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OPBS > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Common iliac arteries bifurcate at __
Branches of internal iliac:
Visceral innervation is from __

A

At SIJ / L5
- “I love going in my very own underwear”
- Posterior
- Iliolumbar
- Lateral sacral
- Gluteal (superior)
- Anterior
- Gluteal (inferior)
- Pudendal (internal)
- Middle rectal
- Vaginal
- Obturator
- Uterine
- Visceral innervation comes only from anterior divisions

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2
Q

Attachments to the pubic crest

A
  • Conjoint tendon
  • External oblique
  • Rectus abdominus
  • Pyramidalis
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3
Q

Greater sciatic foramen
- borders
- contents

A
  • Borders
    • Superior - anterior SI ligament
    • Posteromedial - sacrotuberous ligament
    • Inferior - sacrospinous ligament and ischial spine
    • Anterolateral - greater sciatic notch
  • Contents
    • Piriformis
    • Superior and inferior gluteal nerves and vessels
    • Sacral plexus nerves
      • Pudendal (leaving)
      • Sciatic
      • Poster femoral cutaneous
      • Nerve to obturator internus (leaving)
      • Nerve to quadratus femoris
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4
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen
- borders
- contents

A
  • Borders
    • Superior - sacrospinous ligament
    • Posterior - sacrotuberous ligament
    • Inferior - ischial tuberosity
    • Anterior - lesser sciatic notch
  • Contents
    • Obturator internus tendon
    • Internal pudendal vessels
    • Pudendal nerve (re-entering)
    • Nerve to obturator internus (re-entering)
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5
Q

Lumbosacral plexus
- relation to sciatic foraminae
- runs between the ___

A

anterolateral
superior and inferiori gluteal arteries

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6
Q

Branches of lumbosacral plexus and their roots

A
  • Iliohypogastric T12-L1
  • Ilioinguinal L1
  • Genitofemoral L1-2
  • Lateral femoral cutaneous L2-3
  • Obturator L2-4
  • Femoral L2-4
  • Branch to psoas major L1-3
  • Superior gluteal L4-S1
  • Inferior gluteal L5-S2
  • Posterior femoral cutaneous S1-3
  • Branches to piriformis, obturator interns, quadratus femoris L5-S2
  • Sciatic - L4-S3
  • Pudendal S2-S4
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7
Q

Obturator nerve
- which divisions
- formed where
- splits where
- divisions are separated by
- which divisions supply hip and knee joint

A

Anterior L2-4
psoas
obturator foramen
adductor brevis
anterior - hip | posterior - knee

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8
Q

Femoral nerve
- which divisions
- tibial nerve is between

A

Posterior L2-4
FHL/FDL

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9
Q

Femoral triangle
- borders
- contents

A
  • Boundaries
    • Superior - Inguinal ligament
    • Lateral - Medial sartorius
    • Medial - Medial adductor longus
    • Floor - iliac, psoas, pectineus, adductor longus
  • Contents
    • Femoral nerve
    • LCN of thigh
    • Anterior division obturator nerve
    • Femoral artery and vein
    • Deep inguinal lymph nodes
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10
Q

Contents of inguinal canal

A
  • Spermatic cord / round ligament
    • Ilioinguinal nerve
    • Genital branch of genitogfemoral nerve
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11
Q

Femoral artery
- profunda femoris artery arises where
- branches of profunda
- enters adductor canal ___ to sartorious

A

4cm below inguinal ligament
MCFA / LCFA / perforating arteries
deep to sartorious

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12
Q

Adductors
- adductor longus splits the ___
- adductor brevis splits the ___
- Magnus is supplied by ___

A

femoral nerve and profunda femoris artery
anterior and posterior division of obturator nerve
hamstring section = tibial | adductor section = posterior obturator

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13
Q

Adductor canal
- gutter between ___
- contents
- which structure is in the middle

A

vastus medialis, sartorius, adductor longus
- femoral artery and vein
- saphenous nerve
- nerve to vastus medialis
artery is in the middle

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14
Q

Heads of rectus acetabulum

A

straight head from AIIS
reflected head from acetabulum

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15
Q

Popliteal fossa
- order of structures
- which gastroc higher
- which gastroc has fabella

A

artery anterior → vein → nerve
medial higher
lateral fabella

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16
Q

Layers of the knee medial and lateral

A
  • MEDIAL
    • 1 - sartorius and deep fascia
    • Gracilis and semitendinosis are then between 1 and 2
    • 2 - semimembranosus, superficial MCL, posterior oblique ligament and medial patellofemoral ligament
    • 3 - deep MCL, capsule and coronary ligament
  • LATERAL
    • 1 - ITB, biceps femoris, fascia
    • 2 - patella retinaculum, patellofemoral ligament
    • 3 - LCL, arcuate ligament, fabellofibular capsule
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17
Q

MCL
- attachments on femur and tibia
- deep has greatest stability at ___
- superficial has greatest stability at ___

A

1cm anterior and distal to adductor tubercle
4.5cm distal to joint line
extension
25 deg flexion

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18
Q

ACL
- intracapsular ? intrasynovial?
- two bundles - tight in which position - what function
- blood supply
- nerve supply

A

intracapsular but extrasynovial
AM - flexion - anterior drawer
PL - extension - rotation
middle genicalr artery
posterior articular branch (from tibial)

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19
Q

Popliteofibular ligament
- attachments
- particularly important in ___

A

MT junction of popliteus to fibula head
ACL deficient knees

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20
Q

Knee joint innervation from:

A

posterior branch of tibial
posterior division of obturator
recurrent peroneal branch of CPN

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21
Q

Ligament attachments of:
short and long plantar ligaments
spring ligament
bifurcate ligament
cervical ligament

A

calcaneus to cuboid
sustentaculum tali on the calcaneus, to navicular
calcaneus to navicular and cuboid
calcaneus to talar neck

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22
Q

Muscle layers of the foot
What is nerve supply
Which layer are nerves/arteries in

A

Medial plantar nerve - abductor hallucis, FDB, FHB, 1st lumbrical
Between 1 and 2

  • 1
    • FDB
    • Abductor hallucis
    • Abductor digiti minimi
  • 2
    • FHL
    • FDL
    • Quadrates plantae
    • Lumbricals
  • 3
    • FHB
    • FDMB
    • Adductor hallucis
  • 4
    • Dorsal interossei
    • Plantar interossei
    • Peroneus longus
    • Tibialis posterior
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23
Q

Interossei of the foot
- how many of each
- which phalanx is the axis
- nerve supply of the interossei

A

3x PAD, 4x DAB
2nd phalanx
lateral plantar nerve

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24
Q

Brachial plexus
- which parts behind which structures

A
  • Roots - scalene muscles
  • Trunks - posterior triangle
  • Divisions - clavicle
  • Cords - axilla
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25
Q

Draw the brachial plexus

A
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26
Q

Clavipectoral fascia pierced by:

A

NAVL
- Lateral pectoral nerve
- Thoracoacromial artery
- Cephalic vein
- Lymphatics

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27
Q

branche sof subclavian artery

A
  • “VIT C and D”
    • Vertebral artery
    • Internal thoracic artery
    • Thyrocervical trunk
    • Costocervical trunk
    • Dorsal scapular artery
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28
Q

Branches of axillary artery

A
  • First part
    • Superior thoracic
  • Second
    • Thoracoacromial
    • Lateral thoracic
  • Third
    • Subscapular
    • Anterior circumflex humeral
    • Posterior circumflex humeral
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29
Q

Branches of thoracoacromial artery

A
  • Clavicular
  • Acromial
  • Pectoral
  • Deltoid
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30
Q

Branches of the radial nerve to the triceps

A

2x to medial head
1x each to lateral and long

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31
Q

Cubital fossa
- borders
- contents
- order of structures

A

BR, pronator teres, and line between epicondyles
median nerve, brachial artery, biceps tendon, radial nerve + PIN
lateral is tendon → artery → nerve

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32
Q

Arcade of of Struther’s
- what is it
- what does it case
Struther’s ligament
- what is it
- what does it cause

A
  • Aponeurotic band from medial head of triceps to medial inter muscular septum
    • Can cause entrapment the ulna nerve AFTER anterior transposition
    • Medial supracondylar process to medial epicondyle = remnant of third head of coracobrachialis
    • Can cause entrapment of median nerve and brachial artery
33
Q

Elbow ligaments
- what are the lateral ligaments
- what are the medial ligaments
- of medial ligaments, which is strongest, which is always taut
- carrying angle of elbow male and female

A
  • Lateral
    • Annular ligament
    • Radial collateral
    • Lateral ulna collateral
    • Accessory collateral
  • Medial
    • Anterior bundle (strongest and always taut)
    • Posterior bundle
    • Transverse ligament

13 deg women
7 deg men

34
Q

Guyon’s canal
- what’s in it, and what’s the order

A

ulna nerve medial to ulna artery

35
Q

ORIF for Bennet’s frafcture
- Dorsal approach risks ___
- Volar approach risks ___

A

dorsal branch radial artery
recurrent branch median nerve

36
Q

Palmar aponeurosis attaches to

A

volar plate of MCPJs
2-5th metacarpals
proximal phalanges

37
Q

Hand interosseous muscles
- how many, and which do which

A

4x dorsal - abduct
3x palmar - adduct

38
Q

Anterior cord syndrome
- involves ___
- prognosis is ___
- bladder/bowel Y/N

A

everything except dorsal column
poor
yes

39
Q

Central cord syndrome
- it is the most common ___
- prognosis is ___
- mechanism thought to be ___
- distribution of sensory and motor function
- bladder/bowel Y/N

A

incomplete cord injury
good
cord compression and oedema
motor in upper limb, sensory in lower
yes

40
Q

Brown-Sequard
- ipsilateral loss of ___
- contralateral loss of ___
- prognosis is ___

A

motor, proprioception, vibration
pain and temperature
good

41
Q

Anterior scalene muscle
- origin/insertion
- nerve supply
- anterior relation(s)
- posterior relation(s)

A

anterior tubercles C3-6 - to first rib
C4-6
- phrenic nerve, vagus nerve, subclavian vein, transverse cervical artery
- subclavian artery

42
Q

NV bundle in ribs
- sits above or below
- between which muscle layers
- orientation of NV bundle

A

under rib
innermost intercostals and inner intercostals
from above down VAN

43
Q

Branches of the external carotid artery

A
  • “Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students”
  • Superior thyroid
  • Ascending pharyngeal
  • Lingual
  • Facial
  • Occipital
  • Posterior auricular
  • Maxillary (terminal)
  • Superficial temporal (terminal)
44
Q

Sternocostal vs costochondral joints - which is synovial

A

sternocostal

45
Q

Neural crest
- group of cells arising from ___
give rise to ___

A

ectoderm layer
- melanocytes
- craniofacial cartilage and bone
- smooth muscle
- peripheral and enteric neurons

46
Q

Mechanisms of intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification
endochondral occurs where

A

intramembranous - bone develops from mesenchymal tissue
endochondral - bone replaces hyaline cartilage

secondary bone healing
longitudinal physical growth
embryonic long bone formation

47
Q

Age of primary ossification centres in the foot

A

in utero
- metatarsals 9 weeks
- calc 6 months
- talus 7 months
- cuboid 9 months
after birth
- lateral cuneiform 1year
- medial cuneiform 3 years
- intermediate cuneiform and navicular 4 years

48
Q

ossification centres hip and femur
- pelvis forms? fuses?
- triradiate cartilage fuses?
- femoral shaft ossifies
- femoral head ossifies
- GT ossifies
- LT ossifies
when do femoral centres fuse

A

pubis, ischium, ilium form in utero, acetabulum puberty
fuses 7-9
TC fuses 20-25
fem shaft7 weeks in utero
ossifies 6 months
GT 2-4 years
LT puberty
all fuse 14-18 years

49
Q

Shoulder ossification centres
- what is unique about clavicle
- medial ossifies? fuses?
scapula areas and when do they ossify
proximal humerus areas and when do they ossify

A

1st to ossify and last for epiphyseal closure
15 years, fuses at 25
scapula:
body - 8 weeks in utero
2x coracoid - 12-18 months
glenoid 10
inferior angle puberty
medial border puberty
3x acromion puberty
humerus:
shaft 8 weeks in utero
head 1-6 months
GT 1 year
LT 3-5 years

50
Q

Limb buds
- form when
- rotate ___

A

3-4 weeks
externally then internally

51
Q

ligamentum teres
- attaches to which part of acetabulum
- tight in ___
- supplied by ___

A

anterior superior part
flexion and abduction
obturator artery and MCF artery

52
Q

Spaces in the axilla

A
  • Quadrangular space
    • LH triceps, humerus, teres major, teres minor
    • Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
  • Triangular space
    • LH triceps, teres major, teres minor
    • Scapular circumflex artery (terminal branch of subscapular artery)
  • Triangular interval
    • LH triceps, lateral head triceps / humerus, teres major
    • Radial nerve and profunda brachii
53
Q

Ossification centres
- distal radius
- distal ulna
- distal femur
- patella
- proximal tibia
- proximal fibula
- distal tibia
- distal fibula

A
  • distal radius 1
  • distal ulna 4
  • distal femur 0
  • patella 4
  • proximal tibia 0
  • proximal fibula 4
  • distal tibia 6 months
  • distal fibula 1
54
Q

cervical spine
- spinous processes are ___
- uncinate process is on ___
- uncovertebral joints are in which plane
- uncovertebrla joints ?synovial

A
  • bifid
  • superior lateral aspect of C3-7 only
  • coronal
  • no
55
Q

cervical rib
- uni or bilateral
- communicates with
- how is it formed
- which structures at risk

A

usually unilateral
sternum / 1st rib / costal cartilage
persistent ossification of C7 lateral costal element
C8/T1 nerve roots, subclavian vein

56
Q
  • annulus fibrosus fibres
A
  • 25-45 deg to horizontal plane, and others run 90 deg to those
57
Q

nucleus pulposus
- derived from ___ which is derived from ___
- lies where in IVD
- comprises how much of IVD
- comprises how much water

A
  • notochord, mesoderm
  • posteriorly
  • 15%
  • 90%, deg to 70% old age
58
Q

ALL
- origin insertion
- broad/narrow
- attachment to periosteum and IVD
PLL
- origin insertion
- superiorly continues as
- attachment to periosteum and IVD

A

anterior tubercle of atlas (narrow) to anterior sacrum (broad)
firmly to periosteum, loosely to IVD

back of body of axis, to sacral canal
tectorial membrane
loosely to periosteum, firmly to IVD

59
Q

facet joints
- ?synovial
- ligamentum flavum attaches to
- nerve supply

A

yes
capsule, and from anterior upper lamina to posterior lower
own nerve and one above

60
Q

C1
- lacks a
- which arch is larger
- anterior rami go ___ joints

A
  • centrum (body)
  • posterior
  • behind
61
Q

Atlanta-occipital joint
- synovial?
- flexion/extension?
- posterior atlanto-occipital membrane is deficient where, and why?

A

yes
yes
deficient laterally to allow suboccipital nerve and vertebral artery

62
Q

atlanto-axial joint
- synovial?
- nerve supply

A

yes
C2

63
Q

C1/2 ligaments
- apical ligament where to where / ?strong / remnant of
- alar ligaments where to where / ?strong
- cruciform ligament where to where / ?strong

A
  • tip of dens to anterior foramen magnum / weak / notochord
  • tip of dens to sides of foramen magnum / strong
  • transverse ligament of atlas crosses behind dens, longitudinal component then connects body of C2 to anterior foramen magnum / strong
64
Q

tectorial membrane
- extension of
- attaches where to where
- relation to cruciform ligament

A
  • PLL
  • posterior body of axis to anterior foramen magnum
  • immediately behind
65
Q

pre-vertebral fascia
- contains
- forms a sheath for
- extends from where to where
- pierced by 4 nerves

A
  • sympathetic trunk, brachial plexus, phrenic nerve, pre-vertebral muscles, vertebral column
  • brachial plexus, subclavian artery and vein
  • base of cranium to T3
  • greater auricular, lesser occipital, supraclavicular, transverse cervical
66
Q

ossification centres of the spine

A

3x primary - vertebral body and 2x for neural crest (pedicles)
- appear 9 weeks in utero, fuse by age 6
5x secondary centres - spinous process, 2x transverse processes, superior and inferior vertebral body
- appear at puberty, fuse by 25

67
Q

PTH secreted by
calcitonin secreted by

A

parathyroid cells
parafollicular cells (Chief cells) in thyroid

68
Q

sympathetic parasympathetic nerve anatomy

A

sympathetic - T1 to L2
para - cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10 and S2-4

69
Q

structures in carotid sheath

A

common carotid artery
internal carotid artery
internal jugular vein
vagus nerve

70
Q

anterior and posterior spinal arteries

A

anterior - single artery - from vertebral artery - runs immediately anterior along cord
posterior - pair of them - from vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery - runs immediately posterior along cord

71
Q

dermatomes of iliac crest

A

T11-L2

72
Q

proximal femur anastamoses

A

trochanteric
- descending superior gluteal
- ascending medial circumflex
- ascending lateral circumflex
- ascending inferior gluteal
cruciate
- descending inferior gluteal
- transverse medial circumflex
- transverse lateral circumflex
- ascending perforator

73
Q

three columns of spine

A

anterior - ALL, anterior half of body and disc
middle - PLL, posterior half of body and disc
posterior - rest

74
Q

primary cartilaginous joint example
secondary cartilaginous joint examples

A

primary - 1st sternocostal joint
secondary
- pubic symphysis
- manubriosternal joint

75
Q

carotid triangle boundaries

A

SCM, posterior digastric, superior omohyoid

76
Q

confirming HIV diagnosis

A

ELISA screening
Western blot to confirm

77
Q

adductor pollicis origin insertion
lumbrical origin insertion
interossei origin insertion

A

oblique head - base of 2-3rd metacarpals and capitate
transverse head - anterior 3rd metacarpal body
insertion - base of proximal phalanx of thumb

FDP tendon to radial lateral bands of extensor expansion

palmar - unipennate muscles from 2,4,5 shafts, to extensor expansions and base of proximal phalanges
dorsal - bipennate muscles from adjacent metacarpals, to extensor expansion and base of proximal phalanx of 2-4

78
Q

endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm

A

endoderm - digestive tract and organs and all epithelial linings
mesoderm - bone, cartilage, muscle, connective tissue, dermis, spleen, notochord
ectoderm - brain, spinal cord, pituitary, motor neurons, neural crest

79
Q

anterior posterior axilla

A

posterior wall - subscapularis, teres major and latissimus dorsi.

Anterior wall - pec major and the underlying pec minor,

OPBS (4 decks)

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