ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

The area at the base of the neck between the front legs that covers the cranial end of the sternum is called the:

A

Brisket

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2
Q

The knee of hoofed animals is called the:

A

Carpus

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3
Q

Gross anatomy is also known as:

A

Macroscopic (seen without a microscope) Anatomy

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4
Q

The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the:

A

Transverse plane

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5
Q

The reference plane that runs down the center of the body lengthwise and divides it into equal left and right halves is the:

A

Median plane

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6
Q

The directional term that means “toward the head” but not on the head is:

A

Cranial

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7
Q

An animal’s ears are located _____ to its eyes.

A

Caudal

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8
Q

A dog is standing on the exam table with its front legs up on the chest of its owner. Which surface of the dog is touching the examination table?

A

Plantar

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9
Q

The outer surface of a cow’s leg that is facing away from its body is the ______ surface.

A

Lateral

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10
Q

The shoulder of a camel is ______ to its carpus.

A

Proximal

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11
Q

Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?

A

Proximal

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12
Q

The proximal-distal dividing line on the rear leg is the:

A

Tarsus

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13
Q

If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog’s leg, where would you look?

A

The back surface of the front leg below the carpus.

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14
Q

If you were told to look for a tumor on the dorsal surface of a pig’s hind leg, where would you look?

A

The front surface below the tarsus.

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15
Q

All the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane called the:

A

Pleura

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16
Q

How many basic tissue types are found in an animal’s body?

A

4 (M. E. N. C.)

  • Muscle
  • Epithelial
  • Nervous
  • Connective
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17
Q

The type of tissue that forms sweat gland is ________ tissue.

A

Epithelial

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18
Q

Bone is considered what type of tissue?

A

Connective tissue

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19
Q

An example of a group of tissues working together for a common purpose is:

A

Brain

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20
Q

The process by which physiologic processes collectively and actively maintain balance in the structures, functions, and properties of the body is known as:

A

Homeostasis

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21
Q

D

A
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22
Q

On a sheep the area on the top of the head between the bases of the ears is known as the:

A

Poll

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23
Q

The type of tissue that coordinates and controls activities in and around the animal’s body is:

A

Nervous tissue

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24
Q

The body cavity that contains the heart is the:

A

Cranial thoracic cavity

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25
Q

The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the:

A

Diaphragm

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26
Q

The majority of cells found in the skin are:

A

Keratinocytes

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27
Q

The pigment found in skin is produced by:

A

Melanocytes

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28
Q

The cells thought to aid in the sense of touch are:

A

Merkel Cells

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29
Q

The macrophages of the epidermis are the:

A

Langerhans Cells

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30
Q

One of the most common skin tumors in dogs over the age of 5 is:

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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31
Q

The nose of a white cat is especially susceptible to:

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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32
Q

The old gray mare is especially susceptible to:

A

Malignant Melanoma

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33
Q

One of the most common benign tumors of cats is:

A

Basal Cell Tumor

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34
Q

The most common site for malignant melanoma in dogs and cats is the:

A

Oral Cavity

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35
Q

Which layer of epidermis is most actively involved in replacing exfoliated skin cells?

A

Basal Layer

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36
Q

The thickest layer of the epidermis is the:

A

Horny Layer

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37
Q

Tylotrich hairs are important in the perception of:

A

Touch

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38
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle is important in the perception of:

A

Touch

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39
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are important in the perception of:

A

Touch

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40
Q

Which layer of skin allows it to move freely over underlying bone and muscle without tearing?

A

Hypodermis

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41
Q

On a footpad, which layer of skin is the thickest?

A

Stratum Corneum

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42
Q

In which species of animal would you find a planum nasolabiale?

A

Equine

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43
Q

Which dark, horny structures are found buried in the long, caudal hairs of equine fetlocks?

A

Ergots

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44
Q

Infraorbital, interdigital, and inguinal pouches are found in what species of animal?

A

Ovine

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45
Q

The part of a hair that is buried within the skin is the:

A

Root

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46
Q

The invagination of epidermis in which a hair is anchored is the:

A

Follicle

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47
Q

How many hairs are found in an average hair follicle?

A

1

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48
Q

In a compound follicle a primary hair is also known as a ______ hair.

A

Guard

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49
Q

Whiskers are also known as ______ hairs.

A

Tactile

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50
Q

The outermost layer of a hair is the:

A

Cuticle

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51
Q

As an animal ages and its hair turns white, the medulla becomes filled with:

A

Air

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52
Q

The implantation angle of a hair is increased when the:

A

Arrector pili muscle contracts.

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53
Q

The white, semiliquid mixture released by sebaceous glands is called:

A

Sebum

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54
Q

Another name for a blackhead is:

A

Comedone

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55
Q

Which species of animal produces enough sweat to turn into a white froth?

A

Equine

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56
Q

In which species of animal does sebum eventually become lanolin?

A

Ovine

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57
Q

A sudoriferous gland is also known as a/an:

A

Sweat gland

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58
Q

Which animals have tail glands that help them identify individual animals?

A

Dogs and cats

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59
Q

The tail gland is located on the _______ surface of the tail.

A

Dorsal

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60
Q

Where would you look for anal sacs in a cat?

A

At 5 and 7 o’clock positions around the anus.

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61
Q

What animal can retract its claws?

A

Cat

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62
Q

Another name for a hoofed animal is an:

A

Ungulate

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63
Q

The sensitive tissue of both claws and hooves is the:

A

Corium

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64
Q

Hooves grow from the:

A

Coronary band

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65
Q

The lateral aspects of an equine hoof wall are called:

A

Quarters

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66
Q

The junction of the sole and hoof wall in an equine hoof is called the:

A

White line

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67
Q

Horns emerge from the horn processes of the ____ bones.

A

Frontal

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68
Q

Horns are bound to the horn process by:

A

Periosteum

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69
Q

Horns are composed of:

A

Keratin

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70
Q

Antlers are composed of:

A

Bone

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71
Q

The “white” of the eye is the:

A

Sclera

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72
Q

All the light that enters the eye enters through the:

A

Cornea

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73
Q

An animal’s eyes “glow” in the dark when a light is shined on them because of the:

A

Tapetum

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74
Q

The species that doesn’t have eyes that “glow” in the dark when a light is shined on them is:

A

Porcine

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75
Q

The colored part of the eye is the:

A

Iris

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76
Q

The “diaphragm” of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye is the:

A

Iris

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77
Q

The opening at the center of the “diaphragm” of the eye is the:

A

Pupil

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78
Q

Near and far vision are accommodated through the muscles of the:

A

Ciliary body

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79
Q

The sensory receptors for vision are located in the:

A

Retina

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80
Q

The vitreous compartment of the eyeball is located:

A

Behind the and ciliary body

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81
Q

The anterior chamber of the eyeball is located:

A

In front of the iris in the aqueous compartment

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82
Q

Where is aqueous humor produced?

A

Posterior chamber of the eyeball

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83
Q

The most common cause of glaucoma is:

A

Insufficient drainage of aqueous humor

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84
Q

The _____ helps focus a clear image on the retina by changing its shape.

A

Lens

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85
Q

The dividing structure that separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber is the:

A

Iris

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86
Q

The dividing structure that separates the aqueous chamber from the vitreous chamber is the:

A

Lens

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87
Q

An animal has an area of inflammation located at the lateral limbus of the left eye. Where is the inflammation located?

A

Left side of the left eyeball where the sclera meets the cornea.

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88
Q

The process of changing the shape of the lens to allow close-up and distant vision is called:

A

Accommodation

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89
Q

When a/an ______ develops the lens becomes opaque.

A

Cataract

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90
Q

The blind spot if the eye is the:

A

Optic disc

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91
Q

Which photoreceptors are the most sensitive to light?

A

Rods

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92
Q

Which part of the eyeball refracts light rays entering the eye the most?

A

Lens

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93
Q

Where is the nictitating membrane located?

A

Medially between the eyeball and the eyelid

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94
Q

Where the upper and lower eyelids meet near the bridge of an animal’s nose is the:

A

Medial canthus

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95
Q

Tears are produced by the:

A

Lacrimal gland

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96
Q

The third eyelid is composed of:

A

Cartilage and conjuctiva

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97
Q

Excess tears are initially drained from the surface of the eyes by the:

A

Lacrimal puncta

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98
Q

The thin, transparent membrane that lines the eyelids is the:

A

Palpebral conjunctiva

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99
Q

The six extraocular muscles that attach to the sclera are:

A

Skeletal muscles

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100
Q

The heart is located in the thoracic cavity in the space between the two lungs. This space is called the:

A

Mediastinum

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101
Q

When looking at a standing animal from the side, you would locate the heart:

A

Between its right and left olecranon processes

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102
Q

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the:

A

Pericardium

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103
Q

The outermost layer of the heart itself is the:

A

Epicardium

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104
Q

The membrane that lines the chambers of the heart is the:

A

Endocardium

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105
Q

The type of blood vessel that usually carries oxygenated blood away from the heart is a/an:

A

Artery

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106
Q

The atria of the heart sit at the _____ of the heart.

A

Base

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107
Q

The interatrial septum is a continuation of the:

A

Myocardium

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108
Q

The interventricular septum is a continuation of the:

A

Interatrial septum

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109
Q

The right atrium pumps blood into the:

A

Right ventricle

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110
Q

The apex if the heart is made up of the:

A

Wall of the left ventricle

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111
Q

Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the:

A

Mitral valve

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112
Q

Chordae tendineae are found in the:

A

Ventricles

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113
Q

Another name for the right semilunar valve is the:

A

Pulmonary valve

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114
Q

Cardiac muscle can generate its own contractions and relaxations and is therefore called:

A

autorhythmic muscle

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115
Q

Deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation enters the heart at the:

A

Right atrium

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116
Q

The large blood vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation is the:

A

Vena cava

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117
Q

Which chamber of the heart sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation when it contracts?

A

Right ventricle

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118
Q

The pulmonary circulation begins when deoxygenated blood passes through the _____ into the pulmonary circulation.

A

Right semilunar valve

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119
Q

The impulse to begin each heartbeat of the heart comes from the:

A

Sinoatrial node

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120
Q

The two ions that are responsible for the initial depolarization of cardiac muscle as they travel from the outside of a muscle cell to the inside of the cell are:

A

Sodium and calcium ions

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121
Q

The impulse created by the natural pacemaker of the heart travels:

A

Across both atria at the base of the heart to the atrioventricular septum, through the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, and back to the base of the heart.

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122
Q

The structures that make up the primary cardiac conduction, in the order that the impulse travels through them, are the:

A

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fiber system

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123
Q

Contraction of a heart chamber is called:

A

Systole

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124
Q

Which valves produce the second heart sound when they snap shut?

A

Pulmonary valve and aortic valve

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125
Q

Tricuspid valve stenosis results when the tricuspid valve:

A

Doesn’t open completely during atrial systole

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126
Q

Cardiac output is determined by:

A

Stroke volume and heart rate.

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127
Q

The _______ represents the strength of a heartbeat

A

Stroke volume

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128
Q

The inner layer of a blood vessel is the:

A

Endothelium

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129
Q

The largest elastic artery in an animal’s body is the:

A

Aorta

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130
Q

What type of muscle is found in the middle layer if a muscular artery’s wall?

A

Involuntary, nonstriated muscle

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131
Q

Arterioles are:

A

Small muscular arteries

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132
Q

The majority of exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissue takes place at the _____ level.

A

Capillary blood

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133
Q

The largest vein in an animal’s body is the:

A

Vena cava

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134
Q

Which type of blood vessel has one-way valves in its lumen?

A

Veins

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135
Q

Oxygenated blood is carried from the mother to a fetus through the:

A

Umbilical vein

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136
Q

The ductus arteriosus in a fetus allows blood to flow:

A

Directly into the aorta from the pulmonary artery

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137
Q

Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a cat?

A

Femoral artery

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138
Q

Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a horse?

A

Mandibular artery

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139
Q

Systolic blood pressure measures:

A

The force by which blood is ejected from the left ventricle during systole.

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140
Q

On an ECG reading of one cardiac cycle, the contraction of the main mass of the ventricles is represented by the:

A

R wave

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141
Q

Which vein can be used for venipuncture in nearly all species of animals?

A

Jugular vein

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142
Q

Phonation in an animal begins in the:

A

Larynx

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143
Q

The acceptable range of pH in most animals is:

A

7.35-7.45

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144
Q

The upper respiratory tract includes all the structures:

A

Outside the lungs

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145
Q

The nasal septum separates:

A

The left nasal passage from the right nasal passage

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146
Q

A nasal meatus is created by the:

A

Turbinates

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147
Q

The three main condition functions of the nasal passages are:

A

Warming, humidifying, and filtering air

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148
Q

Sinuses are outpouchings of the:

A

Nasal passages

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149
Q

The nasopharynx sits _____ to the oropharynx in a standing animal.

A

Dorsal

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150
Q

The opening to the larynx is called the:

A

Glottis

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151
Q

The boundaries of the glottis are formed by the:

A

Arytenoid cartilages and the vocal cords

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152
Q

The vocal cords are composed of:

A

Fibrous connective tissue

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153
Q

The tracheal rings are composed of:

A

Hyaline cartilage

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154
Q

The space between each tracheal ring is composed of:

A

Smooth muscle

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155
Q

The ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea has a layer of ______ on top of it to trap foreign debris.

A

Mucus

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156
Q

Tracheal collapse is often seen:

A

With inspiratory dyspnea

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157
Q

The trachea splits into two bronchi at the:

A

Bifurcation

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158
Q

Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction are controlled by:

A

The autonomic nervous system acting on smooth muscle

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159
Q

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across:

A

Two layer of simple squamous epithelium

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160
Q

Which species is prone to asthma attacks?

A

Feline

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161
Q

Which thoracic structure would you find outside the mediastinum?

A

Lungs

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162
Q

How are the lungs of a pig divided?

A

Three left lobes, four right lobes

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163
Q

The hilus is found:

A

On the medial surface of each lung

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164
Q

The blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs from the heart is the:

A

Pulmonary artery

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165
Q

Blood entering the lungs from the heart is dark red because of:

A

The high carbon dioxide content

166
Q

In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with:

A

The convex surface facing in a cranial direction

167
Q

The main expiratory muscles are the:

A

Internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles

168
Q

When the external intercostal muscles contract, they rotate the ribs:

A

Upward and forward

169
Q

If an animal breathes in 500 milliliters with each resting breath and takes 15 breaths per minutes how many liters has the animal inspired and expired in 1 minute?

A

7.5

170
Q

The flow of oxygen from inspired air into an alveolar capillary is dependent on the:

A

PO2 in the alveoli being higher than the PO2 in the capillary.

171
Q

The unconscious act of breathing is controlled by the respiratory center in the:

A

Brainstem

172
Q

If the CO2 level in blood rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate?

A

Increase rate and depth of respiration

173
Q

Antitussives are best used to treat a:

A

Nonproductive cough

174
Q

Low blood levels of oxygen can bring on:

A

Sighs

175
Q

An example of a hindgut fermenter is a:

A

Horse

176
Q

An example of an omnivore is a:

A

Pig

177
Q

In herbivores the process of converting plant material into usable nutrients is accomplished through:

A

Rumination

178
Q

The serosa is the:

A

Outer layer of the wall of the GI tract

179
Q

What effect does sympathetic nerve stimulation have on digestion?

A

Inhibits digestion

180
Q

The function of the myenteric plexus is:

A

To control movement of food through the GI tract

181
Q

Gastrin and cholecystokinin are:

A

Hormones

182
Q

Another name for the buccal cavity is the:

A

Oral cavity

183
Q

The vestibule is:

A

The space between the outer surface of the teeth and the surrounding lips and cheeks.

184
Q

Another name for chewing is:

A

Mastication

185
Q

Which part of the tooth extends above the gum line?

A

Crown

186
Q

The part of the tooth where nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth is the:

A

Apex

187
Q

The surface of the tooth that faces the animal’s lips is the _______ surface.

A

Labial

188
Q

The surfaces of the teeth that come together when an animal closes its mouth are the ______ surfaces.

A

Occlusal

189
Q

What type of tooth grows continually throughout the life of an animal?

A

Aradicular Hypsodont teeth

190
Q

Which teeth are normally missing in ruminants?

A

Upper front incisors

191
Q

How many canine teeth does a ewe have?

A

0

192
Q

The cheek teeth are the:

A

Premolars and molars

193
Q

The largest cutting teeth in the jaw of a carnivore are known as the _______ teeth.

A

Carnassial

194
Q

In the Triadan System for documenting teeth, the left mandibular arch contains teeth in the _____ series.

A

300

195
Q

The body of the tongue is made up of mostly:

A

Muscle tissue

196
Q

Which one of the following animals has a dental pad?

A
197
Q

A. Cat

A
198
Q

B. Cow

A
199
Q

C. Dog

A
200
Q

D. Horse

A

B. Cow

201
Q

Which salivary gland, located ventral to the ear, produces nearly half of the total volume of saliva produced?

A

Parotid

202
Q

The two bones that are connected with the TMJ are the:

A

Mandible and temporal bones

203
Q

When the lower jaw moves laterally and rostrally the movement is called:

A

Translation

204
Q

The cartilage that makes up part of the laryngeal cartilage and prevents food from being aspired into the trachea is the ______ cartilage.

A

Epiglottic

205
Q

The position of the esophagus in relation to the trachea as it travels down the neck is:

A

Dorsal to the trachea

206
Q

The cardiac sphincter is located:

A

At the caudal end of the esophagus

207
Q

When swallowing which stage(s) in/are voluntary and which stage(s) is/are involuntary?

A

Stage one in voluntary, stages two and three are involuntary

208
Q

The pattern of muscle contraction that moves though the GI tract is called:

A

Peristalsis

209
Q

The stomach is connected to the abdominal wall by the:

A

Omentum

210
Q

The intestines are suspended from the abdominal wall by the:

A

Mesentery

211
Q

Food in a semiliquid state that leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum is called:

A

Chyme

212
Q

The part of the stomach that allows the stomach to expand to store food after a large meal is the:

A

Fundus

213
Q

Which type of glandular cells in the stomach secrete hydrogen and chloride that for hydrochloric acid?

A

Parietal cells

214
Q

Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that begins the chemical digestion of:

A

Proteins

215
Q

The terminal part of the stomach that opens into the duodenum is the:

A

Pylorus

216
Q

The mixing chamber of the stomach is the:

A

Corpus

217
Q

Muscle contractions in the stomach and intestines of a monogastric animal are regulated by:

A

Specialized smooth muscle cells

218
Q

Which animal has the least ability to vomit?

A

Horse

219
Q

Peptides are made up of:

A

Amino acids

220
Q

The “true” glandular stomach of a ruminant is the:

A

Abomasum

221
Q

The largest fermentation chamber of the ruminant stomach is the:

A

Reticulorumen

222
Q

If you wanted to listen to the activity in the rumen of a cow, where would be the best area to place your stethoscope?

A

Left lateral abdominal region

223
Q

Which chamber of the ruminant stomach has mucosa that resembles a honeycomb?

A

Reticulum

224
Q

The esophageal groove connects the:

A

Esophagus to the omasum

225
Q

Another name for “chewing the cud” is:

A

Rumination

226
Q

Which two gases are produced during the fermentation process in the ruminant stomach?

A

Carbon dioxide and methane

227
Q

Acute ruminal tympany is also known as:

A

Bloat

228
Q

In ruminants amino acids are absorbed from the intestinal mucosa and transported to the ______ by the bloodstream.

A

Liver

229
Q

Where will gluconeogenesis most likely take place in a ruminant?

A

Liver

230
Q

Acetate, propionate, and butyrate are examples of:

A

Volatile fatty acids (VFAs)

231
Q

What is the correct order of the parts of the small intestine, starting with the first part?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

232
Q

Peyer’s patches are made up of:

A

Lumphoid tissue

233
Q

Pilcae are:

A

Mucosal folds in the small intestine

234
Q

The brush border of the small intestines is made up of:

A

Microvilli

235
Q

Where does the pancreatic duct enter the GI tract?

A

Duodenum

236
Q

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the:

A

Endocrine pancreas

237
Q

The liver is located just caudal to the:

A

Diaphragm

238
Q

Which species does not have a gall bladder?

A

Equine

239
Q

Which substance gives urine its characteristic color?

A

Urobilin

240
Q

Where is albumin produced?

A

Liver

241
Q

Ketosis, or metabolic acidosis, is a result of excess conversion of _______ to ketones.

A

Fatty acids

242
Q

Which motility movement in the small intestine mixes the partially digested food but doesn’t move it toward the large intestine?

A

Segmentation

243
Q

Which species of animal uses the cecum as a fermentation chamber?

A

Equine

244
Q

In which part of the large intestine does most water absorption take place?

A

Colon

245
Q

Which two of the methods for collecting a urine sample are considered sterile techniques?

A

Catheterization, cystocentesis

246
Q

Most of the nitrogenous waste in the body is a result of:

A

Protein metabolism

247
Q

Urea is a:

A

Nitrogenous waste

248
Q

Which species of animal normally has cloudy urine when it is passed?

A

Equine

249
Q

The specific gravity of a urine sample is a reflection of its

A

Concentration

250
Q

What is the correct order of organs of the urinary system from cranial to caudal?

A

Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra

251
Q

The term for a condition where very little urine is being passed is:

A

Oliguria

252
Q

Which two hormones play a major role in the control of the amount of water contained in urine?

A

ADH and aldoesterone

253
Q

Which two ions can the kidney preserve or excrete to regulate the blood pH?

A

Hydrogen and bicarbonate

254
Q

Which hormone is produced and secreted by the kidney when an animal’s blood pressure is too low?

A

Renin

255
Q

Because the kidneys sit between and peritoneum and the dorsal abdominal muscles, they are considered:

A

Retroperitoneal

256
Q

Except in the pig, the right kidney sits _____ to the left kidney.

A

Cranial

257
Q

Which species of animal has a lobulated kidney when viewed grossly?

A

Bovine

258
Q

In which animal is the right kidney more heart shaped than bean shaped?

A

Horse

259
Q

The outmost layer of the kidney is the:

A

Cortex

260
Q

Where do blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter and leave the kidney?

A

Hilus

261
Q

The collection chamber for urine in the kidney is the:

A

Pelvis

262
Q

The basic functional unit of a kidney is the:

A

Nephron

263
Q

A renal corpuscle is located in the renal:

A

Cortex

264
Q

The ______ is a tuft of capillaries that filters blood in the first stage of urine production.

A

Glomerulus

265
Q

The fluid that is filtered through the tuft of capillaries in the first stage of urine production is called:

A

Glomerular filtrate

266
Q

The medulla of the kidney is made up of mostly:

A

Loops of Henle

267
Q

Glomerular capillaries are a continuation of the:

A

Afferent arteroiles

268
Q

Which blood vessels have oxygenated blood entering and leaving them?

A

Glomerular capillaries

269
Q

Oxygen transfer to the cells of a nephron take place in the:

A

Peritubular capillaries

270
Q

The renal artery is a branch of the:

A

Aorta

271
Q

In what part of the kidney is a majority of the DCT found?

A

Cortex

272
Q

In what part of the kidney are the majority of renal corpuscles found?

A

Cortex

273
Q

The high blood pressure on glomerular capillaries forces some ______ to leave the blood.

A

Plasma

274
Q

Glomerular filtrate contains almost no _____ when compared to plasma.

A

Proteins

275
Q

The presence of abnormal amounts of protein in urine can be used as an indicator of ________ damage.

A

Glomerular

276
Q

The overall process of conserving molecules by taking them back into the body is called:

A

Reabsorption

277
Q

The GFR is expressed as:

A

Milliliters per minute

278
Q

Sodium cotransport allows _____ to attach to the carrier protein that sodium is using to passively enter an epithelial cell.

A

Glucose and amino acids

279
Q

The majority of tubular reabsorption takes place in the:

A

PCT

280
Q

What two substances are normally 100% reabsorbed in the PCT?

A

Glucose and amino acids

281
Q

The BUN is a measure of:

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen

282
Q

Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus is often manifested clinically by:

A

Glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia

283
Q

What three substances are eliminated from the body through tubular secretion?

A

Ammonia, hydrogen, potassium

284
Q

A kidney can slowly lose nearly _____ of its functional ability to make urine before clinical signs of renal failure appear.

A

0.67

285
Q

What organ produces and secretes aldosterone?

A

Adrenal cortex

286
Q

Where does ADH exert its control over water reabsorption?

A

DCT and collecting ducts

287
Q

Diabetes insipidus can result from an inadequate release of:

A

ADH

288
Q

Aldosterone:

A

Increases reabsorption of sodium from the DCT and collecting ducts

289
Q

What makes equine urine normally cloudy?

A

Mucus

290
Q

The type of epithelium found in the urethra, ureters, and urinary bladder that allows them to stretch is:

A

Transitional

291
Q

What type of muscle is found in the ureters?

A

Smooth

292
Q

Urine is moved from the kidneys to the urinary bladder:

A

Continuously

293
Q

The neck of the urinary bladder is _____ to the body of the urinary bladder.

A

Caudal

294
Q

The detrusor muscle is found in the wall of the:

A

Urinary bladder

295
Q

The sphincters that control urination are found in the:

A

Neck of the urinary bladder

296
Q

The sphincters that control urination are under ______ control.

A

Voluntary muscle

297
Q

Which animal rarely develops uroliths?

A

Horse

298
Q

Which animal has uroliths that resemble sand rather than large stones?

A

Cat

299
Q

Struvite crystals will precipitate out in urine with a pH of:

A

6

300
Q

The full diploid chromosome makeup of a male animal is:

A

2n, XY

301
Q

The diploid chromosome number is always:

A

An even number

302
Q

Meiosis occurs:

A

Only in reproductive cells

303
Q

The male gonads are the:

A

Testes

304
Q

Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes?

A

Acrosome

305
Q

Which part of the spermatozoa contains the most mitochondria?

A

Midpiece

306
Q

The tail of the spermatozoa is used for:

A

Propulsion

307
Q

The scrotum is a:

A

Sac of skin

308
Q

In order to fully descend, the testes must pass through the:

A

Inguinal ring

309
Q

What structure adjusts the position of the testes relative to the body according to the environmental temperature?

A

Cremaster muscle

310
Q

The structure that connects the testes to the rest of the body is the:

A

Spermatic cord

311
Q

What do the primary endocrine cells of the testes produce?

A

Androgens

312
Q

Which hormone stimulates the primary endocrine cells of the testes?

A

LH

313
Q

Cryptorchidism refers to a condition of one or more:

A

Undescended testes

314
Q

The maturation and storage site for the immature spermatozoa is the:

A

Epididymis

315
Q

A Sertoli cell tumor can produce high blood levels of:

A

Estrogen

316
Q

One of the typical clinical signs of a Sertoli cell tumor may be:

A

Gynecomastia

317
Q

What two structures does the vas deferens connect?

A

Urethra and epididymis

318
Q

Which animals don’t have seminal vesicles?

A

Dogs and cats

319
Q

The only accessory reproductive gland in canines is the:

A

Prostate gland

320
Q

Which accessory reproductive gland secretes a mucinous fluid that lubricates the urethra for passage of semen?

A

Bulbourethral gland

321
Q

Cowper’s glands are another name for the:

A

Bulbourethral gland

322
Q

The majority of the volume of semen is composed of:

A

Alkaline secretions from accessory reproductive glands

323
Q

Erectile tissue is composed of:

A

Fibrous connective tissue and sinuses

324
Q

Which species of animal has short spines covering the glans of the penis?

A

Feline

325
Q

Which species of animal has an os penis?

A

Canine

326
Q

The species of animals that “tie” after the male has ejaculated is the:

A

Canine

327
Q

The best way to “untie” a male and female after the male has ejaculated is to:

A

Do nothing until it happens naturally

328
Q

The female reproductive organs are suspended from the dorsal part of the abdominal wall by the:

A

Broad ligaments

329
Q

The female gonads are the:

A

Ovaries

330
Q

The female gametes are:

A

Ova

331
Q

On average, how often are oocytes replaced in the ovaries?

A

Never

332
Q

Which two hormones are produced in the ovary?

A

Estrogen and progestins

333
Q

Which hormone produced by the ovary prepares the uterus for implantation and pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

334
Q

Which hormone produced by the ovary is responsible for preparing a female for breeding and pregnancy?

A

Estrogen

335
Q

A Uniparous animal:

A

Gives birth to one offspring per pregnancy

336
Q

Ovulation occurs spontaneously in which species?

A

Dogs and horses

337
Q

The rising level of which hormone induces spontaneous ovulation?

A

LH

338
Q

Which species is an induced ovulator?

A

Feline

339
Q

The first stage a follicle goes through after ovulation is the:

A

Corpus Hemorrhagicum

340
Q

When a mature reproductive gamete is ovulated, it is surrounded by a layer of cells called the:

A

Corona radiata

341
Q

The corpus luteum produces which hormone that is necessary for pregnancy to be maintained if fertilization takes place?

A

Progesterone

342
Q

The usual site for fertilization of a mature female gamete by a mature male gamete is in the:

A

Oviduct

343
Q

The finger-like projections that make sure the mature female gamete gets caught when it is ovulated are the:

A

Fimbriae

344
Q

If fertilization is going to happen, where must the spermatozoa be when ovulation takes place?

A

Oviduct

345
Q

The thickest layer of the uterus is made up of:

A

Smooth muscle

346
Q

The cervix is located between the:

A

Uterine body and the vagina

347
Q

The only portion of the female reproductive system that is visible from the outside is the:

A

Vulva

348
Q

What female part is equivalent to the male penis?

A

Clitoris

349
Q

The timing for breeding is controlled by the:

A

Estrous cycle

350
Q

Which two hormones are directly responsible for the physical and behavioral changes that are associated with a female in heat?

A

Estrogen and progestins

351
Q

Which animal is a polyestrous animal?

A

Bovine cow

352
Q

Which animal is seasonally polyestrous?

A

Feline queen

353
Q

Which animal is diestrous?

A

Canine bitch

354
Q

During which stage of the estrous cycle do estrogen levels reach their peak?

A

Estrus

355
Q

During which stage of the estrous cycle can dogs develop a pseudopregnancy?

A

Diestrus

356
Q

If no pregnancy begins during an estrous cycle, when does the corpus luteum degenerate?

A

Late diestrus

357
Q

In the dog, the cytology of the epithelial lining of the ______ can be utilized to determine the most effective time to breed a bitch.

A

Vagina

358
Q

Sexual stimuli in the male results from high levels of ____ in the female.

A

Estrogen

359
Q

Which two species deposit semen directly into the uterus during ejaculation?

A

Equine and porcine

360
Q

In species that don’t deposit semen directly into uterus, where does ejaculation deposit it?

A

Upper portion of the vagina

361
Q

Copulation results in the release of _____, a hormone, from the posterior pituitary gland.

A

Oxytocin

362
Q

Spermatozoa are transported to the oviducts in just minutes due primarily to:

A

Uterine contractions

363
Q

Capacitation is the term for:

A

The changes spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract.

364
Q

The acrosome of the spermatozoa is found:

A

Covering the head of the spermatozoa

365
Q

The acrosome of the spermatozoa contains:

A

Digestive enzymes

366
Q

What is the maximum number of spermatozoa that can enter an ovum to fertilize the ovum?

A

1

367
Q

In addition to the corona radiata, a spermatozoa must also pass through the _____. a thick gel that surrounds the ovum, to fertilize the ovum.

A

Zona pellucida

368
Q

As soon as an ovum is fertilized it is called a:

A

Zygote

369
Q

A pronulceus has a:

A

Haploid chromosome number

370
Q

The rapid mitosis that occurs while the fertilized ovum is moving toward the uterus is:

A

Cleavage

371
Q

What stage of zygote development implants in the uterus?

A

Blastocyst

372
Q

Implantation occurs in the ____ of the uterus.

A

Endometrium

373
Q

The multilayered, fluid-filled, membranous sac that develops around an embryo is the:

A

Placenta

374
Q

The umbilical cord connects the:

A

Fetus to the placenta

375
Q

The blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus is the:

A

Umbilical vein

376
Q

The urachus carries fluid from the fetal urinary bladder to the:

A

Allantoic sac

377
Q

How many placental sacs surround a fetus during its development?

A

2

378
Q

The part of the placenta that attaches to the uterus is the:

A

Chorion

379
Q

Which membrane of the placenta forms a sac immediately around the fetus?

A

Amnion

380
Q

Which type of placental attachment is characterized by attachment sites called placentomes?

A

Cotyledonary

381
Q

A placentome consists of an area on the surface of the placenta called the:

A

Cotyledon

382
Q

A placentome consists of an area on the lining of the uterus called the:

A

Caruncle

383
Q

Which type of placental attachment is seen in dogs and cats?

A

Zonary

384
Q

Which type of placental attachment is seen in pigs and horses?

A

Diffuse

385
Q

Which type of placental attachment is most likely to give rise to a retained placenta?

A

Cotyledonary

386
Q

Which type of placental attachment is seen in cattle and sheep?

A

Cotyledonary

387
Q

When does an embryo become a fetus?

A

During the second trimester of pregnancy

388
Q

When during pregnancy do body tissues, organs, and systems develop?

A

During the second trimester of pregnancy

389
Q

The period of pregnancy for dogs and cats is approximately:

A

2 months

390
Q

Humans and _____ have approximately the same period of pregnancy, 9 months.

A

Cattle

391
Q

What three compounds must interact to begin uterine contractions?

A

Estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandin F2-alpha

392
Q

During what stage of labor does the cervix relax?

A

First stage

393
Q

During what stage of labor do the placental sacs rupture?

A

Second stage

394
Q

Which stage of labor is characterized by strong uterine and abdominal muscle contractions?

A

Second stage

395
Q

During what stage of labor is the placenta delivered?

A

Third stage

396
Q

During what stage of labor is the fetus delivered?

A

Second stage

397
Q

Another name for a difficult birth is:

A

Dystocia

398
Q

An embryotomy is performed on a/an:

A

Dead fetus

399
Q

The return of the uterus to its nonpregnant size after giving birth is called _____ of the uterus.

A

Involution

400
Q

Which species of animal has mammary glands only in the inguinal region?

A

Equine

401
Q

How many quarters of a bovine udder share one milk-secreting system?

A

None

402
Q

Where does milk accumulate when milk letdown has occurred?

A

Gland sinus and teat sinus

403
Q

The milk-secreting units of the mammary gland are the:

A

Alveoli

404
Q

The streak canal connects the _____ to the outside.

A

Teat sinus

405
Q

Most of the hormones from the _____ are involved in some way with mammary gland growth and development.

A

Anterior pituitary gland

406
Q

Lactation is started under the influence of:

A

Prolactin, growth hormone, and adrenal cortex hormones.

407
Q

Lactation begins:

A

Toward the end of the third trimester of pregnancy.

408
Q

The difference between milk and colostrum is that colostrum has:

A

A higher level of antibodies

409
Q

In order for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to offspring, the newborn must have colostrum within:

A

A few hours after birth

410
Q

How long does the passive immunity a newborn receives from its mother last?

A

Unknown

411
Q

There is often a normal short delay between when a newborn starts nursing and when milk starts freely flowing from the teat because of delay in the action of:

A

Oxytocin