ANATOMY Flashcards
1
Q
The area at the base of the neck between the front legs that covers the cranial end of the sternum is called the:
A
Brisket
2
Q
The knee of hoofed animals is called the:
A
Carpus
3
Q
Gross anatomy is also known as:
A
Macroscopic (seen without a microscope) Anatomy
4
Q
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the:
A
Transverse plane
5
Q
The reference plane that runs down the center of the body lengthwise and divides it into equal left and right halves is the:
A
Median plane
6
Q
The directional term that means “toward the head” but not on the head is:
A
Cranial
7
Q
An animal’s ears are located _____ to its eyes.
A
Caudal
8
Q
A dog is standing on the exam table with its front legs up on the chest of its owner. Which surface of the dog is touching the examination table?
A
Plantar
9
Q
The outer surface of a cow’s leg that is facing away from its body is the ______ surface.
A
Lateral
10
Q
The shoulder of a camel is ______ to its carpus.
A
Proximal
11
Q
Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?
A
Proximal
12
Q
The proximal-distal dividing line on the rear leg is the:
A
Tarsus
13
Q
If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog’s leg, where would you look?
A
The back surface of the front leg below the carpus.
14
Q
If you were told to look for a tumor on the dorsal surface of a pig’s hind leg, where would you look?
A
The front surface below the tarsus.
15
Q
All the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane called the:
A
Pleura
16
Q
How many basic tissue types are found in an animal’s body?
A
4 (M. E. N. C.)
- Muscle
- Epithelial
- Nervous
- Connective
17
Q
The type of tissue that forms sweat gland is ________ tissue.
A
Epithelial
18
Q
Bone is considered what type of tissue?
A
Connective tissue
19
Q
An example of a group of tissues working together for a common purpose is:
A
Brain
20
Q
The process by which physiologic processes collectively and actively maintain balance in the structures, functions, and properties of the body is known as:
A
Homeostasis
21
Q
D
A
22
Q
On a sheep the area on the top of the head between the bases of the ears is known as the:
A
Poll
23
Q
The type of tissue that coordinates and controls activities in and around the animal’s body is:
A
Nervous tissue
24
Q
The body cavity that contains the heart is the:
A
Cranial thoracic cavity
25
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the:
Diaphragm
26
The majority of cells found in the skin are:
Keratinocytes
27
The pigment found in skin is produced by:
Melanocytes
28
The cells thought to aid in the sense of touch are:
Merkel Cells
29
The macrophages of the epidermis are the:
Langerhans Cells
30
One of the most common skin tumors in dogs over the age of 5 is:
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
31
The nose of a white cat is especially susceptible to:
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
32
The old gray mare is especially susceptible to:
Malignant Melanoma
33
One of the most common benign tumors of cats is:
Basal Cell Tumor
34
The most common site for malignant melanoma in dogs and cats is the:
Oral Cavity
35
Which layer of epidermis is most actively involved in replacing exfoliated skin cells?
Basal Layer
36
The thickest layer of the epidermis is the:
Horny Layer
37
Tylotrich hairs are important in the perception of:
Touch
38
Meissner's corpuscle is important in the perception of:
Touch
39
Pacinian corpuscles are important in the perception of:
Touch
40
Which layer of skin allows it to move freely over underlying bone and muscle without tearing?
Hypodermis
41
On a footpad, which layer of skin is the thickest?
Stratum Corneum
42
In which species of animal would you find a planum nasolabiale?
Equine
43
Which dark, horny structures are found buried in the long, caudal hairs of equine fetlocks?
Ergots
44
Infraorbital, interdigital, and inguinal pouches are found in what species of animal?
Ovine
45
The part of a hair that is buried within the skin is the:
Root
46
The invagination of epidermis in which a hair is anchored is the:
Follicle
47
How many hairs are found in an average hair follicle?
1
48
In a compound follicle a primary hair is also known as a ______ hair.
Guard
49
Whiskers are also known as ______ hairs.
Tactile
50
The outermost layer of a hair is the:
Cuticle
51
As an animal ages and its hair turns white, the medulla becomes filled with:
Air
52
The implantation angle of a hair is increased when the:
Arrector pili muscle contracts.
53
The white, semiliquid mixture released by sebaceous glands is called:
Sebum
54
Another name for a blackhead is:
Comedone
55
Which species of animal produces enough sweat to turn into a white froth?
Equine
56
In which species of animal does sebum eventually become lanolin?
Ovine
57
A sudoriferous gland is also known as a/an:
Sweat gland
58
Which animals have tail glands that help them identify individual animals?
Dogs and cats
59
The tail gland is located on the _______ surface of the tail.
Dorsal
60
Where would you look for anal sacs in a cat?
At 5 and 7 o'clock positions around the anus.
61
What animal can retract its claws?
Cat
62
Another name for a hoofed animal is an:
Ungulate
63
The sensitive tissue of both claws and hooves is the:
Corium
64
Hooves grow from the:
Coronary band
65
The lateral aspects of an equine hoof wall are called:
Quarters
66
The junction of the sole and hoof wall in an equine hoof is called the:
White line
67
Horns emerge from the horn processes of the ____ bones.
Frontal
68
Horns are bound to the horn process by:
Periosteum
69
Horns are composed of:
Keratin
70
Antlers are composed of:
Bone
71
The "white" of the eye is the:
Sclera
72
All the light that enters the eye enters through the:
Cornea
73
An animal's eyes "glow" in the dark when a light is shined on them because of the:
Tapetum
74
The species that doesn't have eyes that "glow" in the dark when a light is shined on them is:
Porcine
75
The colored part of the eye is the:
Iris
76
The "diaphragm" of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye is the:
Iris
77
The opening at the center of the "diaphragm" of the eye is the:
Pupil
78
Near and far vision are accommodated through the muscles of the:
Ciliary body
79
The sensory receptors for vision are located in the:
Retina
80
The vitreous compartment of the eyeball is located:
Behind the and ciliary body
81
The anterior chamber of the eyeball is located:
In front of the iris in the aqueous compartment
82
Where is aqueous humor produced?
Posterior chamber of the eyeball
83
The most common cause of glaucoma is:
Insufficient drainage of aqueous humor
84
The _____ helps focus a clear image on the retina by changing its shape.
Lens
85
The dividing structure that separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber is the:
Iris
86
The dividing structure that separates the aqueous chamber from the vitreous chamber is the:
Lens
87
An animal has an area of inflammation located at the lateral limbus of the left eye. Where is the inflammation located?
Left side of the left eyeball where the sclera meets the cornea.
88
The process of changing the shape of the lens to allow close-up and distant vision is called:
Accommodation
89
When a/an ______ develops the lens becomes opaque.
Cataract
90
The blind spot if the eye is the:
Optic disc
91
Which photoreceptors are the most sensitive to light?
Rods
92
Which part of the eyeball refracts light rays entering the eye the most?
Lens
93
Where is the nictitating membrane located?
Medially between the eyeball and the eyelid
94
Where the upper and lower eyelids meet near the bridge of an animal's nose is the:
Medial canthus
95
Tears are produced by the:
Lacrimal gland
96
The third eyelid is composed of:
Cartilage and conjuctiva
97
Excess tears are initially drained from the surface of the eyes by the:
Lacrimal puncta
98
The thin, transparent membrane that lines the eyelids is the:
Palpebral conjunctiva
99
The six extraocular muscles that attach to the sclera are:
Skeletal muscles
100
The heart is located in the thoracic cavity in the space between the two lungs. This space is called the:
Mediastinum
101
When looking at a standing animal from the side, you would locate the heart:
Between its right and left olecranon processes
102
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the:
Pericardium
103
The outermost layer of the heart itself is the:
Epicardium
104
The membrane that lines the chambers of the heart is the:
Endocardium
105
The type of blood vessel that usually carries oxygenated blood away from the heart is a/an:
Artery
106
The atria of the heart sit at the _____ of the heart.
Base
107
The interatrial septum is a continuation of the:
Myocardium
108
The interventricular septum is a continuation of the:
Interatrial septum
109
The right atrium pumps blood into the:
Right ventricle
110
The apex if the heart is made up of the:
Wall of the left ventricle
111
Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the:
Mitral valve
112
Chordae tendineae are found in the:
Ventricles
113
Another name for the right semilunar valve is the:
Pulmonary valve
114
Cardiac muscle can generate its own contractions and relaxations and is therefore called:
autorhythmic muscle
115
Deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation enters the heart at the:
Right atrium
116
The large blood vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation is the:
Vena cava
117
Which chamber of the heart sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation when it contracts?
Right ventricle
118
The pulmonary circulation begins when deoxygenated blood passes through the _____ into the pulmonary circulation.
Right semilunar valve
119
The impulse to begin each heartbeat of the heart comes from the:
Sinoatrial node
120
The two ions that are responsible for the initial depolarization of cardiac muscle as they travel from the outside of a muscle cell to the inside of the cell are:
Sodium and calcium ions
121
The impulse created by the natural pacemaker of the heart travels:
Across both atria at the base of the heart to the atrioventricular septum, through the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, and back to the base of the heart.
122
The structures that make up the primary cardiac conduction, in the order that the impulse travels through them, are the:
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fiber system
123
Contraction of a heart chamber is called:
Systole
124
Which valves produce the second heart sound when they snap shut?
Pulmonary valve and aortic valve
125
Tricuspid valve stenosis results when the tricuspid valve:
Doesn't open completely during atrial systole
126
Cardiac output is determined by:
Stroke volume and heart rate.
127
The _______ represents the strength of a heartbeat
Stroke volume
128
The inner layer of a blood vessel is the:
Endothelium
129
The largest elastic artery in an animal's body is the:
Aorta
130
What type of muscle is found in the middle layer if a muscular artery's wall?
Involuntary, nonstriated muscle
131
Arterioles are:
Small muscular arteries
132
The majority of exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissue takes place at the _____ level.
Capillary blood
133
The largest vein in an animal's body is the:
Vena cava
134
Which type of blood vessel has one-way valves in its lumen?
Veins
135
Oxygenated blood is carried from the mother to a fetus through the:
Umbilical vein
136
The ductus arteriosus in a fetus allows blood to flow:
Directly into the aorta from the pulmonary artery
137
Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a cat?
Femoral artery
138
Which artery is most commonly used to check the pulse on a horse?
Mandibular artery
139
Systolic blood pressure measures:
The force by which blood is ejected from the left ventricle during systole.
140
On an ECG reading of one cardiac cycle, the contraction of the main mass of the ventricles is represented by the:
R wave
141
Which vein can be used for venipuncture in nearly all species of animals?
Jugular vein
142
Phonation in an animal begins in the:
Larynx
143
The acceptable range of pH in most animals is:
7.35-7.45
144
The upper respiratory tract includes all the structures:
Outside the lungs
145
The nasal septum separates:
The left nasal passage from the right nasal passage
146
A nasal meatus is created by the:
Turbinates
147
The three main condition functions of the nasal passages are:
Warming, humidifying, and filtering air
148
Sinuses are outpouchings of the:
Nasal passages
149
The nasopharynx sits _____ to the oropharynx in a standing animal.
Dorsal
150
The opening to the larynx is called the:
Glottis
151
The boundaries of the glottis are formed by the:
Arytenoid cartilages and the vocal cords
152
The vocal cords are composed of:
Fibrous connective tissue
153
The tracheal rings are composed of:
Hyaline cartilage
154
The space between each tracheal ring is composed of:
Smooth muscle
155
The ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea has a layer of ______ on top of it to trap foreign debris.
Mucus
156
Tracheal collapse is often seen:
With inspiratory dyspnea
157
The trachea splits into two bronchi at the:
Bifurcation
158
Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction are controlled by:
The autonomic nervous system acting on smooth muscle
159
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across:
Two layer of simple squamous epithelium
160
Which species is prone to asthma attacks?
Feline
161
Which thoracic structure would you find outside the mediastinum?
Lungs
162
How are the lungs of a pig divided?
Three left lobes, four right lobes
163
The hilus is found:
On the medial surface of each lung
164
The blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs from the heart is the:
Pulmonary artery
165
Blood entering the lungs from the heart is dark red because of:
The high carbon dioxide content
166
In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with:
The convex surface facing in a cranial direction
167
The main expiratory muscles are the:
Internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles
168
When the external intercostal muscles contract, they rotate the ribs:
Upward and forward
169
If an animal breathes in 500 milliliters with each resting breath and takes 15 breaths per minutes how many liters has the animal inspired and expired in 1 minute?
7.5
170
The flow of oxygen from inspired air into an alveolar capillary is dependent on the:
PO2 in the alveoli being higher than the PO2 in the capillary.
171
The unconscious act of breathing is controlled by the respiratory center in the:
Brainstem
172
If the CO2 level in blood rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate?
Increase rate and depth of respiration
173
Antitussives are best used to treat a:
Nonproductive cough
174
Low blood levels of oxygen can bring on:
Sighs
175
An example of a hindgut fermenter is a:
Horse
176
An example of an omnivore is a:
Pig
177
In herbivores the process of converting plant material into usable nutrients is accomplished through:
Rumination
178
The serosa is the:
Outer layer of the wall of the GI tract
179
What effect does sympathetic nerve stimulation have on digestion?
Inhibits digestion
180
The function of the myenteric plexus is:
To control movement of food through the GI tract
181
Gastrin and cholecystokinin are:
Hormones
182
Another name for the buccal cavity is the:
Oral cavity
183
The vestibule is:
The space between the outer surface of the teeth and the surrounding lips and cheeks.
184
Another name for chewing is:
Mastication
185
Which part of the tooth extends above the gum line?
Crown
186
The part of the tooth where nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth is the:
Apex
187
The surface of the tooth that faces the animal's lips is the _______ surface.
Labial
188
The surfaces of the teeth that come together when an animal closes its mouth are the ______ surfaces.
Occlusal
189
What type of tooth grows continually throughout the life of an animal?
Aradicular Hypsodont teeth
190
Which teeth are normally missing in ruminants?
Upper front incisors
191
How many canine teeth does a ewe have?
0
192
The cheek teeth are the:
Premolars and molars
193
The largest cutting teeth in the jaw of a carnivore are known as the _______ teeth.
Carnassial
194
In the Triadan System for documenting teeth, the left mandibular arch contains teeth in the _____ series.
300
195
The body of the tongue is made up of mostly:
Muscle tissue
196
Which one of the following animals has a dental pad?
197
A. Cat
198
B. Cow
199
C. Dog
200
D. Horse
B. Cow
201
Which salivary gland, located ventral to the ear, produces nearly half of the total volume of saliva produced?
Parotid
202
The two bones that are connected with the TMJ are the:
Mandible and temporal bones
203
When the lower jaw moves laterally and rostrally the movement is called:
Translation
204
The cartilage that makes up part of the laryngeal cartilage and prevents food from being aspired into the trachea is the ______ cartilage.
Epiglottic
205
The position of the esophagus in relation to the trachea as it travels down the neck is:
Dorsal to the trachea
206
The cardiac sphincter is located:
At the caudal end of the esophagus
207
When swallowing which stage(s) in/are voluntary and which stage(s) is/are involuntary?
Stage one in voluntary, stages two and three are involuntary
208
The pattern of muscle contraction that moves though the GI tract is called:
Peristalsis
209
The stomach is connected to the abdominal wall by the:
Omentum
210
The intestines are suspended from the abdominal wall by the:
Mesentery
211
Food in a semiliquid state that leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum is called:
Chyme
212
The part of the stomach that allows the stomach to expand to store food after a large meal is the:
Fundus
213
Which type of glandular cells in the stomach secrete hydrogen and chloride that for hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells
214
Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that begins the chemical digestion of:
Proteins
215
The terminal part of the stomach that opens into the duodenum is the:
Pylorus
216
The mixing chamber of the stomach is the:
Corpus
217
Muscle contractions in the stomach and intestines of a monogastric animal are regulated by:
Specialized smooth muscle cells
218
Which animal has the least ability to vomit?
Horse
219
Peptides are made up of:
Amino acids
220
The "true" glandular stomach of a ruminant is the:
Abomasum
221
The largest fermentation chamber of the ruminant stomach is the:
Reticulorumen
222
If you wanted to listen to the activity in the rumen of a cow, where would be the best area to place your stethoscope?
Left lateral abdominal region
223
Which chamber of the ruminant stomach has mucosa that resembles a honeycomb?
Reticulum
224
The esophageal groove connects the:
Esophagus to the omasum
225
Another name for "chewing the cud" is:
Rumination
226
Which two gases are produced during the fermentation process in the ruminant stomach?
Carbon dioxide and methane
227
Acute ruminal tympany is also known as:
Bloat
228
In ruminants amino acids are absorbed from the intestinal mucosa and transported to the ______ by the bloodstream.
Liver
229
Where will gluconeogenesis most likely take place in a ruminant?
Liver
230
Acetate, propionate, and butyrate are examples of:
Volatile fatty acids (VFAs)
231
What is the correct order of the parts of the small intestine, starting with the first part?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
232
Peyer's patches are made up of:
Lumphoid tissue
233
Pilcae are:
Mucosal folds in the small intestine
234
The brush border of the small intestines is made up of:
Microvilli
235
Where does the pancreatic duct enter the GI tract?
Duodenum
236
Insulin is a hormone secreted by the:
Endocrine pancreas
237
The liver is located just caudal to the:
Diaphragm
238
Which species does not have a gall bladder?
Equine
239
Which substance gives urine its characteristic color?
Urobilin
240
Where is albumin produced?
Liver
241
Ketosis, or metabolic acidosis, is a result of excess conversion of _______ to ketones.
Fatty acids
242
Which motility movement in the small intestine mixes the partially digested food but doesn't move it toward the large intestine?
Segmentation
243
Which species of animal uses the cecum as a fermentation chamber?
Equine
244
In which part of the large intestine does most water absorption take place?
Colon
245
Which two of the methods for collecting a urine sample are considered sterile techniques?
Catheterization, cystocentesis
246
Most of the nitrogenous waste in the body is a result of:
Protein metabolism
247
Urea is a:
Nitrogenous waste
248
Which species of animal normally has cloudy urine when it is passed?
Equine
249
The specific gravity of a urine sample is a reflection of its
Concentration
250
What is the correct order of organs of the urinary system from cranial to caudal?
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
251
The term for a condition where very little urine is being passed is:
Oliguria
252
Which two hormones play a major role in the control of the amount of water contained in urine?
ADH and aldoesterone
253
Which two ions can the kidney preserve or excrete to regulate the blood pH?
Hydrogen and bicarbonate
254
Which hormone is produced and secreted by the kidney when an animal's blood pressure is too low?
Renin
255
Because the kidneys sit between and peritoneum and the dorsal abdominal muscles, they are considered:
Retroperitoneal
256
Except in the pig, the right kidney sits _____ to the left kidney.
Cranial
257
Which species of animal has a lobulated kidney when viewed grossly?
Bovine
258
In which animal is the right kidney more heart shaped than bean shaped?
Horse
259
The outmost layer of the kidney is the:
Cortex
260
Where do blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter and leave the kidney?
Hilus
261
The collection chamber for urine in the kidney is the:
Pelvis
262
The basic functional unit of a kidney is the:
Nephron
263
A renal corpuscle is located in the renal:
Cortex
264
The ______ is a tuft of capillaries that filters blood in the first stage of urine production.
Glomerulus
265
The fluid that is filtered through the tuft of capillaries in the first stage of urine production is called:
Glomerular filtrate
266
The medulla of the kidney is made up of mostly:
Loops of Henle
267
Glomerular capillaries are a continuation of the:
Afferent arteroiles
268
Which blood vessels have oxygenated blood entering and leaving them?
Glomerular capillaries
269
Oxygen transfer to the cells of a nephron take place in the:
Peritubular capillaries
270
The renal artery is a branch of the:
Aorta
271
In what part of the kidney is a majority of the DCT found?
Cortex
272
In what part of the kidney are the majority of renal corpuscles found?
Cortex
273
The high blood pressure on glomerular capillaries forces some ______ to leave the blood.
Plasma
274
Glomerular filtrate contains almost no _____ when compared to plasma.
Proteins
275
The presence of abnormal amounts of protein in urine can be used as an indicator of ________ damage.
Glomerular
276
The overall process of conserving molecules by taking them back into the body is called:
Reabsorption
277
The GFR is expressed as:
Milliliters per minute
278
Sodium cotransport allows _____ to attach to the carrier protein that sodium is using to passively enter an epithelial cell.
Glucose and amino acids
279
The majority of tubular reabsorption takes place in the:
PCT
280
What two substances are normally 100% reabsorbed in the PCT?
Glucose and amino acids
281
The BUN is a measure of:
Blood Urea Nitrogen
282
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus is often manifested clinically by:
Glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia
283
What three substances are eliminated from the body through tubular secretion?
Ammonia, hydrogen, potassium
284
A kidney can slowly lose nearly _____ of its functional ability to make urine before clinical signs of renal failure appear.
0.67
285
What organ produces and secretes aldosterone?
Adrenal cortex
286
Where does ADH exert its control over water reabsorption?
DCT and collecting ducts
287
Diabetes insipidus can result from an inadequate release of:
ADH
288
Aldosterone:
Increases reabsorption of sodium from the DCT and collecting ducts
289
What makes equine urine normally cloudy?
Mucus
290
The type of epithelium found in the urethra, ureters, and urinary bladder that allows them to stretch is:
Transitional
291
What type of muscle is found in the ureters?
Smooth
292
Urine is moved from the kidneys to the urinary bladder:
Continuously
293
The neck of the urinary bladder is _____ to the body of the urinary bladder.
Caudal
294
The detrusor muscle is found in the wall of the:
Urinary bladder
295
The sphincters that control urination are found in the:
Neck of the urinary bladder
296
The sphincters that control urination are under ______ control.
Voluntary muscle
297
Which animal rarely develops uroliths?
Horse
298
Which animal has uroliths that resemble sand rather than large stones?
Cat
299
Struvite crystals will precipitate out in urine with a pH of:
6
300
The full diploid chromosome makeup of a male animal is:
2n, XY
301
The diploid chromosome number is always:
An even number
302
Meiosis occurs:
Only in reproductive cells
303
The male gonads are the:
Testes
304
Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes?
Acrosome
305
Which part of the spermatozoa contains the most mitochondria?
Midpiece
306
The tail of the spermatozoa is used for:
Propulsion
307
The scrotum is a:
Sac of skin
308
In order to fully descend, the testes must pass through the:
Inguinal ring
309
What structure adjusts the position of the testes relative to the body according to the environmental temperature?
Cremaster muscle
310
The structure that connects the testes to the rest of the body is the:
Spermatic cord
311
What do the primary endocrine cells of the testes produce?
Androgens
312
Which hormone stimulates the primary endocrine cells of the testes?
LH
313
Cryptorchidism refers to a condition of one or more:
Undescended testes
314
The maturation and storage site for the immature spermatozoa is the:
Epididymis
315
A Sertoli cell tumor can produce high blood levels of:
Estrogen
316
One of the typical clinical signs of a Sertoli cell tumor may be:
Gynecomastia
317
What two structures does the vas deferens connect?
Urethra and epididymis
318
Which animals don't have seminal vesicles?
Dogs and cats
319
The only accessory reproductive gland in canines is the:
Prostate gland
320
Which accessory reproductive gland secretes a mucinous fluid that lubricates the urethra for passage of semen?
Bulbourethral gland
321
Cowper's glands are another name for the:
Bulbourethral gland
322
The majority of the volume of semen is composed of:
Alkaline secretions from accessory reproductive glands
323
Erectile tissue is composed of:
Fibrous connective tissue and sinuses
324
Which species of animal has short spines covering the glans of the penis?
Feline
325
Which species of animal has an os penis?
Canine
326
The species of animals that "tie" after the male has ejaculated is the:
Canine
327
The best way to "untie" a male and female after the male has ejaculated is to:
Do nothing until it happens naturally
328
The female reproductive organs are suspended from the dorsal part of the abdominal wall by the:
Broad ligaments
329
The female gonads are the:
Ovaries
330
The female gametes are:
Ova
331
On average, how often are oocytes replaced in the ovaries?
Never
332
Which two hormones are produced in the ovary?
Estrogen and progestins
333
Which hormone produced by the ovary prepares the uterus for implantation and pregnancy?
Progesterone
334
Which hormone produced by the ovary is responsible for preparing a female for breeding and pregnancy?
Estrogen
335
A Uniparous animal:
Gives birth to one offspring per pregnancy
336
Ovulation occurs spontaneously in which species?
Dogs and horses
337
The rising level of which hormone induces spontaneous ovulation?
LH
338
Which species is an induced ovulator?
Feline
339
The first stage a follicle goes through after ovulation is the:
Corpus Hemorrhagicum
340
When a mature reproductive gamete is ovulated, it is surrounded by a layer of cells called the:
Corona radiata
341
The corpus luteum produces which hormone that is necessary for pregnancy to be maintained if fertilization takes place?
Progesterone
342
The usual site for fertilization of a mature female gamete by a mature male gamete is in the:
Oviduct
343
The finger-like projections that make sure the mature female gamete gets caught when it is ovulated are the:
Fimbriae
344
If fertilization is going to happen, where must the spermatozoa be when ovulation takes place?
Oviduct
345
The thickest layer of the uterus is made up of:
Smooth muscle
346
The cervix is located between the:
Uterine body and the vagina
347
The only portion of the female reproductive system that is visible from the outside is the:
Vulva
348
What female part is equivalent to the male penis?
Clitoris
349
The timing for breeding is controlled by the:
Estrous cycle
350
Which two hormones are directly responsible for the physical and behavioral changes that are associated with a female in heat?
Estrogen and progestins
351
Which animal is a polyestrous animal?
Bovine cow
352
Which animal is seasonally polyestrous?
Feline queen
353
Which animal is diestrous?
Canine bitch
354
During which stage of the estrous cycle do estrogen levels reach their peak?
Estrus
355
During which stage of the estrous cycle can dogs develop a pseudopregnancy?
Diestrus
356
If no pregnancy begins during an estrous cycle, when does the corpus luteum degenerate?
Late diestrus
357
In the dog, the cytology of the epithelial lining of the ______ can be utilized to determine the most effective time to breed a bitch.
Vagina
358
Sexual stimuli in the male results from high levels of ____ in the female.
Estrogen
359
Which two species deposit semen directly into the uterus during ejaculation?
Equine and porcine
360
In species that don't deposit semen directly into uterus, where does ejaculation deposit it?
Upper portion of the vagina
361
Copulation results in the release of _____, a hormone, from the posterior pituitary gland.
Oxytocin
362
Spermatozoa are transported to the oviducts in just minutes due primarily to:
Uterine contractions
363
Capacitation is the term for:
The changes spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract.
364
The acrosome of the spermatozoa is found:
Covering the head of the spermatozoa
365
The acrosome of the spermatozoa contains:
Digestive enzymes
366
What is the maximum number of spermatozoa that can enter an ovum to fertilize the ovum?
1
367
In addition to the corona radiata, a spermatozoa must also pass through the _____. a thick gel that surrounds the ovum, to fertilize the ovum.
Zona pellucida
368
As soon as an ovum is fertilized it is called a:
Zygote
369
A pronulceus has a:
Haploid chromosome number
370
The rapid mitosis that occurs while the fertilized ovum is moving toward the uterus is:
Cleavage
371
What stage of zygote development implants in the uterus?
Blastocyst
372
Implantation occurs in the ____ of the uterus.
Endometrium
373
The multilayered, fluid-filled, membranous sac that develops around an embryo is the:
Placenta
374
The umbilical cord connects the:
Fetus to the placenta
375
The blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus is the:
Umbilical vein
376
The urachus carries fluid from the fetal urinary bladder to the:
Allantoic sac
377
How many placental sacs surround a fetus during its development?
2
378
The part of the placenta that attaches to the uterus is the:
Chorion
379
Which membrane of the placenta forms a sac immediately around the fetus?
Amnion
380
Which type of placental attachment is characterized by attachment sites called placentomes?
Cotyledonary
381
A placentome consists of an area on the surface of the placenta called the:
Cotyledon
382
A placentome consists of an area on the lining of the uterus called the:
Caruncle
383
Which type of placental attachment is seen in dogs and cats?
Zonary
384
Which type of placental attachment is seen in pigs and horses?
Diffuse
385
Which type of placental attachment is most likely to give rise to a retained placenta?
Cotyledonary
386
Which type of placental attachment is seen in cattle and sheep?
Cotyledonary
387
When does an embryo become a fetus?
During the second trimester of pregnancy
388
When during pregnancy do body tissues, organs, and systems develop?
During the second trimester of pregnancy
389
The period of pregnancy for dogs and cats is approximately:
2 months
390
Humans and _____ have approximately the same period of pregnancy, 9 months.
Cattle
391
What three compounds must interact to begin uterine contractions?
Estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandin F2-alpha
392
During what stage of labor does the cervix relax?
First stage
393
During what stage of labor do the placental sacs rupture?
Second stage
394
Which stage of labor is characterized by strong uterine and abdominal muscle contractions?
Second stage
395
During what stage of labor is the placenta delivered?
Third stage
396
During what stage of labor is the fetus delivered?
Second stage
397
Another name for a difficult birth is:
Dystocia
398
An embryotomy is performed on a/an:
Dead fetus
399
The return of the uterus to its nonpregnant size after giving birth is called _____ of the uterus.
Involution
400
Which species of animal has mammary glands only in the inguinal region?
Equine
401
How many quarters of a bovine udder share one milk-secreting system?
None
402
Where does milk accumulate when milk letdown has occurred?
Gland sinus and teat sinus
403
The milk-secreting units of the mammary gland are the:
Alveoli
404
The streak canal connects the _____ to the outside.
Teat sinus
405
Most of the hormones from the _____ are involved in some way with mammary gland growth and development.
Anterior pituitary gland
406
Lactation is started under the influence of:
Prolactin, growth hormone, and adrenal cortex hormones.
407
Lactation begins:
Toward the end of the third trimester of pregnancy.
408
The difference between milk and colostrum is that colostrum has:
A higher level of antibodies
409
In order for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to offspring, the newborn must have colostrum within:
A few hours after birth
410
How long does the passive immunity a newborn receives from its mother last?
Unknown
411
There is often a normal short delay between when a newborn starts nursing and when milk starts freely flowing from the teat because of delay in the action of:
Oxytocin
