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Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is a plane?

A

A surface, real or imaginary, along which any two points can be connected.

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2
Q

What is the median plane?

A

Divides head, body or limb into equal right and left halves.

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3
Q

Describe the saggital plane.

A

Passes through head, body or limb, parallel to the median plane.

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4
Q

Describe the transverse plane.

A

Cuts across the head, body or limb at a right angle to its long axis or across the long axis of an organ or part.

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5
Q

What are dorsal planes?

A

Run at right angles to the median and transverse planes. Divide the body or head into dorsal and ventral portions.

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6
Q

Describe the anatomical term dorsal.

A

Towards or relatively near the back, corresponding to the surface of the head, neck, tail. On the limbs, applies to the upper or front surface of the carpus, tarsus, metapodium, and digits.

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7
Q

Describe the anatomical term ventral.

A

Towards or relatively near the belly and the corresponding surface of the head, neck, thorax, and tail.

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8
Q

Describe the anatomical term medial.

A

Medial is towards or relatively near the median plane.

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9
Q

Describe the anatomical term lateral.

A

Away from, or relatively farther from the median plane.

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10
Q

Describe the anatomical term cranial.

A

Towards or relatively near the head. On the limbs it applies proximal to the carpus and tarsus. In reference to the head, it is replaced by the term rostral.

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11
Q

Describe the term rostral.

A

Towards or relatively near the nose.

Applies to the head only.

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12
Q

Describe the anatomical term caudal.

A

Towards, or relatively near the tail. On the limbs it applies proximal to the carpus and tarsus.
Also can be used in reference to the head.

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13
Q

What does the term proximal mean?

A

Relatively near the main mass of origin. In the limbs and tail it refers to the attached end. In vertebrae it refers to the main mass of bone, not the spinous processes (these are distal).

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14
Q

Describe the term distal.

A

Away from the main mass of origin. In the limbs and tail this is the free end-unattached.

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15
Q

What does the term superficial refer to?

A

Relatively near the surface of the body or the surface of a solid organ.

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16
Q

What does the term deep refer to?

A

Relatively near the centre of the body or centre of a solid organ.

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17
Q

Outline the differences between the terms internal/inner and external/outer.

A

Internal/inner is close to the centre of an organ, body cavity or structure.
External/outer is away from the centre of an organ or structure.

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18
Q

What terms are commonly used in reference to the eye, eyelids, lips, inner ear and pituitary gland in the place of the terms cranial, caudal, dorsal and ventral?

A

Superior - above
Inferior - below
Anterior - part of structure facing forward
Posterior - part of structure facing towards rear or animal.

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19
Q

What does the term palmar refer to?

A

Aspect of the forepaw on which the pads are located and the corresponding surface of the metacarpus and carpus.

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20
Q

Describe the term plantar.

A

Aspect of the hindpaw on which the pads are located and the corresponding surface of the metatarsus and tarsus.

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21
Q

What is the surface opposite to the plantar and palmar surfaces?

A

Dorsal surface.

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22
Q

What does the term axis refer to?

A

The central line of the body or any of its parts.

In terms of the digits, the functional axis passes between the third and fourth digit.

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23
Q

Describe the term axial. Compare this to abaxial.

A

Axial refers to the surface of the digits which faces towards the axis, whereas abaxial refers to the surface facing away from the axis.
In the horse there is no axial surface due to the presence of only one digit.

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24
Q

What is over extension?

A

When a joint is extended beyond 180 degrees.

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25
Q

What is retraction?

A

When the limb is moved back towards the body.

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26
Q

What is protraction?

A

When a limb is moved cranially. The limb is advanced forwards.

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27
Q

Compare abduction and adduction.

A

Abduction is when the limb is moved away from the median plane.
Adduction is when the limb is moved towards the median plane.

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28
Q

Describe circumduction

A

Movement of a part when outlining surface of a cone.

Eg. Arm extended drawing a circle.

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29
Q

Describe rotation.

A

Movement of a part around its long axis either medial or lateral.
Link doesn’t abduct or adduct, just rotates on long axis.

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30
Q

Compare supination and pronation.

A

Supination is the lateral rotation of an appendage so the palmar surface of the paw faces medially.
Pronation is the medial rotation of the appendage from the supine position so that the palmar surface will face the substrate (breaststroke).

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31
Q

Compare supine and prone.

A

Supine is when the animal is lying on its back.

Prone is when the animal is in a position on its ventral surface.

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32
Q

What is the manus and what limb regions does it comprise?

A

Forepaw.
Comprises of claw, phalanges, metacarpals and carpals.
Also includes interdigital space.

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33
Q

What is the bone name and segment of the shoulder?

A

Segment is scapular, bone is scapula.

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34
Q

What is the segment and bone of the arm?

A

Segment is brachium, bone is humerus.

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35
Q

What is the segment and bone of the forearm?

A

Antebrachium is the segment.

Bone is radius and ulna.

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36
Q

What is the anatomical name for the shoulder joint?

A

Humeral articulation.

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37
Q

What is the anatomical name for the elbow joint?

A

Cubical articulation

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38
Q

What are the anatomical names for the components of the wrist joint?

A

Antebrachiocarpal
Intercarpal
Carpometacarpal

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39
Q

Where is the popliteal region?

A

Behind the knee/patella.

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40
Q

What is the pes?

A

Hindpaw.

Comprises claw, phalanges, metatarsals and tarsals.

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41
Q

What is the segment and bone of the thigh?

A

Segment is femoral, bone is femur.

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42
Q

What is the segment and bone of the shank?

A

Segment is crus, bones are tibia and fibula.

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43
Q

What is the anatomical name for the hip joint?

A

Coxal articulation

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44
Q

What is the anatomical name for the stifle/knee joint?

A

Genual articulation

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45
Q

What is the anatomical name and components of the hock joint?

A

Tarsal joint

Tarsocrural, intertarsal, tarsometatarsal

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46
Q

What is the segment of the phalanges?

A

Digits

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47
Q

What are haemopoetic organs?

A

Organs which produce blood cells

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48
Q

What are the main functions of bone?

A

Framework for protection and locomotion
Production of blood cells
Storage of fat and minerals

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49
Q

What process forms the flat bones of the skull?

A

Intramembranous ossification - osteoblasts lay down bone between two layers of fibrous connective tissue.

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50
Q

What process replaces hyaline cartilage within the embryo with bone?

A

Endochondral ossification.

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51
Q

Which process do long bones develop by?

A

Endochondral ossification

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52
Q

Briefly describe the stages of endochondral ossification.

A
  1. Cartilage model develops.
  2. Primary centres of ossification appear in diaphysis or shaft, cartilage begins to be replaced by osteoblasts laying down bone.
  3. Secondary centres of ossification appear in epiphysis or ends of bone.
  4. Osteoclasts begin to remove bone from the centre of the diaphysis to form marrow cavity.
  5. Between diaphysis and epiphysis a narrow band of cartilage persists, this is the growth/epiphyseal plate. This plate closes after the animal finishes growing.
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53
Q

Where would you find the metaphysis?

A

Central to the growth plates at either end of the bone

Distal to the spongy bone.

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54
Q

What is the manubrium?

A

Cranial end of the sternum

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55
Q

What is the caudal end of the sternum called?

A

Xiphoid

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56
Q

Describe long bones.

A

Typically limb bones, shaft containing medullary cavity filled with bone marrow and a diaphysis and epiphysis.

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57
Q

Describe flat bones.

A

Outer layer of compact bone with a layer of cancellous or spongy bone inside.
No medullary cavity.
Eg. Skull, scapula, ribs

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58
Q

Describe short bones.

A

Outer layer of compact bone with core of cancellous bone and no medullary cavity.
Eg. Carpal or tarsal bones.

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59
Q

Describe irregular bones?

A

Similar structure to short bones but less uniform shape.

Lie in the midline and are unpaired.

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60
Q

Sesamoid, pneumatic and splanchnic are all types of what bone?

A

Specialised.
Sesamoid-changes angle at which tendon passes over bone, reduces wear and tear.
Pneumatic-contain air filled spaces in sinus, reduce weight of bone.
Splanchnic-develops in soft organ, unattached from skeleton.

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61
Q

What are protuberances on bone for and what are they called?

A

Attachment of muscle.

Tuberosity, trochanter, tubercle.

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62
Q

What is a trochlear?

A

Bony structure through or over which tendon passes.

Usually grooves.

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63
Q

What is a clondyle and epicondyle?

A

Clondyle is rounded projection on bone usually for articulation.
Epicondyle is projection of bone on lateral edge above clondyle.

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64
Q

What is a foramen?

A

Opening or passage through bone where blood vessels and nerves pass through.

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65
Q

What is a fossa?

A

Hollow or depressed area on bone.

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66
Q

What is synarthroses?

A

Site of junction or union of two or more bones. Some are moveable and others immovable.

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67
Q

Fibrous joints, syndesmoses, sutures and gomphosis are all examples of what?

A

Joints with little or no joint space.

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68
Q

What are some forms of suture joint?

A

Serrate, plane, squamous, foliate.

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69
Q

What is gomphosis?

A

Implantation of teeth in dental alveoli by periodontal membrane.

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70
Q

What is syndesmology?

A

Study of joints

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71
Q

Cartilagenous and synovial are both forms of what?

A

Joints

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72
Q

What are the forms of cartilaginous joints?

A

Hyaline (base of skull and hyoid), fibrocartilaginous (two halves of pelvis), ossified (between radius and ulna).

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73
Q

What are the components of a synovial joint?

A

Ligaments, articulation cartilage, bone, meniscus(not always), joint cavity, joint capsule, synovial membrane, subsynovial tissue, fibrous layer of joint capsule.

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74
Q

What are some normal range of movements within joints?

A

Flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, rotation, gliding.

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75
Q

What are some types of synovial joint?

A

Plane/gliding, hinge, pivot, condylar, ball and socket.

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76
Q

Where are synovial bursae?

A

Located at sites where muscles, tendons, or ligaments pass over tissues or change direction over bony prominences.

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77
Q

Describe a synovial tendon sheath?

A

Double layered elongated tube that encloses a tendon.

Reduce friction during movement and protects tendon against pressure.

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78
Q

How are muscle types classified? Which are the three types?

A

Classified by general microscopic appearance.

Skeletal, smoot, cardiac.

79
Q

Describe the characteristics of skeletal muscle.

A

Striations, voluntary control, multinucleated cells, less than 5cm long, can be attached end to end.

80
Q

From smallest to largest, what makes up a muscle?

A

Myofilaments (myosin, actin), Sarcomere, myofibril, muscle fibre(cell), whole muscle

81
Q

A myofibril is composed of repeating units of sarcomeres. True or false?

A

True

82
Q

Is myosin a thick or thin filament?

A

Thick

83
Q

Actin is a thin filament, true or false?

A

True

84
Q

What causes striation within a muscle fibre?

A

The alignment of fibrils.

85
Q

Describe the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells.

A

Microscopic striations, occurs only in heart, short, mononucleated cells with a central nucleus, often branched, joined by intercalated discs, involuntary contraction.

86
Q

What are the characteristics of smooth muscle cells?

A

No striations, almost entity concerned with visceral functions (digestive tract, blood vessels, lungs), involuntary, contractions typically sustained and slow, mononucleated, short fibres, spindle shaped.

87
Q

Skeletal muscle shortening is a function of what?

A

The length of its components.

88
Q

Power of skeletal muscle is a function of….

A

The cross sectional area of the muscle.

89
Q

What is isometric contraction?

A

Tension generated in a muscle (muscle tone is increased but muscle does not shorten.)

90
Q

What is isotonic contraction?

A

When a muscle actually moves or shortens.

91
Q

What is aponeurosis?

A

An attachment of a flat muscle that is drawn out into a flat sheet.

92
Q

Striations, multinucleated, and voluntary control are all characteristics of what kind of muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle

93
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

Chains of repeating units of sarcomeres.

94
Q

What are sarcomeres composed of?

A

Myofilaments - myosin and actin

95
Q

What causes striations?

A

Alignment of fibrils.

96
Q

Striations, short, mononucleate, often branched, joined by intercalated discs and involuntary control are all characteristics of what kind of muscle type?

A

Cardiac

97
Q

Which muscle type is mostly concerned with visceral functions?

A

Smooth

98
Q

Involuntary, mononucleated, short and spindle shaped are all examples of what muscle type?

A

Smooth

99
Q

Musclular power is a function of what?

A

Cross-sectional area

100
Q

What is isometric contraction?

A

When tension is generated in a muscle. ie. muscle tone is increased by the muscle does not shorten.

101
Q

What is isotonic contraction.

A

When a muscle actually moves or shortens.

102
Q

What is the attachment of a flat muscle that is drawn out into a flat sheet called?

A

Aponeurosis

103
Q

What is an extrinsic muscle?

A

Muscle that runs from one region of the body to another. Origin and insertion are in different parts.

104
Q

What is an intrinsic muscle?

A

Lies completely within one region of the body.

105
Q

Trapezius, pectorals, latissimus dorsi and brachiocephalicus are all examples of intrinsic or extrinsic muscles?

A

Extrinsic. Origin outside the limb, insertion inside.

106
Q

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, triceps brachii, biceps brachii and brachialis all insert on…..and are intrinsic or extrinsic?

A

Insert on the limb.

Intrinsic.

107
Q

What are the extrinsic muscles of the hindlimb?

A

Gluteals, tensor fascia latae.

Originate from pelvis and insert on femur.

108
Q

What are the main muscles of propulsion?

A

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus.

109
Q

Pectineus, sartorius, gracillis and adductor are all……

A

Medial adductors

110
Q

What are the 4 muscles that make up the Quadriceps femoris?

A

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis.

111
Q

Extensors in the hindlimb extend the digits but flex the hock, true or false?

A

True

112
Q

What are the main muscle groups of the vertebral column?

A

Epaxial - lie dorsal to the transverse processes of the vertebrae. Support spine, lateral flexion and extension.
Hypaxial - ventral to transverse processes. Flex neck and tail.

113
Q

What are the structural components of the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart, Arteries, Capillaries, Veins

114
Q

What are the functional components of the cardiovascular system?

A

Pressure reservoir, exchange, volume reservoir and flow control.

115
Q

Where will you find the heart?

A

Left side, above elbow between 3rd and 6th rib

116
Q

Axis of heart is at 45degree angle to axis of animal. True or false?

A

True

117
Q

What is the order of blood flow in the heart?

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium, left ventricle, ascending aorta

118
Q

What are the 4 pericardial layers?

A

Pericardial mediastinal pleura (outside), pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, visceral pericardium (epicardium-innermost layer)

119
Q

Heart muscle cells are called….

A

myocardium

120
Q

What are the layers of the heart?

A

Endocardium - inner layer, has inner and outer subendothelial layers. Epicardium - outer layer, loose connective tissue rich in elastic fibres.

121
Q

What are the three layers of blood vessels?

A

Tunica intima, Tunica media, Tunica adventitia/externa

122
Q

What are the components of the tunica intima?

A

Endothelium (simple squamous epithelium), basal lamina, subendothelial layer (collagen, elastic, fibrocytes, smooth muscle cells), internal elastic membrane (elastin)

123
Q

Compare the Tunica media and tunica adventitia.

A

Media has helically arranged smooth muscle cells with elastic and collagen fibres.
Adventitia has collagen and elastic fibres, smooth muscle may be present.

124
Q

What are the 2 types of arteries?

A

Elastic and muscular.

125
Q

The tunica intima is thicker in elastic arteries. True or false?

A

True

126
Q

The tunica media is the thickest tunic in elastic and muscular arteries. True or false?

A

True

127
Q

True or false. Smooth muscle increases and elastic fibres decrease with distance from heart.

A

True

128
Q

With decreasing size, subendothelial layer becomes thinner in muscular arteries. True or false.

A

True

129
Q

Why is the internal elastic membrane fenestrated in muscular arteries?

A

allows endothelial cells to contact smooth muscle cells.

130
Q

What are the three forms of microvasculature?

A

Arterioles, capillaries, venules

131
Q

What are arterioles?

A

Arteries that are

132
Q

What are the 2 layers of arterioles?

A

tunica media (smooth muscle cells and collagen), and tunica intima (endothelium)

133
Q

What does fenestrated mean?

A

Openings to allow exchange.

Occurs in internal elastic membrane of tunica intima of arterioles.

134
Q

Describe capillaries.

A

Tubules with diameter of 5 to 10um

Walls composed of endothelial cells, basal lamina, pericytes and thin connective tissue layer.

135
Q

What are the four types of capillaries?

A

Continuous-endothelial cells held together by tight junctions.
Fenestrated-portions of cells thinner and possess circular fenestrae covered by diaphragms. GIT and endocrine glands.
Porous-special type of fenestrated capillary, no diaphragms, pores, glomeruli of kidneys.
Sinusoids-located in organs where blood can pool, liver, spleen, lymphoid organs, non-uniform diameter, large intercellular spaces and pores without diaphragms.

136
Q

What are the different forms of venules?

A

Post capillary-diameter of 15-25um, junctions between endothelial cells more permeable and sensitive to chemical messengers.
Pericytes venules-30um, pericytes form continuous layer around tunica intima.
Muscular/Collecting venules-pericytes gradually replaced by smooth muscle cells.

137
Q

Describe some characteristics of veins.

A

Equipped with semilunar valves
Usually paired
Small, medium and large
3 layers-tunica interna (internal elastic membrane), tunica media (smooth muscle with collagen and elastic fibres), tunica externa (collagen fibres, anchorage to surrounding tissue)

138
Q

Describe some characteristics of lymph vessels?

A

Lymph capillaries-found in loose connective tissue, drain external interstitial fluid, blind ended endothelial lined tubes, variable gaps between cells.
Small, medium or large vessels and collecting ducts. Gradually increase in diameter, valves present.

139
Q

Which side of the animal would you expect to find the stomach?

A

Left

140
Q

What is the name of the sac which encases the GIT?

A

Peritoneal sac

141
Q

What are the three components of the small intestine in order from closest to stomach?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ilium

142
Q

What kind of membrane is the peritoneum?

A

Delicate and serous

143
Q

Parietal membrane components are closest to what?

A

Walls of cavity

144
Q

Visceral membrane components are closest to what?

A

Organs

145
Q

What does mesentary mean?

A

Attachment

146
Q

What is the name of the tissue covering the small intestine?

A

Greater omentum

147
Q

What is the capacity of a dogs stomach?

A

0.5-0.6L

148
Q

What are the major divisions of the stomach beginning from the oesophagus end?

A

Cardiac portion, fundus, body, pyloric

149
Q

What is the incisura and where is it located?

A

It is the angular notch and is located on the stomach at the point of greatest curve in the lesser curvature (short side of stomach).

150
Q

Where is the cardiac notch?

A

Between cardia and bulging fundic sections of stomach. Right where oesophagus meets stomach.

151
Q

What is the gastric groove?

A

Shortest route which the ingesta can take passing from the cardiac to the pyloric part of stomach.
Mostly moist material.
Follows lesser curvature shape.

152
Q

Where is the pyloric sphincter?

A

Muscular sphincter at entrance to duodenum.

153
Q

What are the layers of the stomach?

A

Serosal (sometimes called peritoneum), muscular (outer longitudinal), inner circular and oblique layers, sub mucosal and mucosal layers.

154
Q

What are the components of the large intestine?

A

Caecum, colon, rectum

155
Q

What are some characteristics of the duodenum?

A

Fixed, runs caudally(R side) descending, makes U turn then continues as ascending on left side.
Cranial flexure, dorsally and laterally lies in contact with liver and medially pancreas.

156
Q

Describe some characteristics of jejunum.

A

Coiled part of alimentary canal, longest part of SI, ventral part of abdomen, quite moveable, fan shaped mesentary supplies blood via cranial mesenteric artery.

157
Q

Describe the ilium.

A

Short, peritoneal folds, ileocolic and ileocaecal fold, ideal papillae, opens into colon.

158
Q

Where is the caecum located in the dog?

A

Ileocaecal fold.

159
Q

The colon has an ascending, descending and transverse section. True or false.

A

True.

Ascending on right, transverse goes over root of mesentary, descending on left and runs to rectum.

160
Q

How and where is the rectum attached?

A

Attached dorsally to ventral surface of sacrum by the thin mesorectum.

161
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?

A

Liver

162
Q

True or false, the liver plays both exocrine and endocrine functions.

A

True

163
Q

The liver is 3-5% body weight, true or false?

A

True.

164
Q

What are the differences between the dog, pig, horse and cow livers?

A

Horse has no gall bladder, dog has 6 lobes and more symmetrical, pig has 4 lobes and slightly to right, cow has 2 large lobes and majority to right.

165
Q

What are the lobes of the liver?

A

Left hepatic lobe, right hepatic lobe, quadrate lobe, caudate lobe.

166
Q

What other structures are present on a liver diagram?

A

Gall bladder, hepatic veins(3 holes all together), ligaments, caudally vena cava (one large)
Visceral surface-renal fossa

167
Q

What are the three impressions present on the liver?

A

Gastric, renal, duodenal

168
Q

What is the porta of the liver?

A

Hilus of organ, located dorsal third of visceral surface, ducts/vessels and nerves enter and leave here

169
Q

Describe some characteristics of the pancreas.

A

Closely related to duodenum, both exocrine and endocrine functions, two lobed in canine (right and left)

170
Q

What are the functions of the upper airway?

A

Modify or regulate flow of air
Serve as olfactory receptors
Facilitate water and heat exchange
Make phonation possible

171
Q

What are the components of the upper airway? And their functions.

A

Nasal cavity and conchae-warm and moisten air, remove foreign material.
Pharynx-passage for both respiratory and digestive systems.
Larynx-guards entrance to trachea, function in vocalisation, regulates inspiration and expiration.

172
Q

What are the components of the external nose?

A

Fixed bony case made from incisive bone, maxillae, paired nasal bone (roof).
Moveable cartilages-nasal septum, dorsolateral cartilage, ventrolateral cartilage, accessory cartilage (nares).

173
Q

What divides the right and left nasal cavities?

A

Nasal septum.
Bone, cartilage and membranous components.
Bone closer to head, cartilages closer to nose.

174
Q

Describe the components of nasal conchae.

A

Cartilagenous or slightly ossified scrolls.
Dorsal (runs from nose to cranium, longest), ventral (at the front, closest to teeth), Ethmoidal (three compartments, one below dorsal, other two above.).

175
Q

What allows egress of olfactory nerves?

A

Cribriform plate

176
Q

What is the purpose of nasal conchae?

A

Slows air down and modifies it.

177
Q

What are the 5 nasal meatuses?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral, common, nasopharyngeal.

178
Q

What is the difference between the pharynx and larynx?

A

Pharynx is closest to external environment-nasopharynx and oropharynx, these cross over and become the larynx and laryngo-pharynx. The larynx becomes the trachea, the laryngo-pharynx becomes oesophagus. (Oesophagus is anatomically above trachea).

179
Q

What are the components of the thoracic wall?

A

Ribs, vertebrae, sternebrae, muscles (costal, diaphragm), pleura.

180
Q

How many pairs of ribs does a dog have? Are their and free ribs and what is their technical name?

A

13 pairs, first 9 articulate with sternum, remaining 4 are asternal (free).

181
Q

What is the purpose of rib articulations?

A

Allow movement for respiration.

182
Q

What are the articulations between the rib and vertebrae called?

A

Costovertebral joint-head ball and socket with limited movement. Highest and deepest part of rib, in straight line with rest of rib.
Costotransverse joint-tubercle, sliding. Bony projection at right angle to rest of rib.

183
Q

What are the articulations between the ribs and sternum?

A

Costosternal joints-synovial, pivot, between bone and cartilage section along rib.
Interchondral joints of asternal ribs-elastic syndesmoses, where asternal ribs meet on ventral side.
Intersternal joints-synchondroses, where ribs meet actual sternum.

184
Q

What are the functions of the muscles involved with the ribs?

A

Primary concern is respiration, mostly inspiratory (enlarge thoracic cavity), include muscles located between ribs, lateral to ribs and diaphragm.
Generally 3 layers of abdominal muscles.

185
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

Musculotendinous division between thoracic and abdominal cavities.
Dome shaped, convex cranially.

186
Q

What are the openings that are present in the diaphragm?

A

Aortic hiatus-lower opening, aorta, azygous, thoracic duct, lumbar vertebrae and crural tendons.
Oesophageal hiatus-central opening, oesophagus, dorsal and ventral vagus.
Caval foramen-top opening, central tendon, caudal vena cava, fascia fuses with adventia therefore fixed.

187
Q

Approx what percent of breathing occurs due to diaphragm movements?

A

70%

188
Q

How does the process of breathing occur?

A

Diaphragm contracts, compressing abdominal contents, last ribs pull inward, others pull forward and out, cavity is widened and shortened. In some cases sternum also moves ventrally.
Expiration is passive-elastic recoil of lungs, some muscle contractions.

189
Q

What occurs when the diaphragm looses function?

A

Breathing can still continue.
Can be due to herniation.
Phrenic nerve breathing continues when blocked.

190
Q

What is the phrenic nerve?

A

Main nerve to diaphragm.

191
Q

What are the different forms of pleura?

A

Parietal-costal, diaphragmatic, mediastinal.(layer surrounding actual lungs)
Visceral (pulmonary)(lateral to both lungs, in the middle)
Mediastinum
Pleural cupulae (most cranial end of lungs)
Costodiaphragmatic recess(on L side, most dorsal)

192
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the lung? And their fissures?

A

Cranial-cranial interlobar fissure
Middle
Caudal-caudal interlobar fissure between this and middle lobe.
Accessory.

193
Q

Is the left lung as large as the right lung?

A

No, heart takes up more space on left side.

On left side can only see cranial and caudal lobes.

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