Analytical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

A

The mothballs underwent sublimation.

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2
Q

What is the most common isotope of Hydrogen?
A. Hydrogen only has one isotope
B. Deuterium
C. Tritium
D. Protium

A

Protium

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3
Q

Which is NOT an acceptable name for Hg₂Cl₂?

A. mercury(Il) chloride
B. mercury(I) chloride
C. mercurous chloride
D. dimercury dichloride

A

mercury(Il) chloride

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4
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

A

It has a dipole moment.

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5
Q

What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide?
A. PBr2
B. PBr
C. P2Br2
D. P2Br

A

P2Br

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6
Q

Under the Lewis concept of acid and bases, an acid is
A. an electron pair donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. a proton donor
D. an electron pair acceptor

A

an electron pair acceptor

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT an acid?
A. milk of magnesia
B. apple juice
C. milk
D. gastric juice

A

milk of magnesia

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8
Q

Which is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
A. NH3 and NH4+
B. H2S and OH-
C. H2O and OH-
D. HCN and CN-

A

H2S and OH-

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9
Q

When ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is ____.
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the choices

A

acidic

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10
Q

Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
A. 1 HNO3 : 3 HCl
B. 3 HNO3 : 1 HCl
C. 2 HNO3 : 3 HCl
D. 3 HNO3 : 2 HCl

A

1 HNO3 : 3 HCl

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11
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda (NaHCO3)
B. soda ash (Na2CO3)
C. caustic potash (KOH)
D. caustic soda (NaOH)

A

soda ash (Na2CO3)

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12
Q

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
A. 1 atm
B. 760 mm Hg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

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13
Q

Which of the following is the closest to being an ideal gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

A

Helium

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14
Q

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?
A. its volume decreases
B. its volume increases
C. it remains the same
D. its volume becomes equal to zero

A

its volume decreases

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15
Q

When Chromium changes from an oxidation state of +3 to +6, Cr³⁺ or Cr(III) must
A. gain 6 electrons
B. lose 6 electrons
C. lose 3 electrons
D. gain 3 electrons

A

lose 3 electrons

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16
Q

During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution _____.
A. are oxidized at the anode
B. are oxidized at the cathode
C. are reduced at the cathode
D. remain in solution unchanged

A

are reduced at the cathode

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17
Q

In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs
A. at the anode
B. between the cathode and the anode
C. at either the cathode or the anode
D. at the cathode

A

at the anode

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18
Q

For the reaction Mg + H2O -> MgO + H2 which is FALSE?
A. H is the oxiding agent
B. Mg lost electrons
C. Mg is the oxidizing agent
D. H gained electrons

A

Mg is the oxidizing agent

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19
Q

Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
A. Acetic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
D. Ammonium hydroxide

A

Potassium hydrogen phthalate

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20
Q

The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of metals is
A. 48 hours
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 week

A

6 months

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21
Q

Glass container is NOT suitable for
A. oil and grease determination
B. microbiological analyses
C. all of the choices
D. inorganic trace analyses

A

inorganic trace analyses

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22
Q

What Is the main ISO Standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formal of their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations, including sampling?
A. ISO/IEC 17025
B. EURACHEM
C. AOAC
D. ISO 9000:2000

A

ISO/IEC 17025

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23
Q

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include
A. Generator ID Number
B. Volume of Waste
C. Container Material
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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24
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid?
A. 1 mL graduated cylinder
B. 100 mL graduated cylinder
C. 10 mL pipet
D. 50 mL beaker

A

10 mL pipet

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
A. wearing of masks and gloves
B. drying of glassware after washing
C. tying or braiding long hairs
D. adding water to strong acid

A

adding water to strong acid

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26
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle
C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

A

amber bottle

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27
Q

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _________.
A. Lower Warning Limit
B. Method Detection Limit
C. Control Limit
D. Limit of Quantitation

A

Method Detection Limit

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28
Q

The fire triangle consists of which of the following?
A. Oxygen, Heat, Material
B. Air, Heat. Fire
C. Air, Fuel, Spark
D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

A

Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

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29
Q

Which Is TRUE about laboratory hoods?
A. Provides further protection by diluting low of flammable gases below explosion limits.
B. It protects you from being exposed in chemical fume.
C. Must always be on
D. All of the above.

A

All of the above

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30
Q

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?
A. IS0 9001
B. ISO 17025
C. ISO 15189
D. GLP

A

IS0 9001

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31
Q

There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should NOT be adhered to?
A. Never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment.
B. Properly label and store all chemicals.
C. Store chemical containers on the floor.
D. Clean work areas, including floors, regularly

A

Store chemical containers on the floor.

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32
Q

Consider that you are working with vitamin C table production, to which standard’s should your quality management should subscribe?
A. GMP
B. HACCP
C. ISO 9001:2008
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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33
Q

How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R = 0.0821 L⋅atm/mol⋅K)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. infinite

A

infinite

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34
Q

How many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

A

32

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35
Q

Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen?
A. sulfur
B. carbon
C. neon
D. fluorine

A

Fluorine

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36
Q

Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle?
A. linear
B. tetrahedral
C. octahedral
D. trigonal bipyramidal

A

linear

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37
Q

What is the name of the compound indicated below?
Pb(ClO)4
A. plumbous perchlorate
B. plumbic perchlorate
C. plumbous hypochlorite
D. plumbic hypochlorite

A

plumbic hypochlorite

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38
Q

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
A. HN₃
B. HNO₂
C. HNO₃
D. H₂NO₃

A

HNO₂

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39
Q

What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
A. paraffin
B. olefin
C. sulfuric acid
D. wax

A

sulfuric acid

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40
Q

From top to bottom down the periodic table
A. change in atomic radius cannot be predicted
B. ionization energy increases
C. electronegativity decreases
D. atomic radius decreases

A

electronegativity decreases

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41
Q

From left to right across the periodic table
A. atomic radius increases
B. ionization energy decreases
C. electronegativity decreases
D. atomic radius decreases

A

atomic radius decreases

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42
Q

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have –OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?
A. ionic
B. polar covalent
C. hydrogen
D. non-polar covalent

A

polar covalent

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43
Q

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule?
A. Van der Waals forces
B. Dipole-dipole interaction
C. Ion-dipole interaction
D. Hydrogen bonding

A

Van der Waals forces

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44
Q

Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
A. decanol
B. lauric acid
C. toluene
D. benzene

A

benzene

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45
Q

What IMFA is/are present in the compound indicated?
H3C(CH2)3CHO
A. Van der Waals forces only
B. Dipole-dipole interactions only
C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions
D. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole interactions, and hydrogen bonding

A

Van der Waals, and dipole-dipole interactions

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46
Q

A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its pressure at constant temperature?
A. doubled
B. halved
C. no effect
D. cannot be determined

A

doubled

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47
Q

Which of the following is a chemical reaction?
A. an air conditioner cooling the air
B. none of these choices
C. bleaching your clothes
D. melting of ice

A

bleaching your clothes

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48
Q

A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is
A. the solubility rule
B. the “like dissolves like” rule
C. Henry’s law
D. Hund’s rule

A

the “like dissolves like” rule

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49
Q

The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia?
A. Decrease in temperature
B. Increase in temperature
C. Removal of nitrogen
D. Addition of ammonia

A

Decrease in temperature

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50
Q

Under the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an
A. proton donor
B. proton acceptor
C. electron pair donor
D. electron pair acceptor

A

proton acceptor

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51
Q

The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT
A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

A

does not change when there are changes in temperature

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52
Q

In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point?
I. Strong acid/strong base
II. Weak acid/strong base
III. Strong acid/weak base

A. II and III only
B. III only
C. I only
D. II only

A

I only

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53
Q

A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials.
A. Macro
B. Semi-macro
C. Micro
D. Ultra-micro

A

Micro

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54
Q

An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented.
A. Systematic error
B. Random error
C. Gross error
D. Cannot be determined

A

Systematic error

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55
Q

It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment.
A. Linear range
B. Calibration curve
C. Dynamic range
D. Linear dynamic range

A

Calibration curve

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56
Q

It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of standards and ISO 17025.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Manual
D. Documentation

A

Quality Manual

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57
Q

It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace.
A. Safety Manual
B. Chemical Hygiene Plan
C. Safety Rules and Policies
D. Safety Plan

A

Chemical Hygiene Plan

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58
Q

This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory.
A. Standard method
B. Regulatory method
C. Reference method
D. Validated method

A

Regulatory method

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59
Q

In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except.
A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans.
B. Turning the equipment and instruments on.
C. Performing analysis immediately.
D. Monitoring operating parameters.

A

Performing analysis immediately.

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60
Q

The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT
A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups.
B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens.
C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes.
D. All are peroxide-formers.

A

All are peroxide-formers.

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61
Q

What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol?
A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
C. Carcinogens
D. Explosives

A

Oxidizers, organic peroxides

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62
Q

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less
than 140°C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure.
A. Ignitability
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity

A

Ignitability

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63
Q

What is the pH of an acidic waste?
A. pH ≤ 2
B. pH ≤ 3
C. pH ≥ 12.5
D. pH = 7

A

pH ≤ 2

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64
Q

This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities.
A. Waste generator
B. Waste treater
C. Waste transporter
D. Pollution Control Officer

A

Waste generator

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65
Q

The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority from a chemical exposure is
I. PPE
II. Engineering Controls
III. Administrative Controls
IV. Elimination
V. Substitution

A. I > II > III > IV > V
B. I > III > II > IV > V
C. V > IV > II > III > I
D. IV > V > II > III > I

A

IV > V > II > III > I

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66
Q

An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek.
A. Time weighted average (TWA)
B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL)
C. Ceiling (C)
D. Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)

A

Time weighted average (TWA)

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67
Q

This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as feasible.
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Laboratory sample
D. None of the above

A

Grab sample

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68
Q

The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT
A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.
D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.

A

Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

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69
Q

It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control.
A. Calibration curve
B. Standard Curve
C. QC chart
D. Monitoring chart

A

QC chart

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70
Q

A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the measurement process to determine instrument contamination.
A. Method blank
B. Instrumental blank
C. Surrogate
D. Reagent blank

A

Instrumental blank

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71
Q

Mass ______.
A. has the SI unit of pounds.
B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter.
D. constitutes the force exerted on matter by the gravitational attraction of Earth, and so it varies slightly from place to place.

A

is the amount of matter that occupies space.

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72
Q

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
A. Density
B. Viscosity
C. Freezing point
D. Number of moles

A

Number of moles

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73
Q

Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?
A. putting it in a freezer
B. heating it
C. measure in Jupiter
D. none of the above

A

none of the above

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74
Q

When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another, they will
A. separate based on their densities
B. exchange densities
C. mix uniformly
D. repel one another

A

separate based on their densities

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75
Q

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
A. change in color
B. increase in temperature
C. change in shape
D. evolution of gas

A

change in shape

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76
Q

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

A

Ne < K < Na < Cl

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77
Q

Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A. Cs
B. Sr
C. Ga
D. As

A

Cs

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78
Q

Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?
A. SO2
B. CO2
C. MgO
D. P2O5

A

MgO

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79
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

Boron

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80
Q

Chromium is a member of which of the following?
A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

A

Transition metals

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81
Q

What is an alloy?
A. Solid solution
B. Liquid solution
C. Gaseous solution
D. All of the above

A

Solid solution

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82
Q

Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?
A. H₂
B. F₂
C. Cl₂
D. Br₂

A

F₂

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83
Q

Which of the following is a chemical equation?
A. CO₂
B. C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂
C. Ice + Heat ⟶ Water
D. Iron + Oxygen ⟶ Rust

A

C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂

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84
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl₃?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

A

Phosphorus trichloride

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85
Q

What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?
A. HgCl
B. Hg2Cl
C. HgCl2
D. Hg2Cl2

A

Hg2Cl2

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86
Q

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?
A. CH₄
B. NH₃
C. H₂O
D. BF₃

A

CH₄

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87
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describe a nonpolar bond.

A

It has a dipole moment.

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88
Q

Which of the following is a polar molecule?
A. CO₂
B. SF₄
C. CCl₄
D. XeF₄

A

SF₄

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89
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

A

Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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90
Q

Polar molecules include which of these?
I. CO2
II. COCl2
III. CH2Cl2

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only

A

II and III only

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91
Q

Which compound has the strongest intermolecular force of attraction?
A. CO
B. CH4
C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

A

CH3OH

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92
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

A

high volatility

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93
Q

When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils. This shows that
A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature

A

the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

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94
Q

Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?
A. less than that of A
B. greater than that of B
C. average of A and B
D. between A and B

A

between A and B

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95
Q

It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist.
A. melting point of liquid
B. freezing point of liquid
C. freezing point of solid
D. all of the above

A

freezing point of solid

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96
Q

All solid states are denser than their liquid states. However, water is unique because
A. It is clear.
B. It is tasteless.
C. Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form.
D. It can freeze.

A

Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form.

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97
Q

Which statement is TRUE?
A. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst.
B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.
C. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions

A

A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

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98
Q

A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it.
A. saturated
B. supersaturated
C. unsaturated
D. concentrated

A

unsaturated

99
Q

Which of the following substances is not basic?
A. Baking soda
B. Apple Juice
C. Borax
D. Seawater

A

Apple Juice

100
Q

When NaCH₃COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

basic

101
Q

When a strong acid reacts with a weak base during titration, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

acidic

102
Q

A lab analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1L with water. He then pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCI solution from a burette. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid had been used at the endpoint. Examining this result, the lab supervisor could deduce that _____.
A. the NaOH absorbed H2O from the air after its mass was measured
B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI
C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus
D. the pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH

A

the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI

103
Q

The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, waste water and fossil fuels. It consists of three steps: digestion, distillation, and titration. What element is being analyzed in Kjeldahl method?
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Sulfur
D. Oxygen

A

Nitrogen

104
Q

In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the ____ while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the ____.
A. anode, anode
B. cathode, cathode
C. cathode, anode
D. anode, cathode

A

cathode, anode

105
Q

Conductivity is the ability of a substance to
A. conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity.
B. repel electric current.
C. conduct variable resistance.
D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

A

conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

106
Q

Column chromatography is based on the principle of _____________.
A. Exclusion
B. Absorption
C. Ion exchange
D. Differential adsorption

A

Differential adsorption

107
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
D. None of the above.

A

The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.

108
Q

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of __________
A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

109
Q

Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than % transmittance?
A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance
B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
D. none of the above

A

because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

110
Q

What will you perform to know that atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work
property?
A. Calibration check
B. Blank
C. QC sample recoveries
D. Standard addition

A

Calibration check

111
Q

Statistical test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT is the ______.
A. t-test
B. z-test
C. Q-test
D. F-test

A

Q-test

112
Q

Type of quality control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method.
A. Matrix duplicate
B. Matrix spike
C. Method blank
D. Reagent blank

A

Matrix spike

113
Q

Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of _____.
A. random sampling
B. selective sampling
C. composite sampling
D. stratified sampling

A

selective sampling

114
Q

The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes.
A. Bulk material
B. Lot
C. Segment
D. Batch

A

Lot

115
Q

What is the name of RA 6969?
A. Toxic Substances Control Act
B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act
C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act

A

Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

116
Q

The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics include all EXCEPT
A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal.
B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission.
C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities of the latter.
D. None of the above.

A

None of the above.

117
Q

Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined.
A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
B. Partial analysis
C. Elemental analysis
D. Proximate analysis

A

Complete (or ultimate) analysis

118
Q

Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body.
A. Standard method
B. Primary method
C. Regulatory method
D. Validated method

A

Standard method

119
Q

It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function.
A. Standard method
B. Protocol
C. Standard operating procedure
D. Analytical procedure

A

Standard operating procedure

120
Q

Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit?
I. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in the baseline.
II. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision.
III. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected, but not precisely determined.
IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely determinable concentration level.

A. II and III
B. I, III, and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. III only
80. Analytical

A

I, III, and IV

121
Q

Analytical methods or instruments’ performance aim for
A. Low signal-to-noise ratio
B. High variability
C. Low dynamic range
D. High signal-to-noise ratio

A

High signal-to-noise ratio

122
Q

It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under investigation.
A. Analyte
B. Matrix
C. Measurand
D. Test

A

Matrix

123
Q

When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?
A. Reagent grade
B. Technical grade
C. Primary standard
D. Analytical grade

A

Primary standard

124
Q

Requirements of a primary standard.
A. High Purity, 99.9% or better
B. Stability in air
C. Absence of hydrate water
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

125
Q

What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride?
A. Glass
B. Polyethylene
C. Cast iron
D. Alloys containing silica

A

Polyethylene

126
Q

The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers EXCEPT for
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Aqua regia
D. Hydrochloric acid

A

Hydrofluoric acid

127
Q

Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT
A. cyclohexane solution
B. acetic acid solution
C. 2-propanol solution
D. sodium hydroxide solution

A

acetic acid solution

128
Q

When working with concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following statements are TRUE?
I. Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn.
II. Half- or full-faced masks with gas- and/or vapor removing respirators should be worn
III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as tie person is working underthe hood.
IV. Wearing of apron is optional as long as laboratory gown is worn.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. All of the choices
D. I and IV

A

I and II

129
Q

Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns?
A. water
B. Epsom salt
C. 25% brine solution
D. calcium gluconate

A

calcium gluconate

130
Q

If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content?
A. Foam type
B. Dry chemical type
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Halon substitute

A

Dry chemical type

131
Q

The following are proper practices in storing materials and equipment EXCEPT ONE.
A. Avoid storing materials and equipment on top of cabinets.
B. Label all materials properly.
C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.
D. Do not expose stored chemicals to heat or direct sunlight.

A

Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.

132
Q

Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effects of waste?
A. Inhalation
B. Dermal
C. Ingestion
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

133
Q

A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition or organic matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.
A. Composting
B. Recycling
C. Bioremediation
D. Reducing

A

Composting

134
Q

In handling ethers, the following practices are correct except for one.
A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation.
B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these substances.
C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material.
D. Dispose old or expired ethers

A

Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
autoxidation.

135
Q

What is the type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation?
A. Corrosive
B. Respiratory sensitizer
C. Oxidizer
D. Carcinogen

A

Respiratory sensitizer

136
Q

In order to property maintain chemical laboratory equipment one should perform the following EXCEPT
A. place the equipment in hot humid location
B. regular calibration of equipment
C. regular Inspection of operational components
D. thorough cleaning with the proper materials

A

place the equipment in hot humid location

137
Q

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill.
A. Reactivity
B. Corrosivity
C. Toxicity
D. Ignitability

A

Toxicity

138
Q

Aqua regia, the reagent that can be used to dissolve gold, lg a 3:1 mixture of which acids?
A. hydrochloric and nitric acids
B. hydrofluoric and nitric acids
C. hydrochloric and sulfuric acids
D. perchloric and sulfuric acids

A

hydrochloric and nitric acids

139
Q

The equation that represents a reaction that is
NOT a redox reaction is:
Reaction 1: 2 H2 + O2→ 2 H2O
Reaction 2: 2 H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
Reaction 3: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
Reaction 4: H2O + CO2 → H2CO3

A. Reaction 3
B. Reaction 1
C. Reaction 4
D. Reaction 2

A

Reaction 4: H2O + CO2 → H2CO3

140
Q

Which procedure is recommended for reading the level of an aqueous solution in a buret or graduated cylinder?
A. Keep the eye level with the top of the meniscus and record that reading
B. Read both the bottom and top of the meniscus and average those readings
C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading
D. Look down at the meniscus at an angle to obtain the average reading directly

A

Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading

141
Q

This detects contamination from reagents, sample handling and the entire measurement process.
A. matched-matrix blank
B. method blank
C. solvent blank
D. calibration blank

A

method blank

142
Q

In order to ensure an accurate weighing when using the balances, one should ______
A. leave the object on the balance for several minutes to ensure a stable reading
B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing
C. turn the balance off to clear any previous weighing from its memory
D. weigh the object several times on different balances and take the average of these weighing

A

not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing

143
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the technique for pouring in a laboratory?
A. Connect the pouring spout and receiving container using a stirring rod
B. Pour fast enough to avoid spills
C. pour and allow the liquid to ran along the stirring rod
D. Hold containers at arm’s length with elbows slightly bent

A

Pour fast enough to avoid spills

144
Q

The method that is widely used for the determination of the protein content of meat and animal food is the
A. Kjeldahl method
B. Mohr method
C. McBride method
D. Liebig meth0d

A

Kjeldahl method

145
Q

An analytical chemist needs to transfer his/her precipitant from the beaker to the filter paper. Which of the following would be the best procedure to adopt in order to ensure a quantitative transfer of the predicate?
A. none of the choices.
B. Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted then bulk of ppt Is transferred to filter paper through a stirring rod, the beaker is washed with big volumes of wash solution.
C. Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted first, bulk of the ppt is transferred through a stirring rod and, wash the beaker several times with small volumes of wash solution.
D. Solution is shaken, then immediately filtered; beaker Is washed with relatively big volumes of wash
solution.

A

Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted first, bulk of the ppt is transferred through a stirring rod and, wash the beaker several times with small volumes of wash solution.

146
Q

A water sample Is collected for analysis of Oil and grease. The analysis will not be done immediately. The sample should NOT be
A. collected in plastic bottle
B. preserved with sulfuric acid
C. refrigerated til analyzed
D. collected in all glass bottle

A

collected in plastic bottle

147
Q

The following statements are true about electrical conductivity EXCEPT
A. a measure of a solutions capacity to conduct electricity
B. a measure of the total dissolved solids in a solution
C. increasing temperature has no effect on its value
D. is directly affected by temperature

A

increasing temperature has no effect on its value

148
Q

In maintenance and storage of pH meters. which of the following procedure shall NOT be done?
A. Mild soap solution may be used in general cleaning of the electrodes
B. To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water.
C. Blot electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrodes.
D. Rinse pH electrodes in between measurements.

A

To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water.

149
Q

In operating a UV-Vis spectrophotometer, the following shall be done. EXCEPT for

A. Before turning on the power, check if the sample holder does not contain anything.
B. After turning on, allow the spectrophotometer to initialize and stabilize according to its user manual.
C. If there are any spillage that gets onto the instrument, immediately wipe it away.
D. Keep the sample compartment open during measurement.

A

Keep the sample compartment open during measurement.

150
Q

In purifying a material by crystallization choose the solvent according to the following EXCEPT
A. solubility
B. vapor pressure
C. reactivity
D. polarity

A

vapor pressure

151
Q

The dynamic range in analytical measurement refers to the range where
A. the instrument reading is constant
B. the detection limit lies
C. the sensitivity of the instrument is highest
D. the instrument reading is linearly related to the input value

A

the detection limit lies

152
Q

What is the law that states the linear relationship between absorbance and concentration of an absorbing species?
A. Boyles Law
B. Beer-Lambert’s Law
C. Charles Law
D. Avogadro’s Law

A

Beer-Lambert’s Law

153
Q

In liquid-liquid extraction, It is often necessary to determine which liquid is aqueous and which liquid is nonaqueous. To test the liquids, add a drop of water to the top layer. If the drop dissolves in the top layer, the top layer is ______
A. aqueous
B. denser
C. miscible
D. nonaqueous

A

aqueous

154
Q

Quantitative chemical analysis of weighing a sample, usually of a separated and dried precipitate is called
A. Gravimetric analysis
B. Elemental analysis
C. Volumetric analysis
D. Titrimetric analysis

A

Gravimetric analysis

155
Q

What is the light source used In the visible range to 340-1000 nm?
A, nerst blower
B. tungsten
C. deuterium
D. Incandescent

A

tungsten

156
Q

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _______
A. Lower Warning Limit
B. Method Detection Limit
C. Control Limit
D. Limit of Quantitation

A

Method Detection Limit

157
Q

Which of the following instruments uses a cuvette?
A. Gas Chromatograph
B. UV-VIS Spectrophotometer
C. pH Meter
D. Flame-MS

A

UV-VIS Spectrophotometer

158
Q

For the reaction, Fe3+(aq) + SCN- (aq) → FeSCN2+(aq) The equilibrium constant for this reaction can best be determined by means of
A. Ion-exchange
B. Conductance
C. Spectrophotometry
D. Chromatography

A

Spectrophotometry

159
Q

Which of the following Can Cause ERRORS during the sample preparation stage?
l. Loss of sample during weighing or dissolution
Il. Contamination by impurities in reagents and in the environment
Ill. Changes in mass due to varying humidity and temperature
IV. Obtaining inhomogeneous sample from the bulk

A. l and Il only
B. l, Ill. and IV
C. l, Il, and Ill
D. I, II, Ill, and IV

A

All

160
Q

Saying that the concentration of Total cyanide (CN-) In drinking water is 0.05 mg/L. which is below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L as per DOH DAO No. 20 070012 when it is actually that limit is above that limit is _____.
A. accurate
B. false negative
C. precise
D. false positive

A

false negative

161
Q

If an element has more protons than electrons, it is called _____.
A. anion
B. isotope
C. cation
D. isobar

A

cation

162
Q

Which of the following is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
A. pnictogens
B. halogens
C. chalcogens
D. noble gases

A

halogens

163
Q

A salt solution of which metal produces a bright red color in a flame test
A. Ba
B. Ca
C. Na
D. Ra

A

Ra

164
Q

What is the indicator that turns the solution into colors blue, green, and yellow if it becomes basic, neutral, and acidic, respectively?
A. methyl orange
B. bromthymol blue
C. phenolphthalein
D. Eriochrome black

A

bromthymol blue

165
Q

This part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality.
A. salt bridge
B. voltmeter
C. electrodes
D. electrolytes

A

salt bridge

166
Q

Consider the endothermic reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g)+ C(g). What shift will occur if a small amount of neon was added?
A. forward
B. no shift
C. backward
D. equal shift

A

no shift

167
Q

Considering the following reaction at equilibrium. Which of the following will shift the position of equilibrium to favor the formation of more product?
Fe3++ SCN- ⇌ FeSCN2+
A. add Fe3+
B. increase pressure
C. add FeSCN2+
D. decreasing the pressure

A

add Fe3+

168
Q

This type of glass is commonly used for laboratory glassware at relatively low temperatures because green impurities can be produced from it if heated at very high temperatures.
A. amber
B. fused silica
C. quartz
D. borosilicate

A

borosilicate

169
Q

What is the primary advantage of using a hollow cathode lamp in AAS?
A. It has a narrow line width.
B. It emits a complete ultraviolet spectrum.
C. It allows direct application to nonmetal analysis.
D. It eliminates the need for an ionization suppressor.

A

It has a narrow line width.

170
Q

The separation of ions in a mass spectrometer is fully determined by the ______.
A. size of the ions
B. number of the ions
C. mass of the ions
D. mass-to-charge ratio of ions

A

mass-to-charge ratio of ions

171
Q

What is the correct order of stages during a mass spectrometric analysis?
A. ionization, vaporization, acceleration, deflection
B. acceleration, deflection, vaporization, ionization
C. vaporization, ionization, acceleration, deflection
D. deflection, vaporization, ionization, acceleration

A

vaporization, ionization, acceleration, deflection

172
Q

A blank that contains the solvent plus all the reagents used in sample preparation.
A. trip blank
B. method blank
C. field blank
D. reagent blank

A

reagent blank

173
Q

It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function.
A. standard method
B. standard operating procedure
C. protocol
D. analytical procedure

A

standard operating procedure

174
Q

In the determination of weight percent content of iron in an iron ore by gravimetric method, which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. The iron ore is the analyte.
II. Other minerals present in the ore are collectively called the matrix.
III. Gravimetric method is the analytical method that will be employed in the analysis.
IV. The process of determination of the concentration of iron present in the matrix is called analysis.
A. I only
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. II, III, and IV

A

II, III, and IV

175
Q

It is the fraction of the named material present in the stated chemical form.
A. purity
B. stability
C. potency
D. grade

A

purity

176
Q

It is the smallest concentration that can be reported with a certain level of confidence.
A. range
B. detection limit
C. sensitivity
D. quantitation limit

A

detection limit

177
Q

It is a part of quality systems that is officially defined by the ISO as “the assembly of all planned and systematic actions to provide adequate confidence that a product, proves or service satisfy the given quality requirements.
A. quality management
B. quality control
C. quality assurance
D. quality manual

A

quality assurance

178
Q

An inspection made on a selected area of the laboratory, or of the quality system, in order to obtain objective evidence of the extent to which the planned arrangements for achieving and maintaining quality are met, and whether or not they are adequate.
A. quality management
B. quality control
C. quality system
D. quality audit

A

quality audit

179
Q

A quality system standard that involves confirmation that the quality management system in place in the laboratory is fully implemented and in compliance with the requirements of the standard.
A. quality audit
B. certification
C. audit trail
D. accreditation

A

certification

180
Q

What is the composition of acid piranha solution?
A. 3:1 HCl:HNO3
B. 3:1 HNO3:HCl
C. 3:1 concentrated sulfuric acid: 30% hydrogen peroxide
D. 3:1 30% hydrogen peroxide: concentrated sulfuric acid

A

3:1 concentrated sulfuric acid: 30% hydrogen peroxide

181
Q

A series of reference standards solutions that have known and accurate pH values at different temperatures used for pH meter calibration.
a. Buffer Solutions
b. QC Solutions
c. pH solutions
d. None of the above.

A

Buffer Solutions

182
Q

A property of a wave which is described as the distance between a point on one wave and the same point on the next wave.
a. frequency
b. wavelength
c. amplitude
d. period

A

wavelength

183
Q

Which of the following should not be done in using a cuvette?
a. Use a brush to clean the insides of the cuvette
b. Fill the cuvette about 3/4 full of the solution you wish to test.
c. Wipe the outside of the cuvette with a lint-free, soft tissue to remove any moisture or fingerprints from the outside surface.
d. Do not clean your cuvettes in an ultrasonic cleaning bath.

A

Use a brush to clean the insides of the cuvette

184
Q

Creates a fine aerosol for introduction into the flame.
A. Detector
B. Nebulizer
C. Flame
D. Monochromator

A

Nebulizer

185
Q

Destroys any analyte ions and breakdown complexes to create atoms (the elemental form) of the element of interest.
A. Detector
B. Nebulizer
C. Flame
D. Monochromator

A

Flame

186
Q

Separates and transmits a narrow portion of the optical signal chosen from a wider range of wavelengths available at the input.
A. Detector
B. Nebulizer
C. Flame
D. Monochromator

A

Monochromator

187
Q

Determines the intensity of photons of the analytical line exiting the monochromator.
A. Detector
B. Nebulizer
C. Flame
D. Monochromator

A

Detector

188
Q

Light sensitive samples should be collected in a/ an __________ container.
a. polyethylene bottle container
b. polypropylene container
c. amber bottle container
d. volumetric flask

A

amber bottle container

189
Q

The dilution of concentrated acid is an exothermic process. It is best to:
a. place the flask in a hot water bath.
b. add ice cold water instead of room temperature water.
c. place the flask in a cold water bath.
d. place the flask in a freezer with a temperature of -20ºC

A

place the flask in a cold water bath.

190
Q

Which of the following is a cause of contamination during the sample preparation?
a. Sample contained in a required container following the precautions specified in the sampling method.
b. Sample preparation apparatus is cleaned and washed according to requirements of sampling method.
c. Carryover of previous sample due to uncleaned sample preparation apparatus.
d. None of the above.

A

Carryover of previous sample due to uncleaned sample preparation apparatus.

191
Q

The following are different types of sample preservation except:
a. freezing
b. acidification
c. reagent addition
d. filtration

A

filtration

192
Q

It is the closeness of the agreement between the result of a measured value and a true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Mean
d. Error

A

Accuracy

193
Q

It is the closeness of the agreement between the result of a measured value and a true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Mean
d. Error

A

Accuracy

194
Q

Which of the following is not a sample size reduction technique for solid samples?
a. grinding
b. blending
c. crushing
d. stirring

A

stirring

195
Q

Detects contamination from reagents, sample handling, and the entire measurement process
a. method blank
b. solvent blank
c. calibration blank
d. matched-matrix blank

A

method blank

196
Q

Organic compounds in aqueous sample A will be extracted using liquid-liquid extraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate solvent to use?
a. methanol
b. water
c. hexane
d. hydrochloric acid solution

A

hexane

197
Q

Sample preparation method in which electromechanically driven rod or vibrating base is used to break particles down mechanically into smaller units; can be performed in wet or dry state
a. sieving
b. mincing
c. homogenizing
d. pulverizing

A

pulverizing

198
Q

Sample preparation in which the sample is allowed to settle by leaving it undisturbed in a vessel.
a. sedimentation
b. centrifugation
c. filtration
d. decantation

A

sedimentation

199
Q

Preservation technique for water samples intended for metals determination that cannot be analyzed immediately
a. Acidify with 1mL HNO3 to pH<2
b. Adjust pH to>11.5 with NaOH,
c. Filter and preserve with zinc acetate
d. add PbCO3

A

Acidify with 1mL HNO3 to pH<2

200
Q

Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic soda?
a. Potassium Hydroxide
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrochloric Acid
d. Buffer 10 Solution

A

Hydrochloric Acid

201
Q

This chemical is usually used to disinfect waste containing microbial organisms.
a. chlorine
b. sodium chloride
c. sodium sulfate
d. fluorine

A

chlorine

202
Q

Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing phosphoric acid?
a. hydrochloric acid
b. sodium hydroxide
c. distilled water
d. acetone

A

sodium hydroxide

203
Q

Symbols indicated in waste labels that instantly identify the kind of hazard the chemical possesses
a. Signal Words
b. Pictogram
c. Precautionary Statements
d. Hazard Statement

A

Pictogram

204
Q

Which of the following waste is classified as
halogenated waste?
a. Waste containing toluene
b. Waste containing dichloromethane
c. Waste containing acetone
d. Waste containing ammonia

A

Waste containing dichloromethane

205
Q

Which of the following waste is classified as non -halogenated waste?
a. Waste containing acetonitrile
b. Waste containing chloroform
c. Waste containing polychlorinated hydrocarbons
d. Waste containing bromine

A

Waste containing acetonitrile

206
Q

Which of the following waste is not classified as inorganic waste?
a. Waste containing mercury
b. Waste containing lead
c. Waste containing arsenic
d. Waste containing acetonitrile

A

Waste containing acetonitrile

207
Q

What is the minimum concentration of cyanide contained in a waste to be classified it under A101 (wastes containing cyanide)?
a. 20 ppm
b. 100 ppm
c. 200 ppm
d. 1000 ppm

A

200 ppm

208
Q

T or F: Unidentified chemical waste can be disposed
together with the other unidentified chemical waste.

A

F

209
Q

T or F: Nitrates and potassium dichromate are
considered as waste oxidizers.

A

T

210
Q

T or F: Solutions containing high concentrations of
ammonia are considered as corrosive waste.

A

T

211
Q

T or F: Containers previously containing laboratory
reagents are not considered as hazardous waste.

A

F

212
Q

T or F: Waste containing pyridine is classified as non-
halogenated waste.

A

T

213
Q

T or F: Wastes can be stored in fume hoods or near
the sink.

A

F

214
Q

T or F: Store hazardous chemicals above eye level.

A

F

215
Q

T or F: In storing liquid wastes, leave enough amount
of head space in the container to allow for
expansion and safe transportation.

A

T

216
Q

T or F: Liquids must be stored with secondary
containment bins.

A

T

217
Q

Which of the following is the heaviest?
A. proton
B. neutron
C. electron
D. nucleus

A

nucleus

218
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

Boron

219
Q

What are the conditions to achieve the NON-ideality of gases?
A. high T, low P
B. high T, high P
C. low T, low P
D. low T, high P

A

low T, high P

220
Q

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non- polar molecule?
A. London Dispersion Force
B. Dipole-dipole Interaction
C. Ion-Dipole Interaction
D. Hydrogen Bonding

A

London Dispersion Force

221
Q

Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
A. decanol
B. lauric acid
C. toluene
D. benzene

A

benzene

222
Q

Buffer solutions are solutions that can neutralize small amounts of added acids and bases to maintain relatively stable pH values. Which of the following can be used to prepare a buffer solution?
A. NaHCOO, HCOOH
B. NaSO4, H2SO4
C. NaCH3COO
D. HCI, NaOH

A

NaHCOO, HCOOH

223
Q

What type of cell converts chemical to electrical energy?
A. Electrolytic Cell and Galvanic Cell
B. Electrolytic Cell and Voltaic Cell
C. Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell
D. Electrolytic Cell only

A

Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell

224
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
B. TD pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
C. TC pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TD pipet must be blown out by aspirator.
D. TD pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TC pipet must be blown out by aspirator.

A

TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.

225
Q

Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of wavelength?
A. Infrared > ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio waves
B. Microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet > radio waves
C. Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet
D. Ultraviolet > visible > infrared > microwave > radio waves

A

Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet

226
Q

The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. It is defined by the van Deemter equation.
B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.
C. The smaller the value is, the better the separation attainable.
D. The inverse of this quantity times the total column length is equal to the number of theoretical plates in the column.

A

The inverse of this quantity times the total column length is equal to the number of theoretical plates in the column.

227
Q

When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?
A. Reagent grade
B. Technical grade
C. Primary standard
D. Analytical grade

A

Reagent grade

228
Q

Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT
A. cyclohexane solution
B. acetic acid solution
C. 2-propanol solution
D. sodium hydroxide solution

A

acetic acid solution

229
Q

The elution power of a mobile phase is determined by

A. all of the choices
B. the nature of the sample components
C. the polarity of the stationary phase
D. its overall polarity

A

all of the choices

230
Q

Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is TRUE?

A. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.

B. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.

C. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.

D. Columns containing more theoretical plates make separations impossible.

A

Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.

231
Q

All of the following are common carrier gases from
gas chromatography EXCEPT

A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Argon
D. Helium

A

Oxygen

232
Q

The following are properties of an open tubular or capillary column EXCEPT

A. Only small samples can be applied.

B. It has a long column length with small inner diameter.

C. Poor resolution can be obtained.

D. It contains an enormous number of plates that permit rapid separations of closely related species.

A

Poor resolution can be obtained.

233
Q

An air sample is subjected to gas chromatography for the analysis of Freon-11 (CCIF). The detector that is most suitable for this analysis is

A. TCD
B. FID
C. ECD
D. TSD

A

ECD

234
Q

An advantage of HPLC over GC for the separation and measurement of high molecular weight compounds is that

A.The sensitivity of HPLC detectors increases as the molecular weights of the compounds increase.

B. HPLC systems are always operated under constant conditions of eluant temp and composition.

C. The preparation of volatile derivatives is not necessary in HPLC.

D. HPLC columns and detectors are simpler and less expensive..

A

The preparation of volatile derivatives is not necessary in HPLC.

235
Q

Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?

A. A stationary phase and mobile phase of similar polarities

B. A nonpolar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase

C. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase

D. A polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase

A

A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase

236
Q

Which of the following has the correct order of elution (first to last) from an HPLC column containing a reversed-phase packing?

A. dichloroethane, acetamide, acetone

B. dichloroethane, acetone, acetamide

C. acetone, dichloroethane, acetamide

D. acetamide, acetone, dichloroethane

A

acetamide, acetone, dichloroethane

237
Q

It is the nominal volume of water (or mercury) contained, or delivered by an article of volumetric glassware, at its reference temperature.

A. measurand

B. accuracy

C. capacity

D. calibration

A

capacity

238
Q

Which technique is recommended for determining the odor of an unknown liquid in the laboratory?

A. Use a hand to fan some of the vapor from the test tube to the rose and inhale.

B. Hold a test tube of the liquid under the nose and inhale the vapor.

C. Transfer a few drops of the liquid to the bench top and inhale the vapor from there.

D. Use a dropper to collect a small quantity of the vapor and squirt this under the nose while inhaling.

A

Use a hand to fan some of the vapor from the test tube to the rose and inhale.

239
Q

When exposure to hazards cannot be engineered completely out of normal operations, this supplementary method of control can be used.

A. elimination

B. substitution

C. use of PPE

D. administrative control

A

use of PPE

240
Q

Which of the following concentration units is independent of temperature?

A. molarity

B. normality

C. molality

D. percent volume

A

molality

241
Q

Weighing to constant weight means a weighing difference of ______ using a calibrated analytical balance.

±0.1mg

±0.01g

±0.01mg

±1.0 mg

A

±0.1mg

242
Q

Conductivity could be determined using the distance between the electrodes and their surface area using Ohm’s law but, for accuracy, a calibration is employed using _________of well-known conductivity.

A. basic solution

B. buffer solution

C. acid solution

D. electrolytes

A

electrolytes

243
Q

Ambient laboratory conditions are not the same to standard conditions, therefore the volumes dispensed in volumetric glassware are often not the same as the manufacturer’s specifications, but within some acceptable limits determined by the manufacturer. This slight variation in volume will cause a ______ error that are based on volume-volume or mass-volume concentrations.

A. random

B. all of the above

C. gross

D. systematic

A

systematic