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MRCS > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what pharyngeal pouch is the thyroid derived from?

A

Foramen cecum (Endoderm)

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2
Q

Posterior mediastinum organs?

A

oesophagus, descending thoracic aorta, azygos hemiazygos veins, thoracic duct.

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3
Q

Superior Mediastinum organs?

A

thymus, trachea, esophagus, thoracic duct, aortic arch, veins (superior vena cava, brachiocephalic, left superior intercostal), nerves (vagus, phrenic, left recurrent laryngeal)

(Try To Eat Toast And Vitamins Now Little Oliver)

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4
Q

what nerve supplies the anterior part of nasal septum?

A

Anterior ethmoidal nerve (CN V1)

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5
Q

what part of the nasal septum does the medial posterior superior nasal nerve supply ?

A

inferior/posterior part of the nasal septum

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6
Q

what bacteria and other causes can cause acquired rhabdomyolysis?

A

Streptococcus and Clostridium difficile.

causes of acquired rhabdomyolysis include: heroin, cocaine, infection (steptococcus and clostridium) , ethanol, malignant hyperthermia.

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of Aspirin?

A

Inhibits platelets aggregation by COX.
COX is needed for thromboxane A2 synthesis which causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

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8
Q

what part of the genitourinary tract is derived from mesoderm?

A

Trigone of the bladder

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9
Q

what is MEN 1?

A

3 Ps. pituitary adenoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, pancreas tumours

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10
Q

what is MEN 2A?

A

parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma

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11
Q

what is MEN 2B?

A

Mucosal Neuromas, marfanoids habitus, pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer

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12
Q

what are the symptoms of adddison disease?

A

Abdominal pain, fever, diarrhea. hypotension. drop in cortisol

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13
Q

patient presents with weight loss, microcytic anaemia and palpable left supraclavicular lymph nodes. what is the diagnosis?

A

Gastric cancer. virchow’s nodes are more likely involved with gastric cancers than other GI cancers

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14
Q

Difference between ACL injury and medial meniscus tear?

A

ACL causes immediate symptoms (swelling and pain). medial meniscus tear has delayed symptoms and often no history of trauma.

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15
Q

Appropriate fluid maintenance for post operative patients in a normal uncomplicated procedure?

A

Oral fluids only

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16
Q

what is fluid of choice for pre-operative patient

A

Plasmalyte 1L over 8 hrs

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17
Q

fluid choice for a post operative hypotensive patient ?

A

500 ml bolus 0.9% normal saline.
250 mls if elderly or cardiac problems.

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18
Q

Patient coming in for an elective hernia repair was found to have HbA1c of 72 mmol/L. what is the appropriate management?

A

Reschedule the surgery

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19
Q

In burn injuries in children, at what % of burn do you start fluid resuscitation?

A

10% of the total body burnt
fluid resus = (3ml x %burn x kg)

20
Q

Management of 2 day old contaminated wound that was slashed with glass?

A

High pressure irrigation with syringe and green needle– as the wound is contaminated
closure with secondary intention
X-ray to rule out more glass fragments stuck in skin

21
Q

Tx of full thickness burns involving the back (10% total burn area?)

A

Surgical debridement and split thickness graft.
Full thickness skin graft is only useful is small burnt area

22
Q

Difference between IM nailing and external fixation approaches in children?

A

IM nailing is done in children with a closed physis.
External fixation is done in children with open physis

23
Q

what type of pts benefit from PEG/ NG tube

A

Unsafe swallow pts (after stroke for eg)

24
Q

Most appropriate nutrition option for pts with short gut syndrome (<60cms)?

A

TPN. as not enough surface area for absorption of nutrients

25
Q

Tx of chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Graduated compression stockings

26
Q

x-ray finding of perthes?

A

most common in kids 4-8 years old.
widening of the joint space on x-ray. Sclerotic head.

27
Q

Early complication of long bone fracture that was not repaired yet?

A

Fat embolus

28
Q

pre-cancerous precursor of SCC?

A

Bowen’s disease. red patches on the legs
Aktinic keratosis

29
Q

Underlying heart injury from a blunt trauma (sternum fracture?)

A

Myocardial contusion. Admit to monitor for cardiac arrythmias

30
Q

Melanoma >4mm thickness excision margin?

A

At least 3cm

31
Q

melanoma thickness 2-4 breslow excision margin?

A

2-3 cm

32
Q

melanoma in situ incision margin?

A

0.5cm

33
Q

symptoms of thrombophlebitis?

A

Blood clot formation in the (((superficial veins))) with pain and erythema

34
Q

Patient with recurrent DVTs and P.E, is on warfarin and INR is 2-3. what is the next choice of management?

A
  1. check adherence to tx
  2. check underlying cause
  3. increase the dose of anticoagulation

IVC filter only for patients who are unsuitable for anticoag

35
Q

Tx for patient with 4.3cm thyroid mass with no mets on CT

A

Total thyroidectomy + radioiodine remnant ablation

36
Q

Tx for 3cm papillary thyroid cancer with no mets?

A

Hemithyroidectomy with radioiodine ablation

37
Q

Immediate tx of tension pneumothorax?

A

Needle decompression in ipsilateral 5th intercoastal space

38
Q

Duration of VTE prophylaxis with LMWH for total hip replacement?

A

28 days

39
Q

Patient with pain between 2nd and 3rd metatarsal and associated with tenderness over 2nd and 3rd metatarsal and numbness

A

Morton’s neuroma

40
Q

Duration of warfarin Tx for patients with provoked P.E?

A

3 months

41
Q

Duration of warfarin in unprovoked P.E or VTE ?

A

6 months

42
Q

patient with fever, jaundice and RUQ pain 1 day post operatively after an uncomplicated cholecystectomy?

A

Charcots triad
cholangitis

43
Q

11 year old with perforated appendix and extremely distressed and does not understand the situation and attempts to contact parents are unsuccessful. WHAT is the next appropriate step?

A

proceed without consent. Consent form 4 is for adults only

44
Q

what investigation of choice for planning surgery for renal calculus?

A

non contrast CT-KUB is useful for filling defect

45
Q

What is the GCS for a patient who opens eyes when talking to him, withdraws arm away when cannula inserted and is mumbling inappropriate words?

A

10

46
Q

Indications of Bair Hugger?

A

1) Anaesthesia for longer than 30 minutes
2) high risk for perioperative hypothermia

47
Q

management in the intoxicated patient who is maintaing their airway and chest examination is clear with BP of 80/60 and HR of 120 with no obvious signs of external haemorrhage

A

Warmed fluid bolus of 1-2 L

MRCS (4 decks)

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