Analytical Chemistry Flashcards
1
Q
processes the provides basis for analytical measurement
A
Technique
2
Q
a detailed set of instructions for a particular analysis using a specified technique
A
Method
3
Q
A set of written instructions on how to apply a method to a particular sample
A
Procedure
4
Q
Set of written guidelines for the analysis of a sample specified by an agency
A
Protocol
5
Q
Component of interest in sample
A
Analyte
5
Q
What are the instrumental methods of the following:
A. Absorption of radiation
B. Electrical Potential
C. Electrical Charge
D. Electrical current
E. Mass-to-Charge ratio
F. Rate of reaction
G. Thermal characteristics
H. Radioactivity
A
A. Spectroscopy
B. Potentiometry
C. Coulometry
D. Amperometry, Polarography
E. Mass Spectrometry
F. Kinetic methods
G. Thermal gravimetry, DTA, DSC
H. Activation and isotope dilution methods
5
Q
Collection of all the components in the sample
A
Matrix
6
Q
Process of collecting small amount of material whose composition represents the bulk of the material being sampled
A
Sampling
7
Q
Portion of a solution subjected to analysis
A
Aliquot
8
Q
A sample that contains all the components except the analyte
A
Blank
9
Q
Experimental measurement that is proportional to analyte concentration
A
Signal
10
Q
A. Middle result in the set of data. It is not affected by extreme values.
B. Also known as arithmetic mean. It is affected by extreme values.
A
A. Median
B. Mean
11
Q
Indicates the reproducibility (repeatability) of a measurement.
A
Precision
12
Q
Measure of the agreement between an experimental result and an expected value
A
Accuracy
13
Q
Type of Errors
A. Causes date to be more scattered more or less symmetrically around the mean.
B. causes the mean of set data to differ from the accepted value.
C. Are often large, and may cause a result to be either high or low.
A
A. Random (indeterminate) error
B. Systematic (determinate) error
C. Gross error
14
Q
Simple, widely used statistical test for deciding whether a suspected result should be retained or rejected
A
Q-test
15
Q
Recommended by the ISO and the Americal Society for Testing and Materials in place of Q-test
A
Grubb’s test
16
Q
Measure of the method’s ability to distinguish between two samples. It is reported as a change in signal per unit change in the amount of analyte
A
Calibration sensitivity
17
Q
IUPAC defined it as the smallest concentration or absolute amount of analyte with a signal significantly larger than the signal from a suitable blank.
A
Limit of Detection (Detection limit)
18
Q
Smallest amount of analyte that can be measured with reasonable accuracy
A
Limit of Quantitation (Quantitation Limit)
19
Q
_______ of an analytical method is said to be specific if its signal depends only on the analyte
A
Specificity
20
Q
Measure of method’s freedom from interferences
A
Selectivity
21
Q
Magnitude of the background signal divided by the standard deviation of the background signal
A
Signal-to-Noise ratio
22
Q
_____ is the fraction of the named material present
A
Purity
23
It determines the material's purity
Grade
24
Chemical grade that exceeds the purity standards set by the ACS with a purity of equal or more than 95%
ACS
25
Chemical grade where High purity chemicals have no established specifications
Reagent or analytical reagent
26
Chemical grade that meets or exceeds requirements set by the US Pharmacopeia. Acceptable for food, drug, or medicinal use.
USP
27
Chemical grade that meets or exceeds the requirements set by the National Formulary. Acceptable for food, drug, or medicinal use.
NF
28
Chemical grade with relatively high quality with exact levels of impurities unknown. Use for educational purposes.
Laboratory grade
29
Chemical grade with no established standards for purity level or for products with less than 90% purity.
Technical or Commercial
30
Describes whether a product or a service meets the minimum specifications set by the costumer in a timely manner.
Quality
31
Planned and systematic control that will give assurance of the quality of data generated in the laboratory
Quality Assurance
32
"assembly of all planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a product, process, or service, will satisfy the given quality requirements" - ISO
Quality Assurance
33
Involves the confirmation that the quality management system in the laboratory is fully implemented. It is specific only to a product, process, or service.
Certification
34
Formal procedure carried out by the relevant authority, which confers formal recognition that a laboratory is competent to carry out certain tasks.
Accreditation
35
Most general and globally recognized standards employed for testing and calibration laboratories
ISO/IEC 17025:2005
36
Promotes the adoption of a process approach when developing, implementing, and improving the effectiveness of a Quality Management System
ISO 9001
37
The quality standard that covers the preparation of samples derived from the human body
ISO 15189
38
Standard protocol required for all analytical laboratories which are concerned in the overall process in the laboratory...; a subsection of GMP
GLP (Good Laboratory Practices)
39
A standard protocol that requires all organizations manufacturing products for human consumption to be safe, pure, and effective
GMP (Good Manufacturing Practices)
40
Quality System standards employed in pathology labs
CPA (Clinical Pathology Accreditation)
41
Types of Blank
1) A sample containing all components except the analyte and is taken through all steps in the analytical procedure
2) A type of blank that is not subjected to all sample preparation procedures
3) A type of blank that has been exposed to the site of sampling. It is subject to possible sources of contamination
1) Method blank
2) Reagent Blank
3) Field Blank
42
TYPE OF SAMPLE
1) Samples of known compositions, having very similar matrix and analyte concentrations to the samples to be analyzed. It is also known as check samples.
2) A type of sample that provides a less formal check than QC samples. They are repeated in different batches.
3) A sample inserted into the analytical batch without the knowledge of the analyst.
1) QC Samples
2) Repeat Samples
3) Blind samples
43
Also known as fortification. It involves adding a known quantity of analyte to a sample to test whether the response to the sample is the same as that expected from a calibration curve.
Spike
44
Are materials of exceptional purity that are used to check the quality and metrological traceability of products...
Chemical Standards
45
TYPE OF CHEMICAL STANDARDS
1. It is a widely acknowledged standard with the highest metrological qualities
2. Standard whose value is assigned by comparison with a primary standard of the same quantity
3. A general term used to describe a solution or matrix containing a known amount of analyte, which will be used to check the performance of a method.
4. Pure component of accurately known concentration used to calibrate an instrument
1) Primary standard
2) Secondary standard
3) Analytical standard
4) Calibration standard
46
Substances whose property values are sufficiently homogenous and well established to be used for calibration of an apparatus
Reference material (RM)
47
A graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis to determine whether an analysis is in the state of statistical control
Quality Control Chart
48
What are the 6 rules of the Quality Control Chart to determine if the system is out of statistical control?
1) Any single point exceeds either the UCL or LCL
2) If 2 or 3 consecutive points are between UWL and UCL
3) 6 consecutive points are all decreasing or increasing
4) 7 consecutive points completely above or below the CL (Control Line)
5) 14 consecutive points alternate up and down value
6) If any obvious nonrandom pattern is observed
49
A written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting the employees.
CHP (Chemical Hygiene Plan)
50
A person appointed to perform safety-related activities such as review of hazardous properties of chemicals and MSDS.
Chemical Hygiene Officer
51
What are the 6 components of the Hierarchy of control principles?
In order:
1. Elimination
2. Substitution
3. Engineering controls
4. Administrative controls
5. PPEs
52
TYPES OF GLOVES
1) Use for biological hazards
2) For small volumes of corrosive liquids, organic solvents flammable compounds
3) Using apparatus under pressure
4) For hot liquids or cryogenic liquids
5) Working with live animals and exposure to potential cuts
1) Light latex, vinyl or nitrile gloves
2) Light chemical-resistant gloves
3) Light to heavy chemical-resistant gloves
4) insulated gloves (e.g. Terycloth autoclave and cryogen)
5) Wire mesh gloves
53
It is the value that determines the suitability of the chemical fume hood for its use (should be 80 to 100 feet per minute)
Face velocity
54
In the chemical hood, you should place chemical sources and apparatus at least _____ inches away from the face
6 inches
55
Eyewash fountains and safety showers should be placed at least ______ apart to make simultaneous use of two victims.
5 feet
56
For eyewash and shower equipment, the affected body part must be rinsed for at least ___ minutes.
15
57
Time for recommended flushing for:
a. Non-irritants or mild irritants
b. moderate to severe irritants
c. most corrosive
d. Strong alkalis
a. 5 min
b. 15-20 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 60 mins
58
______ pictograms are standardized symbols for labeling hazardous chemical substances.
GHS (Globally Harmonized System)
59
GHS symbol for explosives, organic peroxides, and self-reactive substances
Exploding bomb
60
GHS symbol for flammable substances
Flame
61
GHS symbol for oxidizers and organic peroxides
Flame over circle
62
GHS symbol for compressed gas
Gas cylinder
63
GHS symbol for corrosive metal, skin corrosion, serious eye damage
Corrosion
64
GHS symbol for acute toxicity (severe)
Skull and crossbones
65
GHS symbol for Irritant (skin and eye), acute toxicity (harmful), dermal sensitizers, target organ toxicity
Exclamation mark
66
GHS symbol for carcinogen, respiratory sensitive, mutagenicity, and reproductive toxicity...aspiration hazard
Health
67
GHS symbol for environmental hazard
Environment
68
It is a technical document that contains all information about a certain material related to its health effects upon exposure, hazard, and storage handling. It is composed of 16 sections.
SDS (Safety Data Sheet)
69
It gives specifications for a standard system for the assigning and identification of the health, flammability, and reactivity hazards of material under emergency conditions.
NFPA Hazard Signals
70
Identify the hazard, color, and scale of the NFPA Symbol
a) Above
b) Right
c) Left
d) Below
a. Red (Fire hazard)
b. Yellow (Reactivity
c. Blue (Health Hazard)
d. White (Specific Hazard)
71
Lowest temperature the vapor in the air will ignite with an ignition source
Flash point
72
Lowest temperature to initiate self-sustained combustion independent from heat source
Autoignition temperature
73
Highest/Lowest concentration of a substance in the air that will ignite with an ignition source
Upper/Lower Flammability Limit
74
There should be a minimum of ____ fire exits and their distance should be ____ % from each other. They should also be mechanically pressurized,
2, 20%
75
Identify the types of Fire
A
B
C
D
K
A: Ordinary combustible solid
B. Combustible Liquid and Gas
C. Electrical Fire
D. Combustible metals
K. Kitchen Fire
76
Identify the Color Designation and recommended use of each type of Fire extinguisher
1) Dry Chemical
2) Carbon monoxide
3) Foam
4) Halon substitute
1) Red body, white band (ABC)
2) Red body, black band (BC)
3) Red body, blue body (AB)
4) Light green body, white band (ABC)
77
Materials that ignite due to rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture in the air.
Pyrophoric substances
78
These are reactions that result in sudden, rapid rise in temperature of the material that is being heated which may become violent.
Runaway reactions
79
Functional groups that pose an explosion hazard
Azides, Ozone, Nitro group, Nitroso group, Peroxides, and Tertiary amines
80
Physiological Classifications of Material
1. Chemical agents that cause undesirable responses or tissues upon contact or exposure
2. It causes depletion of oxygen in the tissues.
3. Affect the nervous system by inducing depressant effects
4. Are agents that cause toxic action mainly on internal organs
5. Chemical agents that may cause cancer to exposed individual
6. Chemical agents that affect the cells of the person upon exposure that may lead to cancer or undesirable mutation to take place in the later generation
7. Agents that cause birth defects upon exposure to the pregnant women
8. Agents that cause allergic reactions
1. Irritants
2. Asphyxiants
3. Narcotics
4. Systemic poisons
5. Carcinogens
6. Mutagens
7. Teratogens
8. Sensitizers
81
Production of reversible damage to the skin occurring after initial exposure to a substance or mixture.
Skin irritation
82
The extent to which a substance is taken up by an organism and distributed to an area within the organism
Bioavailability
83
Net result of uptake, concentration,...of a substance in an organism due to all routes of exposure.
Bioaccumulation
84
Net result of uptake, concentration,...of a substance in an organism due to waterborne exposure
Bioconcentration
85
Amount of chemical that when ingested, will kill 50% of the test animals.
LD50 (Lethal Dose 50)
86
Max concentration in air of hazardous substance to which nearly all workers (w/o PPE) can be exposed w/o adverse effects
Exposure Limit
87
1. Maximum average concentration to which workers can safely be exposed for a normal 8-hour workday or 48-hour workweek
2. Maximum concentration that is safe for workers for 15 minutes
3. Concentration that is not safe even for an instant.
1. Time-weighted average (TWA)
2. Short-term exposure limit
3. Ceiling limit
88
How are solid chemical spills treated?
small solid waste spills can be swept using a dustpan or shovel while large and potentially toxic solid spills use HEPA (High Efficiency Particulate Air)
89
How are acid solution spills treated?
Using Soda ash or Baking soda. Once neutralized, they are safe to be washed down.
90
How are alkali solution spills treated?
with citric acid or dilute HCL, solid boric acid (H3BO3), or dilute acetic acid.
91
How are Volatile and Flammable solvent spills treated?
Do not wipe. Use sorbent materials like amorphous silicate, polypropylene, or surfactant-treated propylene
92
How are mercury spills treated?
Do not wipe. Use an aspirator bulb or vacuum device. Mercury spilled on cracks can be made nonvolatile by amalgamation of zinc dust
93
the design of chemical products and processes that reduce or eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances
Green Chemistry (Has 12 principles)
94
It is a record or list of chemicals in the laboratory
Chemical inventory
95
These are chemicals that are in special consideration and incompatible with all, hence they require separate containment
Nitric acid and Perchloric acid
96
DAO 2013-22 is also known as
Revised procedures and standards for the management of hazardous wastes
97
Four description of Hazardous waste material
1. Ignitability
2. Corrosivity
3. Reactivity
4. Toxicity
98
Identify the container type based on hazardous waste:
1. Acids and bases
2. Flammable, solvents, paints
3. Granular materials
1. Polyethylene drums
2. Metal drums
3. Fiber drums
99
The maximum hazardous waste accumulation time is ___ year/s except for waste that has no existing infrastructure for disposal.
1 year
100
The label for the hazardous waste should have a minimum size of (1)_____ and be readable from (2)____ away.
The color of the background is (3) _____ and the letters are in (4)_______.
1) 20 cm by 30 cm
2) 5 meters
3) yellow
4) Black
101
Transport Pictograms for hazardous waste should have a minimum size of (1)_____ and be readable from (2)_____ away.
The diamond shape should be rotated at (3)____ degrees and (4)_____ % is the inner diamond.
For waste-transporting vehicles, the size should be (5)_______ and readable from (6)_____ afar.
1) 10 cm x 10 cm
2) 5 meters
3) 45 degrees
4) 95%
5) 30 cm x 30 cm
6) 10 meters
102
Also known as the "Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act"
RA 6969
103
It is the revised Fire Code of the Philippines
RA 9514
104
"The Dangerous Drugs Act"
RA 9165
105
Chemistry Profession Act
RA 10657
106
Types of Samples in Terms of the Sampling Process
1) A sample with characteristics the same as that of the parent material
2) Sample obtained by choosing a certain portion/location of the material to be analyzed.
3) Obtained using random sampling
4) Two or more portions of the material collected at the same time.
5) A single sample taken at a specific time
1) Representative samples
2) Selective samples
3) Random samples
4) Composite samples
5) Grab/Catch sample
107
IUPAC: "predetermined procedure for the selection, withdrawal, reservation, transportation, and preparation of the portions to be removed from a population as samples"
Sampling plan
108
TYPES OF SAMPLING
Probability sampling is performed when statistical evaluation is needed to be employed on the set of data. Under these are:
1) _____ any sample that has an equal chance of selection
2) _____ - the lot is subdivided/stratified where a simple random sample is selected from each stratum.
3) ______ - first sample is selected randomly and then subsequent samples are taken according to a previously arranged interval
1. Simple random sampling
2. Stratified random sampling
3. Systematic random sampling
109
TYPES OF SAMPLING
Non-probability sampling is performed when a representative sample is not appropriate, hence results in selective judgment. Under these are:
1. ____ - knowledge about the material is required to select the desired specific samples
2. _____ - materials are subdivided into groups where a sample is selected from each group
3. _____- selecting a sample is based on its availability and accessibility.
1. Judgement sampling
2. Quota sampling
3. Convenience sampling
110
A type of sampling that involves the selection of a sample from material that does not consist of discrete, identifiable, or constant units
Bulk sampling
111
A type of sampling that involves the use of a predetermined sampling plan to determine if the batch of materials meets the defined criteria of acceptance
Acceptance sampling
