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ANAT 316 > anat_316_20190108163644 > Flashcards

anat_316_20190108163644 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two components to the skull?

A

facial skeleton (viscerocranium) and cranial vault (neurocranium)

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2
Q

How many bones are there in the facial and cranial component of the skull?

A

14 facial bones, 8 cranial bones

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3
Q

The frontal view of the skull includes every skull bone except…

A

occipital and palatine bones

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4
Q

Which bone is the only bone not directly attached to the skull?

A

mandible

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5
Q

Which facial bone is diamond shaped?

A

zygomatic bone

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6
Q

What is the name of the process located on the maxilla and mandible?

A

alveolar process (contains the teeth)

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7
Q

What do the foramina located on the skull allow?

A

passage of nerves

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8
Q

Which bone is responsible for ethnic facial features

A

zygomatic bone

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9
Q

What makes up the zygomatic arch?

A

temporal process of the zygomatic bone + the zygomatic process of the temporal bone

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10
Q

What are the names of the two sections of the temporal bone?

A

squamous (flat) and petrous (rocky)

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11
Q

What makes up the temporal fossa?

A

squamous temporal bone with the greater wing of the sphenoid + lower portion of the parietal bone

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12
Q

Where do the frontal bone and the parietal bone meet?

A

coronal suture

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13
Q

Where do the parietal bone and the occipital bone meet?

A

lamboid suture

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14
Q

What is the name of the area where the parietal, frontal, sphenoid, and temporal bones join?

A

pterion

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15
Q

Where do the paired parietal bones unite?

A

sagital suture

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16
Q

What feature of the occipital bone is responsible for muscle attachment?

A

superior nuchal line

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17
Q

Where do the occipital condyles and the atlas articulate?

A

atlanto-occipital joint

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18
Q

Where does the spinal cord pass through?

A

foramen magnum

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19
Q

What separates the nasal choanae?

A

vomer bone

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20
Q

What is the hard palate composed of?

A

palatine bones posteriorly + palatine processes of the maxilla anteriorly

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21
Q

The pterygoid plates and the inferior orbital fissure are lateral to which feature?

A

choanae

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22
Q

What is the floor of the anterior cranial fossa made up of?

A

horizontal plate of the frontal bone and the cribriform plate and crista galli

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23
Q

What makes up the roof of the orbit?

A

horizontal plate of the frontal bone

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24
Q

Which cranial fossa is butterfly shaped?

A

middle cranial fossa

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25
Q

What is the central region of the sphenoid bone?

A

sella turcica (roof of sphenoid body)

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26
Q

Where are the optic canals located?

A

between the anterior clinoid processes

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27
Q

Which feature is anterior to the foramen magnum and runs up towards the sella turcica

A

clivus

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28
Q

What do the grooves on the wall of the fossa indicate?

A

the course of the transverse and sigmoid sinuses

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29
Q

What does the frontal bone contain?

A

frontal sinuses and the supraorbital notch

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30
Q

Which bones form the walls and roof of the cranium?

A

parietal bones

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31
Q

What are the main features of the occipital bone?

A

foramen magnum, hypoglossal canals, occipital condyles

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32
Q

The auditory tube, middle ear and inner ear are part of which bone?

A

temporal bone

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33
Q

The upper half of the temporal bone is __________ while the lower half is __________.

A

squamous, petrous

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34
Q

Which bone has a vertical and horizontal plate and two lateral masses?

A

ethmoid bone

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35
Q

These paired shell-shaped bones arise from the maxillae.

A

inferior concha

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36
Q

How many bones are present in the superior alveolar process?

A

16

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37
Q

The horizontal palatine process is the anterior _____ of the hard palate.

A

4/5

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38
Q

What are the two foramina of the maxilla

A

infraorbital and incisive foramina

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39
Q

Which bone is L shaped?

A

mandible or palatine

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40
Q

The vertical arm of the mandible is called the ______ and the horizontal arm is called the ______.

A

ramus, body

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41
Q

Where do the two halves of the mandible meet?

A

mental protuberance (point of the jaw)

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42
Q

What do the condyloid processes articulate with?

A

mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

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43
Q

Where does the nerve to the lower teeth pass through?

A

mandibular foramen

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44
Q

The horizontal plate of the palatine bone is the _____ of the hard palate.

A

1/5

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45
Q

The vertical plate of the palatine bone forms the posterior ___ of the lateral nasal wall

A

1/3

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46
Q

Where are the tear ducts located?

A

lacrimal bone

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47
Q

What shape is the vomer bone?

A

triangle

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48
Q

Which bone hangs below the floor of the mouth?

A

hyoid bone

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49
Q

What is suspended from the hyoid bone?

A

larynx

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50
Q

How many bones in the facial skeleton?

A

14

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51
Q

How many bones in the cranial vault?

A

8

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52
Q

Frontal bone

A
  • vertical plate = forehead- horizontal plate = roof of orbit- contains frontal sinuses and supraorbital notch
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53
Q

Maxilla

A
  • has zygomatic and frontal processes- makes up part of medial and inferior border of orbit- contains 2 foramina:1. infraorbital 2. incisive
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54
Q

How many teeth each in the Maxilla and Mandible bones?

A

16

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55
Q

What feature makes the mandible unique?

A

What feature makes the mandible unique?- It is not directly attached to the skull- L shaped- vertical portion is the ramus- horizontal portion is the body

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56
Q

condyloid process

A
  • articular process of mandible with mandibular fossa of temporal bone- forms temporomandibular joint
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57
Q

coronoid process

A
  • gives attachment to a large muscle
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58
Q

mandibular foramen

A
  • nerve to lower teeth passes through here
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59
Q

Zygomatic bone

A
  • cheek bones- has frontal, maxillary and temporal processes
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60
Q

Hyoid bone

A
  • hangs below the floor of the mouth supported by various muscles- larynx is suspended from it- has body and greater and lesser cornu (horns)
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61
Q

Alveolar process

A

(both maxilla and mandible have them)

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62
Q

Mental foramen

A

allow passage of nerves

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63
Q

Which bones make up the zygomatic arch?

A

Temporal process of the zygomatic bone, zygomatic process of temporal bone

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64
Q

Greater wing of the sphenoid bone

A
  • contributes to the superior orbital fissure- contains foramina rotundum, ovale, spinosum
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65
Q

Sphenoid bone

A
  • unpaired- shaped like big eared owl- body contains sphenoid sinuses (bone is hollow)- sella turcica on upper surface- greater wings attached to body
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66
Q

pterygoid process

A

consists of the medial and lateral pterygoid plates with pterygoid fossa between them

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67
Q

Temporal bone

A
  • has upper flat squamous and petrous (not flat) sections- located by the “temple”- contains auditory tube, middle ear, and inner ear- petrous portion contains: internal and external acoustic meatuses, zygomatic, mastoid and styloid processes, part of jugular foramen, foramen lacerum and carotid canal
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68
Q

Which bones make up the temporal fossa?

A

Squamous temporal bone, greater wing of sphenoid bone, lower portion of parietal bone

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69
Q

Parietal bone (s)

A
  • united by the sagittal suture- form walls and roof of cranium- articulate with frontal bone at coronal suture- articulate with sphenoid bone- articulate with occipital bone at lambdoid suture- articulate with temporal bone at squamous suture
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70
Q

Which bones is the coronal suture between?

A

Which bones is the coronal suture between?Frontal and parietal bones

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71
Q

Which bones is the lambdoid suture between?

A

between parietal bone and occipital bone

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72
Q

What is the Pterion?

A

The area where the parietal, fontal, sphenoid and temporal bones join

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73
Q

Occipital bone

A
  • unpaired- forms posterior portion of the base of the skull - features: foramen magnum, hypoglossal canals, occipital condyles
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74
Q

occipital condyles articulate with the

A

atlas

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75
Q

spinal cord passes through:

A

Foramen magnum

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76
Q

Vomer bone

A

Vomer bone

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77
Q

palatine bones

A
  • L shaped- horizontal plate is the posterior 1/5 of the hard palate- vertical plate forms
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78
Q

Palatine processes

A
  • anterior 4/5 of the hard palate
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79
Q

lacrimal bone

A
  • small bone located on medial wall of orbit- partially forms opening of nasolacrimal canal- contribute to lateral nasal wall
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80
Q

Hypoglossal canal (inferior view)

A
  • in the wall of the foramen magnum
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81
Q

Anterior cranial fossa

A
  • floor made up of horizontal plate of frontal bone and cribriform plate and crista galli (both of ethmoid bone)- horizontal plate is also the roof of the orbitposterior border of the fossa formed by the lesser wing and jugum of the sphenoid with the anterior clinoid processes projecting posteriorly from medial end of the wings
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82
Q

ethmoid bone

A
  • makes up most of nasal skeleton and medial wall of the orbit- vertical and horizontal plate- two lateral masses- includes cribriform plate and crista galli
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83
Q

Lesser wing of sphenoid bone

A
  • cenrally-located jugum- optic canals medial to clinoid processes- forms upper margin of superior orbital fissure
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84
Q

vertical plate of ethmoid bone

A

forms half of bony nasal septum

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85
Q

inferior nasal conchae

A
  • paired, shell shaped- arises from MAXILLA not ethmoid bone- it is SEPARATE from the other 2 conchae- forms part of the lateral wall of nose
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86
Q

middle cranial fossa

A
  • butterfly shaped- sphenoid body is the insect and greater wing and temporal bone are the wings- sella turcica in the centre with paired anterior and posterior clinoid processes bordering it- includes: optic canals, superior orbital fissures, foramina rotundum, ovale, spinosum, and lacerum
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87
Q

sella turcica

A
  • roof of the sphenoid body
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88
Q

optic canals

A
  • between anterior clinoid processes - connects brain case to orbit
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89
Q

Superior orbital fissures

A
  • between greater and lesser wings of sphenoid
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90
Q

foramina lacerum

A
  • carotid canal opens into the middle fossa just lateral to the foramen lacerum
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91
Q

How many poles does the brain have?

A

3 frontal, temporal, occipital pole

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92
Q

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for _______ and the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for _______.

A

fight or flightrest and digest

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93
Q

What is the largest area of the brain?

A

telencephalon

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94
Q

What divides the left and right hemisphere of the telencephalon?

A

sagital fissure/sulcus

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95
Q

What separates the telencephalon from the cerebellum?

A

horizontal fissure

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96
Q

What separates the temporal lobe of the telencephalon from the upper part of the cerebrum?

A

lateral fissure

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97
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the telencephalon?

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal lobe

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98
Q

What is the outer covering of the telencephalon called?

A

cortex

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99
Q

The fold of the cortex are called…

A

gyri (bumps) and sulci (valleys)

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100
Q

The precentral gyrus is the ____ cortex.

A

motor (movement is initiated here)

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101
Q

The postcentral gyrus is the _____ cortex.

A

sensory

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102
Q

Where is the diencephalon located?

A

the centre of the base of the cerebrum

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103
Q

What are the 4 components of the diencephalon?

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus

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104
Q

The thalamus is a large nucleus located on both sides of the _________.

A

third ventricle

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105
Q

What senses go through the thalamus?

A

every sense BUT smell

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106
Q

What is situated below the thalamus and connected to the pituitary gland?

A

hypothalamus

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107
Q

The _______ is located below the thalamus.

A

subthalamus

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108
Q

The _______ is a small nucleus located behind the thalamus.

A

epithalamus

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109
Q

What does the grey matter of the cerebrum contain?

A

cell bodies of the neurons

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110
Q

The grey matter is confined to the ________ and the ________.

A

cortex, basal ganglia

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111
Q

The _________ are deep nuclei and mostly related to motor function.

A

basal ganglia

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112
Q

What are the different basal ganglia?

A

lentiform nucleus, caudate nucleus, amygdala

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113
Q

The thalamus and the internal capsule are made up of ________.

A

white matter (fibres, axons)

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114
Q

What are the three types of white matter fibres?

A

association, commissural, and projection fibres

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115
Q

What are the association fibres responsible for?

A

communication within one hemisphere -stay in the same half

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116
Q

What are the commissural fibres responsible for?

A

communication between the hemispheres-one half to the other half

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117
Q

What are the three sets of the commissural fibres?

A

anterior commissure, posterior commissure and the corpus callosum

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118
Q

The __________ connects the hemispheres and has lots of fibres.

A

corpus callosum

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119
Q

What are the projection fibres responsible for?

A

communication between different levels of the nervous system (not confined to the cerebrum)-one level to another

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120
Q

Most cranial nerves enter/leave through which structure?

A

brain stem

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121
Q

What are the two large fibre bundles of the midbrain?

A

anteriorly the cerebral peduncles (tracks) and posteriorly the superior/inferior colliculi (little bumps)

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122
Q

Which cranial nerves are attached at the junction of the midbrain and the pons

A

CN III (oculomotor) and CN IV (trochlear)

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123
Q

Which structure bridges the cerebellar hemispheres?

A

pons

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124
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge from the anterior surface of the pons

A

CN V (trigeminal)

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125
Q

What is located behind the pons?

A

fourth ventricle and cerebellum

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126
Q

What is the medulla oblongata continuous with?

A

spinal cord

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127
Q

On the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata are the ______ medially and the _____ laterally

A

pyramids, olives

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128
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

coordination

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129
Q

What is the cerebellum connected to the brain stem via?

A

large middle cerebellar peduncles

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130
Q

The spinal cord extends in the vertebral canal from the _______ down to _______.

A

foramen magnum to L1/2

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131
Q

How many sets of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord and leave through the intervertebral foramina?

A

32

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132
Q

The spinal cord tapers at the _______________.

A

conus medullaris

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133
Q

What attaches the conus medullaris to the sacrum?

A

filum terminale (thread like)

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134
Q

The nerves that exit below L2 form which structure?

A

cauda equina

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135
Q

What are the thickenings of the spinal cord called?

A

cervical and lumbar enlargements

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136
Q

The anterior horns in the spinal cord are responsible for what?

A

motor function

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137
Q

The posterior horns in the spinal cord are responsible for what?

A

sensory function

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138
Q

The intermediate horn for the sympathetic nervous system is between…

A

T1 and L2

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139
Q

The white matter is arranged into which three columns?

A

posterior, lateral and anterior funiculi

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140
Q

The ventricles are continuous with the narrow central canal of the _________.

A

spinal cord

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141
Q

The anterior horn of the lateral ventricles is located in which lobe?

A

frontal lobe

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142
Q

The posterior horn of the lateral ventricles is located in which lobe?

A

occipital lobe

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143
Q

The inferior horn of the lateral ventricles is located in which lobe?

A

temporal lobe

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144
Q

The body of the lateral ventricles is located in which lobe?

A

parietal lobe

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145
Q

What are the choroid plexuses filled with?

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

146
Q

What connects the lateral ventricles with the third ventricle?

A

foramina of monro

147
Q

What joins the third and fourth ventricle?

A

aqueduct of sylvius

148
Q

In the lateral recesses of the fourth ventricle are the ________.

A

foramina of luschka

149
Q

What is located at the inferior angle of the fourth ventricle?

A

foramen of magendie

150
Q

The CSF travels from the ventricles to the _________ via the foramen of luschka+magendie

A

subarachnoid space

151
Q

The CNS is encased in three layers of specialized connective tissue; they are…

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

152
Q

The dura mater is located…

A

outside of the brain and spinal cord

153
Q

The dura mater invaginates into the sagital fissure to form the _________.

A

falx cerebri

154
Q

The dura mater invaginates into the horizontal fissure to form the _________.

A

tentorium cerebelli

155
Q

What is the name of the fat-filled space between the skull and the vertebral column

A

epidural space

156
Q

What is the name of the layer that is thin and filmy that contains the blood vessels

A

arachnoid layer

157
Q

The CSF circulates in the __________.

A

subarachnoid space

158
Q

What connects the arachnoid and pia mater?

A

denticulate ligaments

159
Q

Which layer is attached to the superficial cortex and the outer surface of the spinal cord?

A

pia mater

160
Q

The functions of the CSF are…

A

metabolic and protective

161
Q

The CSF circulates all around the CNS in the subarachnoid space, providing a _______.

A

shock absorptive function

162
Q

The arachnoid mater penetrates through the dura into which structure?

A

superior sagital sinus

163
Q

What are the large openings of the subarachnoid space called?

A

cisterns

164
Q

What is the name of the opening that is created when the spinal cord terminates at L1/2 and the dura and arachnoid mater extend into the sacrum

A

lumbar cistern (spinal tap or lumbar puncture performed here)

165
Q

The brain receives blood from which two sources?

A

carotid and vertebral arteries

166
Q

The vertebral arteries connect to form the ________.

A

basilar artery

167
Q

The basilar artery splits into the two _________.

A

posterior cerebral arteries

168
Q

The single _______ joins the two anterior cerebral arteries.

A

anterior communicating artery

169
Q

The paired ________ joins the middle and posterior cerebral arteries.

A

posterior communicating artery

170
Q

The communicating arteries form the _______ around the pituitary gland.

A

circle of willis

171
Q

The anterior/posterior cerebral arteries supply which surface of the brain?

A

sagital

172
Q

The anterior/posterior cerebral arteries supply the _______ of the outer cortex.

A

periphery

173
Q

The ______ comes through the lateral fissure and supplies the centre of the brain.

A

middle cerebral artery

174
Q

The cerebellum is supplied by which arteries?

A

superior and inferior cerebellar arteries

175
Q

The spinal cord gets blood from where?

A

vertebral arteries at the superior end and from the aorta lower down

176
Q

The veins of the brain empty into the _______ sinuses which drain into the _______ vein.

A

dural venous sinuses, internal jugular vein

177
Q

What is the somatic peripheral nervous system responsible for?

A

voluntary motor control and general sensation information

178
Q

The somatic peripheral nervous system consists of ___ paris of spinal nerves and ___ pairs of cranial nerves

A

31/32 spinal nerves, 12 cranial nerves

179
Q

The dorsal root of the nerve…

A

receives sensory information

180
Q

The ventral root of of the nerve…

A

sends motor information

181
Q

Why are the sacral nerves unique?

A

split into rami before exiting the foramina

182
Q

The cell bodies of the the motor nerves are located where?

A

anterior horn; axons run into the ventral root

183
Q

The cell bodies of the sensory nerves are found in the …

A

dorsal root ganglia

184
Q

The spinal nerves are classified ________ according to their spinal levels

A

alphanumerically

185
Q

C1-C8

A

cervical nerves; exit above the corresponding vertebrae

186
Q

T1-T12

A

thoracic nerves; exit below the corresponding vertebrae

187
Q

L1-L5

A

lumbar nerves; exit below the corresponding vertebrae

188
Q

S1-S5

A

sacral nerves; exit below corresponding vertebrae

189
Q

The autonomic peripheral nervous system…

A

provides involuntary motor control and visceral sensory perception

190
Q

The dorsal columns are made up of the _______ and are responsible for…

A

fasciculus gracilis+cuneatus, carry out all major sensory information that the brain needs

191
Q

Define ipsilateral.

A

fibres that stay on the same side(all fibres eventually cross over)

192
Q

Define contralateral

A

fibres that cross over

193
Q

Which senses are carried out in the dorsal columns?

A

discriminatory (fine) touch, joint position (proprioception), vibration

194
Q

Which senses are carried out in the anterolateral columns?

A

non-discriminatory (crude) touch, pain, temperature

195
Q

The fibres of the dorsal columns run from…

A

below T6

196
Q

The fibres of the lower limb travel in the ________.

A

fasciculus gracilis

197
Q

The fibres of the upper limb (above T6) travel in the __________.

A

fasciculus cuneatus

198
Q

The fibres of the dorsal column synapse on the secondary neurons in the lower medulla in the _____________.

A

nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus

199
Q

Where do the axons in the dorsal columns crossover and become contralateral?

A

nucleus gracilis

200
Q

Where do the axons of the dorsal columns synapse for the second time?

A

thalamus

201
Q

Where does the dorsal column pathway end?

A

postcentral gyrus in the sensory cortex

202
Q

The axons of the anterolateral column synapse in the…

A

dorsal horn

203
Q

The anterolateral pathway goes into the brain stem and attaches to the ______.

A

medial leminscus

204
Q

The anterolateral column axons synapse a second time in the ______ and travel to the _______.

A

thalamus, postcentral gyrus

205
Q

The descending motor pathways are responsible for…

A

initiate movement in the muscles

206
Q

Which is the most direct motor pathway?

A

corticospinal tract

207
Q

Where do most of the fibres crossover to form the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

lower medulla

208
Q

The fibres that remain ipsilateral form the ….

A

anterior corticospinal tract

209
Q

All corticospinal fibres terminate in the ______ and synapse with the ________.

A

anterior horn, large anterior horn neurons

210
Q

Which tracts make up the extra pyramidal system?

A

rubrospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal tracts

211
Q

The olfactory nerves (CN I) synapse in the ______.

A

olfactory bulb

212
Q

What is the rhinencephalon?

A

part of the brain where the 2nd neuron is synapsed

213
Q

Which nerves come from the retina and pass back through the optic canal?

A

optic nerve (CN II)

214
Q

Where do the two optic nerves meet/cross?

A

optic chiasm

215
Q

What happens if you lose the optic chiasm

A

tunnel vision, no peripheral

216
Q

Which nerves emerge from the brain stem?

A

CN III, IV, VI

217
Q

Which muscles do the oculomotor nerves (CNIII) supply?

A

superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris

218
Q

The trochlear nerves (CN IV) supply which muscle?

A

superior oblique

219
Q

The abducens nerves (CN VI) supply this muscle.

A

lateral rectus

220
Q

The extraocular nerves (CN III, IV, VI) exit through what?

A

superior orbital fissure

221
Q

Which nerve directly arises from the pons?

A

trigeminal nerve (CN V)

222
Q

Where does the opthalamic component of the trigeminal nerve (CN V1) exit?

A

superior orbital fissure

223
Q

Where does the maxillary component of the trigeminal nerve (CN V2) exit?

A

foramen rotundum

224
Q

Where does the madnibular component of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) exit?

A

foramen ovale

225
Q

What are each of the components of the trigeminal nerve for?

A

opthalmic - foreheadmaxillary - cheekmandibular - jaw

226
Q

Which cranial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

facial nerve (CN VII)

227
Q

How does the facial nerve exit the skull?

A

stylomastoid foramen

228
Q

The facial nerve provides parasympathetic supply to which glands?

A

submandibular, sublingual, lacrimal

229
Q

Which nerve exits the brain stem lateral to CN VII and enters the internal acoustic meatus?

A

vestibulococlear nerve (CN VIII)

230
Q

Which nerve brings sensory information regarding sound and position back from the internal ear?

A

vestibulococlear nerve (CN VIII)

231
Q

What is the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) attached to?

A

medulla below the exit of CN VIII

232
Q

CN IX provides __________ to the parotid glands, __________ to the stylopharnygeus muscle, and ________ to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue.

A

parasympathetic innervation, motor innervation, sensory innervation

233
Q

Which nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve of the thorax and abdomen?

A

vagus nerve (CN V)

234
Q

Where does CN X exit?

A

jugular foramen

235
Q

Which cranial nerves exit the spinal cord at the upper cervical levels (neck)

A

spinal accessory (CN XI)

236
Q

Which nerve arises from the rootlets that exit between the pyramid and olive of the medulla?

A

hypoglossal (CNXII)

237
Q

What is CN XII responsible for?

A

extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue

238
Q

Which nervous system is considered the unconscious motor component of the visceral nervous system?

A

autonomic nervous system

239
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system innervate?

A

smooth muscle of the viscers, glands and blood vessels

240
Q

Sympathetic nerves arise from …

A

T1-L2

241
Q

Parasympathetic nerves originate from which cranial nerves?

A

CN III, VII, IX ,X and sacral levels S2-4

242
Q

Where do the sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate and exit?

A

originate: intermediate horn of the grey matterexit: anterior ventral root

243
Q

Preganglionic neurons enter the sympathetic trunk via the ________ and exit via the ________.

A

white ramus communicans, grey ramus communicans

244
Q

Where are the sympathetic trunks located?

A

on each side of the vertebral column

245
Q

The sympathetic ganglia run from which levels?

A

C1-S5

246
Q

What does somatotopic mean?

A

top part of the body is served by the top, bottom is served by the bottom

247
Q

The superior cervical ganglion represents…

A

C1-4

248
Q

The middle cervical ganglion represents…

A

C5-6

249
Q

The inferior cervical ganglion represents…

A

C7-8

250
Q

The most inferior two coccygeal ganglia fuse in midline to form which structure?

A

ganglion impar

251
Q

Where do the nerves to the skin and blood vessels of the limbs, body walls, head and neck synapse?

A

sympathetic trunk

252
Q

What are the three ways the sympathetic nerves will synapse?

A
  1. synapse in the sympathetic trunk ganglion at the same level they exited the spinal cord2. travel superiorly to synapse at a higher-level (head, neck, upper limbs)3. travel inferiorly to synapse in the sympathetic trunk (skin, arteries of the badomen, pelvis and lower limbs)
253
Q

At what level does white rami exit?

A

T1-L2

254
Q

Where do the splanchnic nerves travel?

A

viscera

255
Q

The preganglionic nerves of the lung and somer heart innervation synapse at …

A

its own level and goes directly to the appropriate plexus

256
Q

The pregnaglionic nerves of the head, neck and rest of the hear synapse at…

A

-travel superiorly-synapse in the trunk

257
Q

The preganglionic nerves of the bladder and reproductive organs synpase at…

A

-descend to the inferior lumbar and sacral levels

258
Q

The preganglionic neurons of the GI tract synapse at…

A

-pass directly through the corresponding sympathetic ganglion and emerge anteromedially -synpase in the abdominal preaortic ganglia or the renal ganglia

259
Q

Which cranial nerve carries efferent neurones for the pupil and lens muscles?

A

oculomotor (CN III)

260
Q

Which cranial nerves serve the salivary and lacrimal glands?

A

facial (CN II) and glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

261
Q

Which cranial nerve sends preganglionic fibers to the viscera of the thorax and abdomen as well as to the GI tract 2/3 along the length of the transverse colon?

A

vagus (CN X)

262
Q

Where do the pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from?

A

S2-4

263
Q

What level are the greater splanchnic nerves?

A

T5-9 (supplies the foregut)

264
Q

What level supplies the midgut?

A

T10-11 (lesser splanchnic)

265
Q

What level supplies the kidneys?

A

T12

266
Q

What level supplies the hindgut?

A

L1-2 (lumbar splanchnics)

267
Q

The sympathetic innervation of the organs above the diaphragm is from…

A

the upper ganglia in the sympathetic trunk C1-T4

268
Q

The head and neck receive preganglionic fibres from …

A

T1

269
Q

The thoracic organs receive innervation from …

A

T1-4

270
Q

The pathway to the lungs is via ______ with the postganglionic fibres originating in the trunk at the same levels

A

T2-4

271
Q

Which splanchnics are considered the thoracic splanchnic nerves?

A

greater, lesser, and least thoracic and lumbar splanchnics

272
Q

The fibres for the abdomen originate in the…

A

thoracic splanchnic nerves

273
Q

The lest splanchnic nerve goes to the kidney and synapses in the __________.

A

ganglia of the renal plexuses

274
Q

The greater thoracic splanchnic nerve synapses in the ______ to innervate the foregut (stomach and first part of the duodenum).

A

celiac ganglion

275
Q

The lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve supplies the ________ via the superior mesenteric ganglion.

A

midgut (remainder of the duodenum and the small and large intestine as far as 2/3 along the transverse colon)

276
Q

The _________ innervate the hindgut (rest of the GI) and synapse on the inferior mesenteric ganglion.

A

lumbar splanchnic nerves

277
Q

Where does the pelvis receive postganglionic fibres from?

A

lower paravertebral ganglia and small ganglia located near the target organs

278
Q

What supplies the smooth muscle in the pharynx and larynx as well as all the organs in the thorax

A

vagus nerve

279
Q

What connects the eye and the central nervous system?

A

optic nerve (CN II)

280
Q

The orbit is ________ in shape.

A

pyramidal, tip of the pyramid being the eyeball

281
Q

Where is the apex of the orbit located?

A

junction of the superior and inferior orbital fissures

282
Q

The superior orbital fissure is a passage for which cranial nerves?

A

CN III, CN IV, CN V1, CN VI

283
Q

The sensory component of the eye that is stiuated at the back and connected directly to the optic nerve is called the _______.

A

retina

284
Q

What does the lens of the eye do?

A

acts as a refracting prism, focusing light rays onto the retina

285
Q

The anterior part of the outer layer of the eye is called the…

A

cornea -transparent with a small radius-focus penetrating light rays

286
Q

The rest of the eye is enveloped in the opaque _______.

A

sclera

287
Q

Which layer of the eye contains the blood supply and is the opening for the pupil?

A

middle layer - choroid

288
Q

What is the retina made up of?

A

nerve cells connected to the optic nerve

289
Q

What are the light sensitive cells of the retina called?

A

rods and cones

290
Q

What is the most sensitive area of the retina and directly in line with the cornea and lens?

A

fovea centralis

291
Q

Where do the nerve cells leave to join the optic nerve?

A

optic disc

292
Q

Which chamber of the eye contains the aqueous humor and the pupil?

A

anterior chamber

293
Q

Which chamber is posterior to the iris, contains aqueous humor and surrounds the lens?

A

posterior chamber

294
Q

Which chamber is behind the lens and is filled with gelatinous vitreous humor?

A

vitreous body

295
Q

Which muscles control the thickness of the lens?

A

ciliary muscles via the suspensory ligaments

296
Q

What do the dilator and sphincter pupillae control?

A

amount of light entering the pupil

297
Q

The ciliary muscles and sphincter pupillae are under parasympathetic nervous control by CN ____ via the ________.

A

CN III via ciliary ganglion

298
Q

How many extraocular muscles are there?

A

7 in total but 6 that control eye movement

299
Q

What does the levator palpebrae superioris do?

A

elevates the upper eye lid

300
Q

Where does the superior oblique originate?

A

from fibrous ring-runs through trochlea and goes to back of the lateral part of the eyeball

301
Q

The inferior oblique originates…

A

near the middle of the floor of the orbit-runs under the eye to insert on its lateral underside

302
Q

What does the somatic innervation from CN III supply?

A

all the orbital muscles except for the lateral rectus and superior oblique

303
Q

The sympathetic preganglionic acons of the eye leave the spinal cord at what level?

A

T1

304
Q

What is the name of the continuous membrane inside of the eyelids?

A

conjunctiva

305
Q

Where do tears enter?

A

conjunctival sacs

306
Q

The tears migrate medially into the ___________ via the lacrimal punctum

A

lacrimal duct

307
Q

What is the name of the muscular tube that hangs down from the base of the occipital bone in front of the cervical vertebrae?

A

pharynx

308
Q

What are the three regions of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

309
Q

How does the nasopharynx communicate with the middle ear?

A

tympanic (Eustachian) tube

310
Q

What connects the oropharynx and the mouth?

A

fauces

311
Q

What part of the pharynx extends from the hyoid bone to the esophagus?

A

laryngopharynx

312
Q

What protects the opening of the laryngopharynx?

A

epiglottis

313
Q

What are the tonsils responsible for?

A

protecting the GI tract from infection

314
Q

Where is the pharyngeal tonsil located?

A

posterior wall of the top of the pharynx (nasopharynx)

315
Q

What are the lingual tonsils?

A

small clusters of lymphoid tissue found on the posterior part of the tongue

316
Q

What are the two parts of the mouth?

A

vestibule & oral cavity

317
Q

Which part of the mouth is located between the lips and gums?

A

vestibule

318
Q

What are the four extrinsic muscles of the tongue?

A

genioglossus, hyoglussus, styloglossus, palatoglossus

319
Q

Which muscle pulls the tongue forward?

A

genioglossus

320
Q

Which muscle depresses the tongue laterally?

A

hyoglossus

321
Q

The optic canal is found in which bone?

A

Sphenoid

322
Q

The optic tracts synapse in the

A

Lateral geniculate bodies.

323
Q

The lacrimal gland is innervated by the:

A

VII.

324
Q

Which of these bones does not contribute to the medial border of the orbit?

A

Sphenoid.

325
Q

If CN VI were cut, the eye tends to be:

A

Adducted.

326
Q

The auditory tube is in which bone?

A

Petrous temporal.

327
Q

Trigeminal nerve- associated function:

A

muscles of mastication

328
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve- associated function:

A

taste and general sensation

329
Q

Facial nerve- associated function:

A

muscles of expression

330
Q

Accessory nerve- associated function:

A

Movements of the upper limb

331
Q

Hypoglossal nerve- associated function:

A

movement of the tongue

332
Q

Trigeminal nerve- origin:

A

Pons

333
Q

Facial nerve- origin:

A

Brain stem

334
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve- origin:

A

Medulla

335
Q

Which of these nerves innervates the laryngeal muscles?

A

X

336
Q

The temporomandibular joint is a:

A

The temporomandibular joint is a:

337
Q

Adam’s apple is the:

A

Thyroid cartilage

338
Q

The trapezius is innervated by:

A

XI

339
Q

The opening to the larynx is in the:

A

Laryngopharynx.

340
Q

The masseter is a muscle of mastication. It is innervated by:

A

V

341
Q

The sternomastoid is innervated by:

A

XI

342
Q

largest paranasal sinus?

A

Maxillary.

343
Q

Which nerve innervates the ear?

A

VIII.

344
Q

Sensory innervation of the head is by way of:

A

CN V.

345
Q

Branches of the facial nerve arise near the:

A

Parotid gland.

346
Q

Sympathetic innervation to eye is through the:

A

T1.

347
Q

The lacrimal gland is on which aspect of the orbit?

A

Superolateral.

348
Q

The roof of the orbit is formed by the:

A

Frontal bone.

349
Q

Which of these structures is avascular?ACornea.BChoroid.CPupil.DStudent.ENone of the above.

A

ACornea.

350
Q

Which muscles are controlled via the ciliary ganglion?

A

Sphincter pupillae.and Ciliary muscles.

351
Q

The opening to the larynx is protected by the:

A

Epiglottis.

352
Q

Which muscles functions in protrusion of the tongue?

A

Genioglossus.

353
Q

In part, sensory innervation to the tongue is by way of CN:

A

V.

354
Q

The largest muscle of the larynx is the:

A

Cricothyroid.

355
Q

foramen to its cranial nerves: Optic canal.

A

II.

356
Q

foramen to its cranial nerves: Superior orbital fissure.

A

III; IV; VI.V1.

357
Q

foramen to its cranial nerves: Foramen rotundum.

A

V2.

358
Q

foramen to its cranial nerves: Foramen ovale.

A

V3.

359
Q

cranial nerves with their associated foramina. Stylomastoid foramen.

A

facial

360
Q

cranial nerves with their associated foramina. Jugular foramen

A

Glossopharyngeal.

361
Q

cranial nerves with their associated foramina. Foramen ovale.

A

V3.

362
Q

cranial nerves with their associated foramina. Foramen rotundum.

A

V2.

ANAT 316 (1 decks)

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