Anaesthetics Basics Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the purpose of induction agents

A

Used to induce loss of consciousness in one to two brain-arm circulations

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2
Q

Name the most commonly used induction agent

A

Propofol

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3
Q

What is the normal dosage for propofol?

A

1.5-2.5mg/kg

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4
Q

Positives of propofol?

A

Excellent suppression of airway reflexes

Reduces incidence of PONV (post-operative nausea/vomiting)

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5
Q

What induction agent is commonly used for rapid sequence induction?

A

Thiopentone

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6
Q

What is RSI?

A

Rapid sequence induction: an established method of inducing anaesthesia in patients who are at risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs e.g trauma, when you don’t know whats in the stomach and need to be put under quickly

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7
Q

What is thiopentone codraindicated in?

A

Porphyria

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8
Q

Which induction agent has anti-epileptic properties and protects the brain?

A

Thiopentone

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9
Q

What occurs if thiopentone is injected into an artery?

A

Thrombosis and gangrene

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10
Q

What is the dosage of Thiopentone?

A

4-5mg/kg

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11
Q

What anaesthetic is recommended for short procedures/ use in the field?

A

Ketamine

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12
Q

What effect does Ketamine have on BP and HR?

A

Increases

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13
Q

A patient is confused, with anterograde amnesia, which induction agent have they been given?

A

Ketamine

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14
Q

Dosage of Ketamine?

A

1.0-1.5mg/kg

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15
Q

Which induction agent is recommended for haemodynamic stability? (good for cardiac sensitive situations)

A

Etomidate

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16
Q

What is the dosage of etomidate?

A

0.3mg/kg

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17
Q

Why does -etomidate have a high mortality rate in sepsis?

A

Adreno-cortical suppression

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18
Q

What is the purpose of inhalation agents?

A

Used to keep patients asleep after use of induction agents

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19
Q

When would an inhalation agent be used for induction?

A

Patients afraid of needles (paeds)

20
Q

What is meant by MAC?

A

Minimum alveolar concentration (Concentration of the vapour that prevents the reaction to a standard surgical stimulus (traditionally a set depth and width of skin incision) in 50% of subjects.

21
Q

Which inhalaton agent is recommended in children?

A

Sevoflurane (sweet smelling)

22
Q

Which inhalation agent is recommended for long operations?

A

Desflurane

23
Q

Which inhalation agent is known for a rapid onset and offset?

A

Desflurane

24
Q

Which inhalation agent is recommended for organ retrieval and why?

A

Isoflurane due its minimal effect on organ blood flow

25
Q

What is given prior to induction?

A

Analgesia

26
Q

What is analgesia required for?

A
Insertion of airway
Laryngeal mask airway
Intubation
Intraoperative pain relief
Post-operative pain relief
27
Q

Give three examples of short acting opiods

A

Fentanyl
Remifentanil
Alfentanil

28
Q

What is the most commonly used analgesic?

A

Paracetamol

29
Q

Diclofenac and Parcoxib are what types of painkiller?

A

NSAIDS

30
Q

Explain the physiology of muscle contraction

A

As an action potential arrives at a neuro-muscular junction acetylcholine is released. This causes depolarisation of Nicotinic receptors leading to muscle contraction

31
Q

How do depolarising muscle relaxants work?

A

Act on nicotinic receptors in the same way as acetylcholine, however are very slowly hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase. This causes muscle contraction. The muscle then fatigues and relaxes.

32
Q

What is the most common depolarising muscle relaxant?

A

Suxamethonium

33
Q

Which muscle relaxant is used for RSI?

A

Suxamethonium

34
Q

Adverse effects of Suxamethonium

A
Muscle pains
fasciculations
hyperkalaemia
Malignant hyperthermia
Rise in ICP, IOP and gastric pressure
35
Q

Non-depolarising muscle relaxants have ….. onset and variable onset

A

slow

36
Q

Name two short acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Atracurium

Mivacurium

37
Q

Name two intermediate acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Vecuronium

Recuronium

38
Q

Name a long acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Pancuronium

39
Q

What is Neostigmine used for?

A

It is an anti-cholinerase used to reverse muscle relaxants by preventing breakdown of acetlycholinesterase

40
Q

Glycopyrrolate is combined with what to reverse muscle relaxant

A

Neostigmine

41
Q

What effect does ephedrine have on HR and contractility?

A

Rise in HR and contractility (this increases O2 required for heart) leading to rise in BP (direct and indirect action, alpha and Beta receptors)

42
Q

Which two drugs cause a rise in BP by vasoconstriction?

A

Phenylephrine

Metaraminol

43
Q

What medications are used to maintain BP in sever hypotension (sepsis, ICU)?

A

Noradrenaline
Adrenaline
Dobutamine

44
Q

Why are anti-emetics used post operatively?

A

To prevent PONV

45
Q

Name three anti-emetic agents

A

Ondansetron (commonly used)
Cyclizine (anti-histamine)
Dexamethasone (Steroids, given only in unconscious patients as causes stinging on administration)
Metoclopramide (anti-dopaminergic)