connects the ovary to the side of the uterus.
Suspensory ligaments: extends outwards from the ovary to the lateral abdominal wall.

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99
Q

What are the meso ovarium and meso salpinx?

A

Both are divisions of the broad ligament. Meso-ovarium projects from the posterior surface of the broad ligament and attaches to the hilum of the ovary, enclosing the neurovascular supply. It does not, however, occur on the surface of the ovary itself.
Mesosalpinx, originates superiorly to mesovarium, enclosing the fallopian tubes.

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100
Q

What is the blood supply of the uterus? from which artery does this arise?

A

Uterine iliac artery, comes from internal iliac artery

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101
Q

Name 4 parts of uterine tube

A

Ampulla (widest section of the uterine tubes)
Fimbrae -ciliated projections
Infundibulum -funnel shaped
isthmus-narrow section

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102
Q

Which life threatening condition is associated with the uterine tube?

A

Ectopic pregnancy, may occur after salpingitis (inflammation of the uterine tubes, usually from bacterial infection)

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103
Q

Where does ovarian blood supply come from?

A

Abdominal aorta

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104
Q

Where do ovarian veins drain to?

A

Right IVC

Left left renal vein

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105
Q

fornix of vagina?

A

superior portion of vagina extending to cervix.

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106
Q

what is the relationship of the posterior fornix with the abdominal cavity?

A

It is close to the recto-uterine pouch. Furthest point down so site where infection and fluids typically collect.

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107
Q

What is the prepuce?

A

fold of skin surrounding the clit

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108
Q

What is the hymen?

A

A membrane that surrounds of partially covers the external vaginal opening

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109
Q

Where is the ostia of lesser vestibular (skenes)?

A

Around the lower end of the urethra

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110
Q

Where is the greater vestibular (Bartholins) glands?

A

slightly posterior and laterally to the opening of the vagina

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111
Q

What is the function of the testes? (how many sperm are produced, daily?

A

site of sperm production and hormone synthesis, over 300 mill sperm.

112
Q

What is the testicular blood supply?

A

Testicular arteries from abdominal aorta

113
Q

What structure passes through prostate gland, from base to apex?

A

Urethra.

114
Q

What are the ejaculatory ducts formed by?

A

Formed by the union of the bas deferens

115
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the penis

A

Shaft and glans

116
Q

What are the 3 cylindrical structures that form the penis

A

Corpus cavernosa x2, and corpus spongiosum x1

117
Q

Which structure expands, distally, to form the glans penis?

A

Corpus spongiosum.

118
Q

what fills with blood during an erection

A

Corpus cavernosa

119
Q

what kidney is lower and why

A

right kidney is lower because of liver being above

120
Q

What is the arrangement of structures in hilum of kidney?

A

Renal artery, vein, ureter

121
Q

What are the important relations of the ureters

A

ureters are retro peritoneal

122
Q

How do ureters enter the bladder? What is uteric reflux

A

Obliquely. When urine flows retrograde back up the bladder, sometimes all the way back up to the kidney, can lead to infection.

123
Q

Define the function of the bladder

A

Storage of urine (600ml); expulsion os urine from the body

124
Q

What is meant by the bladder ‘trigone’ and which structures enter/leave it?

A

The smooth area between the 2 ureters and urethra it is sensitive to expansion.

125
Q

What are the 3 parts of male urethra

A

Prostatic 3cm, membranous 1cm, spongy/penile 16cm

126
Q

what do the uncoiled and coiled structures of wolffian duct form?

A

coiled=epididymis

uncoiled=vas deferens, transports sperm through prosthetic urethra for ejaculation

127
Q

What is the chorion frondosum?

A

The developing placenta

128
Q

What is the chorion laeve

A

Tissue developing over the embryo

129
Q

What 2 things fuse to form the uterine cavity?

A

Descidua capsularis fuses with decidua parietalis

130
Q

What allows testes to attach to posterior abdominal wall?

A

Urogenital mesentary

131
Q

Describe the descent of testes through the inguinal canal

A

Testes descend through inguinal ring.
As the gubernaculum grows towards the scrotal swellings, the testes follows to its course. Factors controlling descent could be increase in intra abdominal pressure due to organ growth, influence of hormones, and regression of extra abdominal portion of gubernaculum.
By 28 weeks, testes reach deep inguinal ring, they then go through inguinal canal to take up their final division in scrotum.

132
Q

What is retained testes

A

This descent may get arrested in abdomen or inguinal canal. This condition is called retained testes, results in infertility.

133
Q

What is the muscle that makes up the scrotum?

A

Non striated dartos muscle

134
Q

Describe the positioning of the poles of the testes

A

Upper pole is tilted anterolaterally, lower pole is tilted posteromedially

135
Q

What is name of membrane that covers testes

A

Tunica vaginalis -between the 2 layers of the tunica vaginalis there is a thin film of fluid which can expand creating a hydrocele

136
Q

what is the muscle of the spermatic cord?

A

cremaster muscle, a type of smooth muscle

137
Q

Describe the anal triangle?

A

Contains anal canal and 2 ischiolateral fossa
From the first triangle arises the corpus spongiosum
From pubic bone arises the corpus cavernosa

138
Q

Describe the ventricular system of CNS

A

VENTRICLES ARE WHERE CSF is, it helps lubricate everything. Headache occurs when CSF utilises too much glucose in brain, when you are dehydrated or if you have meningitis. There are 4 ventricles: lateral ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle, and central canal of the medulla oblongata and spinal cord

139
Q

What is the choroid plexus

A

choroid plexus consists of cells lying throughout the 4 ventricles and produces CSF. It calcifies around 20 but there is a continual overflow as we get older.

140
Q

What is a sulcus?

A

Crevicle/trench on the brain surface

141
Q

What is a gyrus

A

Ridge on the brain surface,

142
Q

what is a foramina

A

whole to allow structures to pass through

143
Q

choroid plexus?

A

lines the ventricle system in brain, production sight of CSF

144
Q

What is the falx cerebri

A

longitudinal crescent-shaped fold of meningeal layer of dura mater between the cerebral hemispheres.
-separation of the 2 hemispheres, come all the way back to occipital. It contains the frontal part of brain and all olfactory receptors sitting in this level.

145
Q

What is a ventricle?

A

system filled with CSF in the brain

146
Q

What is a sinus?

A

sac/cavity in organ or tissue, eg) frontal sinus, cavity containing air

147
Q

What is sella turcica

A

saddle shaped depression (Turkish saddle) in sphenoid bone, housing pituitary gland

148
Q

Cerebrum

A

Brain, upper most region of nervous system, containing white and grey matter

149
Q

Cerebellum?

A

little brain, situated at the back of the brain (hind brain)
Checks for balance, for hand movement and coordination.

150
Q

Meninges

A

membrane layers covering the brain, consisting of dura, arachnoid and pia layers

151
Q

Skull

A

22 bones, 8 form cranium-parietal, frontal, occipital, temporal
14 form face

152
Q

what are sutures?

A

fibrous joints within the skull, fuse after 2 years of birth

153
Q

what is the cabella

A

top part of nose, where glasses are

154
Q

what is the cribiform plate

A

The cribriform plate is a sieve-like structure between the anterior cranial fossa and the nasal cavity. It is a part of ethmoid bone and supports the olfactory bulb, which lies in the olfactory fossa.

155
Q

what structures go through cribiform plate

A

optic cranial nerve for olfactic smell

156
Q

What is tentorium cerebelli

A

The cerebellar tentorium or tentorium cerebelli (Latin for “tent of the cerebellum”) is an extension of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the inferior portion of the occipital lobe

157
Q

Layers of the brain

A

DAP
Dural layer
Subdural
Arachnoid-has CSF, hence this area is space-chordae equina is a safe area because it has all the CSF
Pia- a continuation of spinal cord, innermost layer, lines everything within actual brain.

158
Q

Describe arachnoid mater

A

Where our blood brain barrier is. CSF directly connects to blood. -this is why certain drugs can cross and work and others can’t, depends on lipophilic property of membrane

159
Q

What are the major parts of the brain

A

Frontal lobe-for mood & personality
Temporal - listening
Parietal layer
Cortex -sensation, motor cortex, separate from frontal to parietal lobes
Cerebellum, balance, dexterity, coordinate

160
Q

what is pons

A

bridge-connection from spinal cord to brain, it is where other cranial nerves that branch from that area are. It has 2 pairs of cranial nerves coming off

161
Q

corpus callosum

A

highway for our information, many fibres go through this area.

162
Q

Diencephalon

A

Control of homeostasis, have pituitary gland linkage, for connection of anterior and posterior parts.

163
Q

Describe the thalamus and hypothalamus

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus are surrounded by CSF.

164
Q

Describe the choroid plexus

A

2 nerves sit on top of the choroid plexus, the iptic nerve

165
Q

Consequence of pituitary tumours

A

People see double vision, because tumour expands, pushes up the cranial nerves, this has an effect on cranial nerve for vision

166
Q

mid brain

A

medulla, control centre for respiratory and cardiac control

167
Q

Brocas area

A

produces speech

168
Q

Vernicas

A

Auditory area, on temporal lobe

169
Q

Describe the layers of scalp

A 
Skin 
Connective tissue 
Aponeurosis
Loose areolar tissue 
Pericranium
170
Q

What are the sinuses of the skull?

A

We have the superior saggital sinus-veins
Sigmoidal sinus, at the back of the mastoid process. It is where blood from brain collects, directly down to join your external jugular veins.
Inferior saggital sinus,

171
Q

How are veins in brain connected?

A

Veins are connected with the arachnoid granulations, these granulations are out pouches to alow changes to happen between CSF and blood. They are highly vascularised, rich and an important area for medications for meningitis.

172
Q

Why do the veins in brain not have valves

A

Can cause stasis, and reduce blood flow

173
Q

What artery is mostly effected by strokes

A

Basiler artery, area effect by strokes or vascular dementia

174
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of meninges (meningeal cochal loss), causes meningitus. Meningeal membrane will have inflammation because of bacteria, it will fire off chemicals to be transported to rest of brain, and then rest of body, because we have blood brain barrier. This is why you can get a stiff neck. Bacteria loves glucose, will grow with glucose and oxygen.
-There is acute inflammation of the arachnoid and pia with thick, creamy exudate (pus) filling the subarachnoid space and surrounding the vessels.

175
Q

Ventricular system

A

Fluid passes between lateral ventricles into 3rd ventricle, into 4th ventricle. 4th vntricle is split between cerebellum and cerebrum. 3rd ventricle is where hypothalamus is, it parts the blood brain barrier.
-Each part of the brain contains a fluid filled cavity or channel corresponding to the lumen of the embryonic neural tube. This gives rise to the ventricular system.
The large C shaped cavities in each cerebral hemisphere are the lateral ventricles. These drain via the two interventricular foramina (foramina of Monro) to a single, slit like third ventricle which is located in midline, between the two egg shaped thalami (plural of thalamus).
The diamond shaped fourth ventricle lies between the brainstem anteriorly and the cerebellum behind. The third and fourth ventricles are connected by the narow cerebral aqeuduct of the midbrain.

176
Q

Describe the olfactory nerve

A

smell, 80-120 nerves in cribiform plate, hence if you get a cold, it will effect this nerve, causing sniffles.

177
Q

What are the 2 cranial nerves from brainstem?

A

Olfactory nerve

Optic nerve chiasm

178
Q

Describe the structures of the brainstem

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

179
Q

Describe the vagus nerve

A

CN10 gets everywhere. Important for sympathetic & parasympathetic nerves of body

180
Q

What nerves are olfactory and optic and vagus

A

Olfactory is CN1
Optic is CNII
Vagus is CNX

181
Q

What are syndesmosis?

A

fibrous joints, between 22 bones of the skull

182
Q

What are the major parts of the brain?

A 
The cerebrum (cerebral hemispheres)-largest part of human brain, seat of personality, memory and intelligence. 
the cerebellum, with its paired cerebellar hemispheres-it is concerned with balance, muscular co-ordination and dexterity
The brainstem, to which the cerebrum and cerebellum are attached. Brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata.. This is critical for normal conscious awareness and basic 'life support' functions (eg control of breathing and blood pressure).
183
Q

Where are the
longitudinal fissures
transverse fissures
lateral sulcus

A

longitudinal fissures are between 2 cerebral hemispheres
transverse fissures between the cerebrum and cerebellum
lateral sulcus between the frontal and temporal lobes

184
Q

What do these 4 lobes contain?

A

Frontal lobe contains the primary motor cortex
Parietal lobe contains the primary somatic sensory cortex
Occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex
Temporal lobe contains the primary auditory cortex

185
Q

What are the folds of the brain called and what are they separated by?

A

Called Gyri and separated by grooves (sulci)

186
Q

What are the 3 membranes of the brain

A

The dura mater (roubust and leathery), and is tightly adherent to bone, remains attached to inside of skull. It has 2 folds, the falx cerebri separating the interval between the two cerebral hemispheres, and the tentorium cerebelli, which is a second dural partition interposed between the cerebrum and cerebellum. The dura can separate into two layers, creating a channel filled with venous blood. These are dural venous sinuses, and are valveless. They receive blood from the brain, and can cause bleeding between the skull and the dura mater, which can cause life threatening pressure on the brain.

187
Q

What are the dural venous sinuses

A

The dura can separate into two layers, creating a channel filled with venous blood. These are dural venous sinuses, and are valveless. They receive blood from the brain, and can cause bleeding between the skull and the dura mater, which can cause life threatening pressure on the brain.

188
Q

Describe the arachnoid and pia membranes

A

Arachnoid is semi transparent, so you can see the cortical vessels beneath it, in the subarachnoid space.
Bleeding into the sub arachnoid space can cause sudden death.
The delicate pia mater closely invests the cortical surface and cannot be identified separately.

189
Q

What secretes CSF

A

Choroid plexus: a high vascular structure within each ventricle. CSF flows towards the fourth ventricle before escaping via three openings (median aperture and 2 lateral aperture) to reach the subarachnoid space.
CSF is continuously reabsorbed into the superior sagittal sinus (one of the dural venous sinuses). The rate of absorption matches the rate of production, keeping the CSF volume and pressure constant.

190
Q

Describe the structure of the brainstem

A

The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, pons and medulla, from which 10 out of the 12 cranial nerves arise.
Medulla contains 2 longitudinally-disposed pyramids on either side of the midline. These contain voluntary motor fibres descending from the frontal lobes to the spinal cord. Damage would therefore cause weakness or paralysis. The pons is just above the medulla.
The midbrain is small. From the anterior aspect it resembles the cerebral peduncles, separated by the interpeduncular fossa.

191
Q

Describe the olfactory, optic and cranial nerves

A

There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves, two arise from the cerebral hemispheres, ten are attached to the brain stem. The olfactory nerve targets the olfactory bulb and tract. The optic nerve is the nerve of vision. The two optic nerves unite at the chiasm, then divide again to become the optic tracts. This chiasm is situated just above the pituitary gland.
The vagus nerve innervates the muscles of speech and swallowing (pharynx and larynx) and is the parasympathetic nerve of the thorax and abdomen to the level of the splenic flexure of the colon, whereafter the parasympathetic innervation is from the sacral outflow in the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2, 3, 4).

192
Q

What is a muscle?

A

A band or bundle of fibrous tissue in a human or animal body that has the ability to contract, producing movement in, or maintaining the position of parts of the body.

193
Q

What is a tendon?

A

A flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching a muscle to a bone.

194
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A sheet of fibrous tissue which takes the place of a tendon in sheet like muscles having a wide area of attachment.

195
Q

What factors can we use to classify muscles?

A 
Orientation of muscle fibres 
action 
shape, 
position in the body 
number of heads (proximal attachments)
196
Q

What is an origin and an insertion

A

Origin- proximal end (usually) that remains fixed during contraction (flex your biceps to view this).
Insertion-distal end (usually) of muscle that is moveable.
Sternocleidomastoid muscle: origin - manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle. Insertion is mastoid process of temporal bone.

197
Q

Unipennate muscle

A

Fibres arranged to insert in a diagonal direction onto tendon. Allows greater strength. For example, palmar interosseous
Extensor digitorum

198
Q

Bipennate

A

Two rows of muscle fibres, facing in opposite diagonal directions, with central tendon, like a feather. Greater power but less range of motion. Eg Rectus femoris

199
Q

Multipennate

A

Multiple rows of diagonal fibres, with central tendon which branches into two or more tendons. Eg deltoid: jas three sections (anterior, middle and posterior)

200
Q

Fusiform

A

These muscles are more spindle shaped, with large muscle belly which is wider than the origin and insertion
Eg biceps brachii

201
Q

Circular

A

Muscle appear circular in shape and are normally sphincter muscles which surround an opening such as the mouth and eyes. Eg, orbicularis oculi (eyes) and orbicularis oris (mouth)

202
Q

Convergent

A

Muscles where origin is wider than the point of insertion. Allowed for maximum force production. Pectoralis major, origin sternum and clavicle, insertion is humorous.

203
Q

Parallel

A

Fibres run parallel to each other, eg sartorius

204
Q

Strap

A

Muscle that have parallel orientation, bit specific to the neck. Infrahyoid muscles (group of 4 muscles that are located inferior to the hyoid bone, eg sternohyoid).

205
Q

Agonist

A

Main muscle producing a specific movement (prime mover)

206
Q

Antagonist

A

Opposes the action of the agonist (relaxes when agonist contracts)

207
Q

Fixator

A

Steadies the proximal part of the limb when a more distal part is being moved. For the bicep curl this would be rotator cuff

208
Q

Synergist

A

Complements the action of the agonist. Brachioradialis which assists biceps and stabilises the elbow joint

209
Q

Tibialis anterior-which way does the joint move when this muscle contracts

A

Dorsiflexion and inversion

210
Q

Rectus femoris which way does the joint move when this muscle contracts

A

knee extension and hip flexion

211
Q

Gatrocnemius (calf muscle)

A

plantar flexion

212
Q

Biceps brachii

A

flexes elbow and shoulder; supinates

213
Q

Biceps femoris

A

part of the hamstring (extend the hip and flex the knee)

214
Q

Triceps brachii

A

(extension of the arm at the elbow)

215
Q

Quadriceps femoris

A

(knee extension, hip flexion)

216
Q

If biceps brachii contracts, which group of muscles are the

A

Agonists: briceps brachii
Antagonists: triceps brachii

217
Q

If biceps femoris contracts, which group of muscles are the agoniss and antagonists

A

Agonists: biceps femoris Antagonists: quadriceps muscle

218
Q

What are the 3 gluteal muscles
And what is the name of the nerve situated in that area? -if this structure is irritates or impinged, what condition does it cause?

A

Gluteus maximus
Gluteus Medius
Gluteus Minimus
Sciatic nerve -sciatica (pain radiating down the leg)

219
Q

What are the longest, smallest and strongest muscle in body

A

Longest-sartorius muscle
Shortest-Stapedium (smallest skeletal muscle) stabilises the stapes (smallest bone in body)
Strongest-masseter

220
Q

What bony structure do the hamstring muscles originate from?

A

Ischial tuberosity (short head of bicep femoris originates from posterior femur)

221
Q

Where do the hamstrings insert

A

Head of fibular, medial tibial condyle, medial surface of the tibia

222
Q 
name the number of heads of these muscles and their primary action 
Biceps brachii 
Triceps brachii 
Quadriceps 
Biceps femoris
A

Biceps brachii 2 heads, flexion at the elbow
Triceps brachii, 3 heads, extends of the elbow
Quadriceps, 4, extends the knee
Biceps femoris, 2, flexion at the knee

223
Q

What type of bone is the patella, which muscular structure passes over it to insert below it, and where does it insert on the tibia

A 
Sesamoid bone (bone embedded within a tendon or a muscle) 
Quadriceps pass over it to insert below it onto the tuberosity of the tibia.
224
Q

What is the name of the gene that develops limbs, nerve supply and movement related things

A

sonic gene

225
Q

what is extensor muscle

A

muscle with opposite effect is the extensor muscle. It opens a joint, increasing angles between components of a limb, eg when extending arm, bicep = flexor
tricep=extensor
In the upper limb only, all flexors are at the front
In the lower limb, all flexors are at the back,

226
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

voluntary, striated, involved in locomotion and movement of joints.
Multi nucleated, contain a number of myofibrils, there is a calcium, troponin link. Skeletal myofibres are surrounded by a sacrolemma (cell membrane), contain sacroplasm and contractile myofibrils. If you start to overuse mucles, you get hypertrophy, which means enlargement).

227
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Self producing, myocytes, self beating/pumping. Involuntary striated (myofilaments) muscle
Forms most of the walls of the chambers of the heart
Has intrinsic ability to contract via calcium, too much calcium, heart goes into over drive. Resistant to fatigue, because it is self producing

228
Q

Smooth muscle

A

Involuntary, decided by CNS and ANS. It is unstriated, and visceral, found in walls of vessels and hollow organs. Sphincters are smooth muscles, allowing passage of contents to help flow. Undergo peristaltic contractions to move contents.

229
Q

tendon

A

attachment from muscle directly to bone

230
Q

Attachments of muscle

A

where muscle starts to grow-origin

isertion is where it inserts, and belly is the middle bit.

231
Q

Tendon

A

muscle attachment to bone. Tough and rope like.

232
Q

Aponeurosis

A

connective tissue btween bone, reinforces sheet of muscles, allows movement of bone. Eg allows movement of eyebrows, connects tissue to scalp. If you flex your arm, you can feel bicep moving and aponeurosis which allows you to move. Aponeurosis is made up of layers of delicate thin sheaths, which separate muscles from one another also.

233
Q

Hamstring muscle o

A

origin for hamstring muscle-ischial tuberosity. Insertion is in the lateral aspects-tendon sheath underneath.
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris
These are 3 hamstring muscles, extends, strenghtens hip, and flex and bend the knee.

234
Q

Biceps

A

2 heads. Bicep has aponeurosis, sheet that attaches from one muscle to another, to allow you to pronate and supinate. Insertion of bicep= radial tuberosity. Origin of bicep: has 2 origins-because it has 2 heads:
-Short head originates at caracoid process, at scapula
-Long head, originates above shoulder joint, at supraglenoid tubercle.
Top of bicep inserts into arm of rotator cuffs, allowing you to rotate arm.
Bicep attaches on that cavity, allows movement. It is shallow and can dislocate easily, compared to hips.

235
Q

Function of tendons

A

Attach muscle to bone
Allow muscle bulk to be situated away from its site of action
can withstand compression, allow muscle to pull ‘round corners’
reserve energy and resist heat.

236
Q

What is the name of tendon at foot?

A

Calcanea tendon

237
Q

what muscles keep neck and throat upright?

A

Strap muscle

238
Q

What is fusiform

A

Within hand and palm, have aponeurosis, flexor tendons go into fingers, tendons are tough.

239
Q

Adductor

A

muscle that pulls body part toward the midline, eg adductor muscle of legs pull legs towards midline so they are closer to each other

240
Q

Abductor

A

Opposes adductor muscle

241
Q

What nerve is found near triceps?

A

Radial nerve

242
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

Limb muscles can be grouped into compartments. If there is a swelling after you cut a particular vein, then you get pain and swelling but only in that compartment. Swelling can expand and you can get necrosis.

243
Q

Describe venous blood flow through compartments

A

Venous return is aided by the pressure from the connective tissue sleeve, when the muscles contract.Muscles in a compartment work together to produce movement.

244
Q

Describe flexion and extension

A

Flexion is decreasing angle of a joint, bending joint

Extension is increasing angle of a joint, straightening the joint

245
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Decreasing angle of the ankle joint, move toes down

246
Q

Plantarflexion

A

Increasing angle of ankle joint, move toes up

247
Q

Elevation

A

Moving body part in superior direction, moving shoulders up

248
Q

Depression

A

moving body part in inferior direction.

249
Q

Eversion

A

Rotating angle, so sole of foot points away from the other

250
Q

Inversion

A

Rotating the angle so that the sole of the foot points towards the other.

251
Q

Abduction

A

Moving a limb away from midline of body

252
Q

Adduction

A

Moving a limb towards the midline of body

253
Q

Lateral rotation

A

rotating limb away from centre (midline) of body

254
Q

Medial rotation

A

Rotating a limb towards the centre line (midline) of body

255
Q

Retraction

A

movement of arm from shoulder towards back of body,

256
Q

protraction

A

movement of arm towards front of body

257
Q

Lateral flexion

A

bending spine to side, away from centre of body

258
Q

supination

A

Palm moves to face roof

259
Q

pronation

A

movement of palm to face feet

260
Q

What structure expands to form the glans penis ?

A

Corpus spongiosum

261
Q

What are the approximate dimensions of the kidney

A

10-13cm, linger on left
5 wide
2.4 cm depth

262
Q

Where does Apex of bladder point to?

A

Pubic symphysis

263
Q

What are the 3 parts of male urethra and what is the length of each part

A

Prostatic is 3cm
Membranous is 1cm
Spongy/penile is 16cm

264
Q

Route of vas deferens

A 
Through epididymis 
Passes bladder 
Into seminal vesicles 
Into prostate 
Joints urethra which is coming from bladder into prostate
265
Q

What is introitus of vagina

A

Basically the whole bit of the private part, surrounded by the vestibule

266
Q

What is the urethral meatus?

A

Urethra, found in glans of clit

267
Q

What is the vestibule

A

Space between labia minora

268
Q

What is the greater tubercle and what is the lesser tubercle

A

Greater tubercle is larger and distal part of humerus in anatomical position
Lesser tubercle is smaller and proximal part of humerus

269
Q

What does spiral groove of humerus contain ?

A

Radial nerve

Causing wrist drop to occur

270
Q

Describe the Saggital, coronal and lambdoid suture

A

Saggital is transverse (left right separation of skull)
Coronal separates frontal bone from parietal
Lambdoid suture separates the occipital bones from parietal bones

271
Q

What and where is foramen magnum

A

It a hole in occipital bone at base of skull, through which spinal cord passes

272
Q

The hip joint (head of femur articulating with acetabulum) is deeper than the articulation of the head of humerus with the glenoid cavity of scapula. What are the consequences of this?

A

Not as mobile as shoulder joints

273
Q

How many phalanges do toes and fingers have?

A 
3 phalanges 
Proximal phalanx 
Middle phalanx 
Distal phalanx 
Except the big toe which only has 2
274
Q

What is the tough band of fibrous tissue that connects muscle to bone

A

Tendon

275
Q

What are the 2 fossas of the humerus

A 
Radial fossa (small) 
Coronoid fossa (large)
276
Q

What are epicondyles

A

Points outside the joint, often where ligaments are attached

277
Q

What are the ejaculatory ducts and where do they open?

A

Formed by the union of the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicles. Open into the urethra

Genomics (3 decks)

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