ANATOMY Flashcards
The area at the base of the neck between the front legs that covers the cranial end of the sternum is called the:
Brisket
The knee of hoofed animals is called the:
Carpus
Gross anatomy is also known as:
Macroscopic (seen without a microscope) Anatomy
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the:
Transverse plane
The reference plane that runs down the center of the body lengthwise and divides it into equal left and right halves is the:
Median plane
The directional term that means “toward the head” but not on the head is:
Cranial
An animal’s ears are located _____ to its eyes.
Caudal
A dog is standing on the exam table with its front legs up on the chest of its owner. Which surface of the dog is touching the examination table?
Plantar
The outer surface of a cow’s leg that is facing away from its body is the ______ surface.
Lateral
The shoulder of a camel is ______ to its carpus.
Proximal
Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?
Proximal
The proximal-distal dividing line on the rear leg is the:
Tarsus
If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog’s leg, where would you look?
The back surface of the front leg below the carpus.
If you were told to look for a tumor on the dorsal surface of a pig’s hind leg, where would you look?
The front surface below the tarsus.
All the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane called the:
Pleura
How many basic tissue types are found in an animal’s body?
4 (M. E. N. C.)
- Muscle
- Epithelial
- Nervous
- Connective
The type of tissue that forms sweat gland is ________ tissue.
Epithelial
Bone is considered what type of tissue?
Connective tissue
An example of a group of tissues working together for a common purpose is:
Brain
The process by which physiologic processes collectively and actively maintain balance in the structures, functions, and properties of the body is known as:
Homeostasis
D
On a sheep the area on the top of the head between the bases of the ears is known as the:
Poll
The type of tissue that coordinates and controls activities in and around the animal’s body is:
Nervous tissue
The body cavity that contains the heart is the:
Cranial thoracic cavity
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the:
Diaphragm
The majority of cells found in the skin are:
Keratinocytes
The pigment found in skin is produced by:
Melanocytes
The cells thought to aid in the sense of touch are:
Merkel Cells
The macrophages of the epidermis are the:
Langerhans Cells
One of the most common skin tumors in dogs over the age of 5 is:
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
The nose of a white cat is especially susceptible to:
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
The old gray mare is especially susceptible to:
Malignant Melanoma
One of the most common benign tumors of cats is:
Basal Cell Tumor
The most common site for malignant melanoma in dogs and cats is the:
Oral Cavity
Which layer of epidermis is most actively involved in replacing exfoliated skin cells?
Basal Layer
The thickest layer of the epidermis is the:
Horny Layer
Tylotrich hairs are important in the perception of:
Touch
Meissner’s corpuscle is important in the perception of:
Touch
Pacinian corpuscles are important in the perception of:
Touch
Which layer of skin allows it to move freely over underlying bone and muscle without tearing?
Hypodermis
On a footpad, which layer of skin is the thickest?
Stratum Corneum
In which species of animal would you find a planum nasolabiale?
Equine
Which dark, horny structures are found buried in the long, caudal hairs of equine fetlocks?
Ergots
Infraorbital, interdigital, and inguinal pouches are found in what species of animal?
Ovine
The part of a hair that is buried within the skin is the:
Root
The invagination of epidermis in which a hair is anchored is the:
Follicle
How many hairs are found in an average hair follicle?
1
In a compound follicle a primary hair is also known as a ______ hair.
Guard
Whiskers are also known as ______ hairs.
Tactile
The outermost layer of a hair is the:
Cuticle
As an animal ages and its hair turns white, the medulla becomes filled with:
Air
The implantation angle of a hair is increased when the:
Arrector pili muscle contracts.
The white, semiliquid mixture released by sebaceous glands is called:
Sebum
Another name for a blackhead is:
Comedone
Which species of animal produces enough sweat to turn into a white froth?
Equine
In which species of animal does sebum eventually become lanolin?
Ovine
A sudoriferous gland is also known as a/an:
Sweat gland
Which animals have tail glands that help them identify individual animals?
Dogs and cats
The tail gland is located on the _______ surface of the tail.
Dorsal
Where would you look for anal sacs in a cat?
At 5 and 7 o’clock positions around the anus.
What animal can retract its claws?
Cat
Another name for a hoofed animal is an:
Ungulate
The sensitive tissue of both claws and hooves is the:
Corium
Hooves grow from the:
Coronary band
The lateral aspects of an equine hoof wall are called:
Quarters
The junction of the sole and hoof wall in an equine hoof is called the:
White line
Horns emerge from the horn processes of the ____ bones.
Frontal
Horns are bound to the horn process by:
Periosteum
Horns are composed of:
Keratin
Antlers are composed of:
Bone
The “white” of the eye is the:
Sclera
All the light that enters the eye enters through the:
Cornea
An animal’s eyes “glow” in the dark when a light is shined on them because of the:
Tapetum
The species that doesn’t have eyes that “glow” in the dark when a light is shined on them is:
Porcine
The colored part of the eye is the:
Iris
The “diaphragm” of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye is the:
Iris
The opening at the center of the “diaphragm” of the eye is the:
Pupil
Near and far vision are accommodated through the muscles of the:
Ciliary body
The sensory receptors for vision are located in the:
Retina
The vitreous compartment of the eyeball is located:
Behind the and ciliary body
The anterior chamber of the eyeball is located:
In front of the iris in the aqueous compartment
Where is aqueous humor produced?
Posterior chamber of the eyeball
The most common cause of glaucoma is:
Insufficient drainage of aqueous humor
The _____ helps focus a clear image on the retina by changing its shape.
Lens
The dividing structure that separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber is the:
Iris
The dividing structure that separates the aqueous chamber from the vitreous chamber is the:
Lens
An animal has an area of inflammation located at the lateral limbus of the left eye. Where is the inflammation located?
Left side of the left eyeball where the sclera meets the cornea.
The process of changing the shape of the lens to allow close-up and distant vision is called:
Accommodation
When a/an ______ develops the lens becomes opaque.
Cataract
The blind spot if the eye is the:
Optic disc
Which photoreceptors are the most sensitive to light?
Rods
Which part of the eyeball refracts light rays entering the eye the most?
Lens
Where is the nictitating membrane located?
Medially between the eyeball and the eyelid
Where the upper and lower eyelids meet near the bridge of an animal’s nose is the:
Medial canthus
Tears are produced by the:
Lacrimal gland
The third eyelid is composed of:
Cartilage and conjuctiva
Excess tears are initially drained from the surface of the eyes by the:
Lacrimal puncta
The thin, transparent membrane that lines the eyelids is the:
Palpebral conjunctiva
The six extraocular muscles that attach to the sclera are:
Skeletal muscles
The heart is located in the thoracic cavity in the space between the two lungs. This space is called the:
Mediastinum
When looking at a standing animal from the side, you would locate the heart:
Between its right and left olecranon processes
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the:
Pericardium
The outermost layer of the heart itself is the:
Epicardium
The membrane that lines the chambers of the heart is the:
Endocardium
The type of blood vessel that usually carries oxygenated blood away from the heart is a/an:
Artery
The atria of the heart sit at the _____ of the heart.
Base
The interatrial septum is a continuation of the:
Myocardium
The interventricular septum is a continuation of the:
Interatrial septum
The right atrium pumps blood into the:
Right ventricle
The apex if the heart is made up of the:
Wall of the left ventricle
Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the:
Mitral valve
Chordae tendineae are found in the:
Ventricles
Another name for the right semilunar valve is the:
Pulmonary valve
Cardiac muscle can generate its own contractions and relaxations and is therefore called:
autorhythmic muscle
Deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation enters the heart at the:
Right atrium
The large blood vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation is the:
Vena cava
Which chamber of the heart sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation when it contracts?
Right ventricle
The pulmonary circulation begins when deoxygenated blood passes through the _____ into the pulmonary circulation.
Right semilunar valve
The impulse to begin each heartbeat of the heart comes from the:
Sinoatrial node
The two ions that are responsible for the initial depolarization of cardiac muscle as they travel from the outside of a muscle cell to the inside of the cell are:
Sodium and calcium ions
The impulse created by the natural pacemaker of the heart travels:
Across both atria at the base of the heart to the atrioventricular septum, through the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, and back to the base of the heart.
The structures that make up the primary cardiac conduction, in the order that the impulse travels through them, are the:
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fiber system
Contraction of a heart chamber is called:
Systole
Which valves produce the second heart sound when they snap shut?
Pulmonary valve and aortic valve
Tricuspid valve stenosis results when the tricuspid valve:
Doesn’t open completely during atrial systole
Cardiac output is determined by:
Stroke volume and heart rate.
The _______ represents the strength of a heartbeat
Stroke volume
The inner layer of a blood vessel is the:
Endothelium
The largest elastic artery in an animal’s body is the:
Aorta
What type of muscle is found in the middle layer if a muscular artery’s wall?
Involuntary, nonstriated muscle
Arterioles are:
Small muscular arteries
The majority of exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissue takes place at the _____ level.
Capillary blood
The largest vein in an animal’s body is the:
Vena cava
Which type of blood vessel has one-way valves in its lumen?
Veins
Oxygenated blood is carried from the mother to a fetus through the:
Umbilical vein
The ductus arteriosus in a fetus allows blood to flow:
Directly into the aorta from the pulmonary artery
Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a cat?
Femoral artery
Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a horse?
Mandibular artery
Systolic blood pressure measures:
The force by which blood is ejected from the left ventricle during systole.
On an ECG reading of one cardiac cycle, the contraction of the main mass of the ventricles is represented by the:
R wave
Which vein can be used for venipuncture in nearly all species of animals?
Jugular vein
Phonation in an animal begins in the:
Larynx
The acceptable range of pH in most animals is:
7.35-7.45
The upper respiratory tract includes all the structures:
Outside the lungs
The nasal septum separates:
The left nasal passage from the right nasal passage
A nasal meatus is created by the:
Turbinates
The three main condition functions of the nasal passages are:
Warming, humidifying, and filtering air
Sinuses are outpouchings of the:
Nasal passages
The nasopharynx sits _____ to the oropharynx in a standing animal.
Dorsal
The opening to the larynx is called the:
Glottis
The boundaries of the glottis are formed by the:
Arytenoid cartilages and the vocal cords
The vocal cords are composed of:
Fibrous connective tissue
The tracheal rings are composed of:
Hyaline cartilage
The space between each tracheal ring is composed of:
Smooth muscle
The ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea has a layer of ______ on top of it to trap foreign debris.
Mucus
Tracheal collapse is often seen:
With inspiratory dyspnea
The trachea splits into two bronchi at the:
Bifurcation
Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction are controlled by:
The autonomic nervous system acting on smooth muscle
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across:
Two layer of simple squamous epithelium
Which species is prone to asthma attacks?
Feline
Which thoracic structure would you find outside the mediastinum?
Lungs
How are the lungs of a pig divided?
Three left lobes, four right lobes
The hilus is found:
On the medial surface of each lung
The blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs from the heart is the:
Pulmonary artery
Blood entering the lungs from the heart is dark red because of:
The high carbon dioxide content
In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with:
The convex surface facing in a cranial direction
The main expiratory muscles are the:
Internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles
When the external intercostal muscles contract, they rotate the ribs:
Upward and forward
If an animal breathes in 500 milliliters with each resting breath and takes 15 breaths per minutes how many liters has the animal inspired and expired in 1 minute?
7.5
The flow of oxygen from inspired air into an alveolar capillary is dependent on the:
PO2 in the alveoli being higher than the PO2 in the capillary.
The unconscious act of breathing is controlled by the respiratory center in the:
Brainstem
If the CO2 level in blood rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate?
Increase rate and depth of respiration
Antitussives are best used to treat a:
Nonproductive cough
Low blood levels of oxygen can bring on:
Sighs
An example of a hindgut fermenter is a:
Horse
An example of an omnivore is a:
Pig
In herbivores the process of converting plant material into usable nutrients is accomplished through:
Rumination
The serosa is the:
Outer layer of the wall of the GI tract
What effect does sympathetic nerve stimulation have on digestion?
Inhibits digestion
The function of the myenteric plexus is:
To control movement of food through the GI tract
Gastrin and cholecystokinin are:
Hormones
Another name for the buccal cavity is the:
Oral cavity
The vestibule is:
The space between the outer surface of the teeth and the surrounding lips and cheeks.
Another name for chewing is:
Mastication
Which part of the tooth extends above the gum line?
Crown
The part of the tooth where nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth is the:
Apex
The surface of the tooth that faces the animal’s lips is the _______ surface.
Labial
The surfaces of the teeth that come together when an animal closes its mouth are the ______ surfaces.
Occlusal
What type of tooth grows continually throughout the life of an animal?
Aradicular Hypsodont teeth
Which teeth are normally missing in ruminants?
Upper front incisors
How many canine teeth does a ewe have?
0
The cheek teeth are the:
Premolars and molars
The largest cutting teeth in the jaw of a carnivore are known as the _______ teeth.
Carnassial
In the Triadan System for documenting teeth, the left mandibular arch contains teeth in the _____ series.
300
The body of the tongue is made up of mostly:
Muscle tissue
Which one of the following animals has a dental pad?
A. Cat
B. Cow
C. Dog
D. Horse
B. Cow
Which salivary gland, located ventral to the ear, produces nearly half of the total volume of saliva produced?
Parotid
The two bones that are connected with the TMJ are the:
Mandible and temporal bones
When the lower jaw moves laterally and rostrally the movement is called:
Translation
The cartilage that makes up part of the laryngeal cartilage and prevents food from being aspired into the trachea is the ______ cartilage.
Epiglottic
The position of the esophagus in relation to the trachea as it travels down the neck is:
Dorsal to the trachea
The cardiac sphincter is located:
At the caudal end of the esophagus
When swallowing which stage(s) in/are voluntary and which stage(s) is/are involuntary?
Stage one in voluntary, stages two and three are involuntary
The pattern of muscle contraction that moves though the GI tract is called:
Peristalsis
The stomach is connected to the abdominal wall by the:
Omentum
The intestines are suspended from the abdominal wall by the:
Mesentery
Food in a semiliquid state that leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum is called:
Chyme
The part of the stomach that allows the stomach to expand to store food after a large meal is the:
Fundus
Which type of glandular cells in the stomach secrete hydrogen and chloride that for hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells
Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that begins the chemical digestion of:
Proteins
The terminal part of the stomach that opens into the duodenum is the:
Pylorus
The mixing chamber of the stomach is the:
Corpus
Muscle contractions in the stomach and intestines of a monogastric animal are regulated by:
Specialized smooth muscle cells
Which animal has the least ability to vomit?
Horse
Peptides are made up of:
Amino acids
The “true” glandular stomach of a ruminant is the:
Abomasum
The largest fermentation chamber of the ruminant stomach is the:
Reticulorumen
If you wanted to listen to the activity in the rumen of a cow, where would be the best area to place your stethoscope?
Left lateral abdominal region
Which chamber of the ruminant stomach has mucosa that resembles a honeycomb?
Reticulum
The esophageal groove connects the:
Esophagus to the omasum
Another name for “chewing the cud” is:
Rumination
Which two gases are produced during the fermentation process in the ruminant stomach?
Carbon dioxide and methane
Acute ruminal tympany is also known as:
Bloat
In ruminants amino acids are absorbed from the intestinal mucosa and transported to the ______ by the bloodstream.
Liver
Where will gluconeogenesis most likely take place in a ruminant?
Liver
Acetate, propionate, and butyrate are examples of:
Volatile fatty acids (VFAs)
What is the correct order of the parts of the small intestine, starting with the first part?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Peyer’s patches are made up of:
Lumphoid tissue
Pilcae are:
Mucosal folds in the small intestine
The brush border of the small intestines is made up of:
Microvilli
Where does the pancreatic duct enter the GI tract?
Duodenum
Insulin is a hormone secreted by the:
Endocrine pancreas
The liver is located just caudal to the:
Diaphragm
Which species does not have a gall bladder?
Equine
Which substance gives urine its characteristic color?
Urobilin
Where is albumin produced?
Liver
Ketosis, or metabolic acidosis, is a result of excess conversion of _______ to ketones.
Fatty acids
Which motility movement in the small intestine mixes the partially digested food but doesn’t move it toward the large intestine?
Segmentation
Which species of animal uses the cecum as a fermentation chamber?
Equine
In which part of the large intestine does most water absorption take place?
Colon
Which two of the methods for collecting a urine sample are considered sterile techniques?
Catheterization, cystocentesis
Most of the nitrogenous waste in the body is a result of:
Protein metabolism
Urea is a:
Nitrogenous waste
Which species of animal normally has cloudy urine when it is passed?
Equine
The specific gravity of a urine sample is a reflection of its
Concentration
What is the correct order of organs of the urinary system from cranial to caudal?
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
The term for a condition where very little urine is being passed is:
Oliguria
Which two hormones play a major role in the control of the amount of water contained in urine?
ADH and aldoesterone
Which two ions can the kidney preserve or excrete to regulate the blood pH?
Hydrogen and bicarbonate
Which hormone is produced and secreted by the kidney when an animal’s blood pressure is too low?
Renin
Because the kidneys sit between and peritoneum and the dorsal abdominal muscles, they are considered:
Retroperitoneal
Except in the pig, the right kidney sits _____ to the left kidney.
Cranial
Which species of animal has a lobulated kidney when viewed grossly?
Bovine
In which animal is the right kidney more heart shaped than bean shaped?
Horse
The outmost layer of the kidney is the:
Cortex
Where do blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter and leave the kidney?
Hilus
The collection chamber for urine in the kidney is the:
Pelvis
The basic functional unit of a kidney is the:
Nephron
A renal corpuscle is located in the renal:
Cortex
The ______ is a tuft of capillaries that filters blood in the first stage of urine production.
Glomerulus
The fluid that is filtered through the tuft of capillaries in the first stage of urine production is called:
Glomerular filtrate
The medulla of the kidney is made up of mostly:
Loops of Henle
Glomerular capillaries are a continuation of the:
Afferent arteroiles
Which blood vessels have oxygenated blood entering and leaving them?
Glomerular capillaries
Oxygen transfer to the cells of a nephron take place in the:
Peritubular capillaries
The renal artery is a branch of the:
Aorta
In what part of the kidney is a majority of the DCT found?
Cortex
In what part of the kidney are the majority of renal corpuscles found?
Cortex
The high blood pressure on glomerular capillaries forces some ______ to leave the blood.
Plasma
Glomerular filtrate contains almost no _____ when compared to plasma.
Proteins
The presence of abnormal amounts of protein in urine can be used as an indicator of ________ damage.
Glomerular
The overall process of conserving molecules by taking them back into the body is called:
Reabsorption
The GFR is expressed as:
Milliliters per minute
Sodium cotransport allows _____ to attach to the carrier protein that sodium is using to passively enter an epithelial cell.
Glucose and amino acids
The majority of tubular reabsorption takes place in the:
PCT
What two substances are normally 100% reabsorbed in the PCT?
Glucose and amino acids
The BUN is a measure of:
Blood Urea Nitrogen
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus is often manifested clinically by:
Glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia
What three substances are eliminated from the body through tubular secretion?
Ammonia, hydrogen, potassium
A kidney can slowly lose nearly _____ of its functional ability to make urine before clinical signs of renal failure appear.
0.67
What organ produces and secretes aldosterone?
Adrenal cortex
Where does ADH exert its control over water reabsorption?
DCT and collecting ducts
Diabetes insipidus can result from an inadequate release of:
ADH
Aldosterone:
Increases reabsorption of sodium from the DCT and collecting ducts
What makes equine urine normally cloudy?
Mucus
The type of epithelium found in the urethra, ureters, and urinary bladder that allows them to stretch is:
Transitional
What type of muscle is found in the ureters?
Smooth
Urine is moved from the kidneys to the urinary bladder:
Continuously
The neck of the urinary bladder is _____ to the body of the urinary bladder.
Caudal
The detrusor muscle is found in the wall of the:
Urinary bladder
The sphincters that control urination are found in the:
Neck of the urinary bladder
The sphincters that control urination are under ______ control.
Voluntary muscle
Which animal rarely develops uroliths?
Horse
Which animal has uroliths that resemble sand rather than large stones?
Cat
Struvite crystals will precipitate out in urine with a pH of:
6
The full diploid chromosome makeup of a male animal is:
2n, XY
The diploid chromosome number is always:
An even number
Meiosis occurs:
Only in reproductive cells
The male gonads are the:
Testes
Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes?
Acrosome
Which part of the spermatozoa contains the most mitochondria?
Midpiece
The tail of the spermatozoa is used for:
Propulsion
The scrotum is a:
Sac of skin
In order to fully descend, the testes must pass through the:
Inguinal ring
What structure adjusts the position of the testes relative to the body according to the environmental temperature?
Cremaster muscle
The structure that connects the testes to the rest of the body is the:
Spermatic cord
What do the primary endocrine cells of the testes produce?
Androgens
Which hormone stimulates the primary endocrine cells of the testes?
LH
Cryptorchidism refers to a condition of one or more:
Undescended testes
The maturation and storage site for the immature spermatozoa is the:
Epididymis
A Sertoli cell tumor can produce high blood levels of:
Estrogen
One of the typical clinical signs of a Sertoli cell tumor may be:
Gynecomastia
What two structures does the vas deferens connect?
Urethra and epididymis
Which animals don’t have seminal vesicles?
Dogs and cats
The only accessory reproductive gland in canines is the:
Prostate gland
Which accessory reproductive gland secretes a mucinous fluid that lubricates the urethra for passage of semen?
Bulbourethral gland
Cowper’s glands are another name for the:
Bulbourethral gland
The majority of the volume of semen is composed of:
Alkaline secretions from accessory reproductive glands
Erectile tissue is composed of:
Fibrous connective tissue and sinuses
Which species of animal has short spines covering the glans of the penis?
Feline
Which species of animal has an os penis?
Canine
The species of animals that “tie” after the male has ejaculated is the:
Canine
The best way to “untie” a male and female after the male has ejaculated is to:
Do nothing until it happens naturally
The female reproductive organs are suspended from the dorsal part of the abdominal wall by the:
Broad ligaments
The female gonads are the:
Ovaries
The female gametes are:
Ova
On average, how often are oocytes replaced in the ovaries?
Never
Which two hormones are produced in the ovary?
Estrogen and progestins
Which hormone produced by the ovary prepares the uterus for implantation and pregnancy?
Progesterone
Which hormone produced by the ovary is responsible for preparing a female for breeding and pregnancy?
Estrogen
A Uniparous animal:
Gives birth to one offspring per pregnancy
Ovulation occurs spontaneously in which species?
Dogs and horses
The rising level of which hormone induces spontaneous ovulation?
LH
Which species is an induced ovulator?
Feline
The first stage a follicle goes through after ovulation is the:
Corpus Hemorrhagicum
When a mature reproductive gamete is ovulated, it is surrounded by a layer of cells called the:
Corona radiata
The corpus luteum produces which hormone that is necessary for pregnancy to be maintained if fertilization takes place?
Progesterone
The usual site for fertilization of a mature female gamete by a mature male gamete is in the:
Oviduct
The finger-like projections that make sure the mature female gamete gets caught when it is ovulated are the:
Fimbriae
If fertilization is going to happen, where must the spermatozoa be when ovulation takes place?
Oviduct
The thickest layer of the uterus is made up of:
Smooth muscle
The cervix is located between the:
Uterine body and the vagina
The only portion of the female reproductive system that is visible from the outside is the:
Vulva
What female part is equivalent to the male penis?
Clitoris
The timing for breeding is controlled by the:
Estrous cycle
Which two hormones are directly responsible for the physical and behavioral changes that are associated with a female in heat?
Estrogen and progestins
Which animal is a polyestrous animal?
Bovine cow
Which animal is seasonally polyestrous?
Feline queen
Which animal is diestrous?
Canine bitch
During which stage of the estrous cycle do estrogen levels reach their peak?
Estrus
During which stage of the estrous cycle can dogs develop a pseudopregnancy?
Diestrus
If no pregnancy begins during an estrous cycle, when does the corpus luteum degenerate?
Late diestrus
In the dog, the cytology of the epithelial lining of the ______ can be utilized to determine the most effective time to breed a bitch.
Vagina
Sexual stimuli in the male results from high levels of ____ in the female.
Estrogen
Which two species deposit semen directly into the uterus during ejaculation?
Equine and porcine
In species that don’t deposit semen directly into uterus, where does ejaculation deposit it?
Upper portion of the vagina
Copulation results in the release of _____, a hormone, from the posterior pituitary gland.
Oxytocin
Spermatozoa are transported to the oviducts in just minutes due primarily to:
Uterine contractions
Capacitation is the term for:
The changes spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract.
The acrosome of the spermatozoa is found:
Covering the head of the spermatozoa
The acrosome of the spermatozoa contains:
Digestive enzymes
What is the maximum number of spermatozoa that can enter an ovum to fertilize the ovum?
1
In addition to the corona radiata, a spermatozoa must also pass through the _____. a thick gel that surrounds the ovum, to fertilize the ovum.
Zona pellucida
As soon as an ovum is fertilized it is called a:
Zygote
A pronulceus has a:
Haploid chromosome number
The rapid mitosis that occurs while the fertilized ovum is moving toward the uterus is:
Cleavage
What stage of zygote development implants in the uterus?
Blastocyst
Implantation occurs in the ____ of the uterus.
Endometrium
The multilayered, fluid-filled, membranous sac that develops around an embryo is the:
Placenta
The umbilical cord connects the:
Fetus to the placenta
The blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus is the:
Umbilical vein
The urachus carries fluid from the fetal urinary bladder to the:
Allantoic sac
How many placental sacs surround a fetus during its development?
2
The part of the placenta that attaches to the uterus is the:
Chorion
Which membrane of the placenta forms a sac immediately around the fetus?
Amnion
Which type of placental attachment is characterized by attachment sites called placentomes?
Cotyledonary
A placentome consists of an area on the surface of the placenta called the:
Cotyledon
A placentome consists of an area on the lining of the uterus called the:
Caruncle
Which type of placental attachment is seen in dogs and cats?
Zonary
Which type of placental attachment is seen in pigs and horses?
Diffuse
Which type of placental attachment is most likely to give rise to a retained placenta?
Cotyledonary
Which type of placental attachment is seen in cattle and sheep?
Cotyledonary
When does an embryo become a fetus?
During the second trimester of pregnancy
When during pregnancy do body tissues, organs, and systems develop?
During the second trimester of pregnancy
The period of pregnancy for dogs and cats is approximately:
2 months
Humans and _____ have approximately the same period of pregnancy, 9 months.
Cattle
What three compounds must interact to begin uterine contractions?
Estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandin F2-alpha
During what stage of labor does the cervix relax?
First stage
During what stage of labor do the placental sacs rupture?
Second stage
Which stage of labor is characterized by strong uterine and abdominal muscle contractions?
Second stage
During what stage of labor is the placenta delivered?
Third stage
During what stage of labor is the fetus delivered?
Second stage
Another name for a difficult birth is:
Dystocia
An embryotomy is performed on a/an:
Dead fetus
The return of the uterus to its nonpregnant size after giving birth is called _____ of the uterus.
Involution
Which species of animal has mammary glands only in the inguinal region?
Equine
How many quarters of a bovine udder share one milk-secreting system?
None
Where does milk accumulate when milk letdown has occurred?
Gland sinus and teat sinus
The milk-secreting units of the mammary gland are the:
Alveoli
The streak canal connects the _____ to the outside.
Teat sinus
Most of the hormones from the _____ are involved in some way with mammary gland growth and development.
Anterior pituitary gland
Lactation is started under the influence of:
Prolactin, growth hormone, and adrenal cortex hormones.
Lactation begins:
Toward the end of the third trimester of pregnancy.
The difference between milk and colostrum is that colostrum has:
A higher level of antibodies
In order for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to offspring, the newborn must have colostrum within:
A few hours after birth
How long does the passive immunity a newborn receives from its mother last?
Unknown
There is often a normal short delay between when a newborn starts nursing and when milk starts freely flowing from the teat because of delay in the action of:
Oxytocin
