Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

This is a condition seen following adminstration of anaesthetic agents halothane or suxamethonium.

It is characterised by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity. Due to excessive Ca2+ release from sarcopasmic riticulum of skeletal muscle due to autosomal dominant defect.

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2
Q

What are the investigations in malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • CK (raised)
  • Contracture tests with halothane and caffeine
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3
Q

Which drug is key in management of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene IV (prevents Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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4
Q

For which procedures is pharmacolociage VTE prophylaxis recommended for all patients?

A

Elective Hip:

  • LMWH for 10 days followed by aspirin (75mg) for a further 28 days
  • OR LMWH for 28 days + TED stockings
  • OR Rivaroxiban

Elective knee:

  • Aspirin for 14 days
  • OR LMWH for 14 days combined wtih TED stockings
  • OR Rivaroxiban

Fragility fractures of pelvis, hip, proximal femur:

  • LMWH or fondaparinux until the person no longer has reduced mobility
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5
Q

What type of surgery is ring block used in?

A

Ring block refers to anaesthetic technique used to numb a finger, e.g. for ingrown nail operations. the nerves on both sides of the finger are infiltrated, leading to a “ring-like” blockage.

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6
Q

If a patient is steroid dependent and takes regular prednisolone, how do you alter the dose during surgery?

A

Patients that are steroid dependent taking prednisolone should have hydrocortisone. Rule of thumb:

  • Minor procedure under local: no supplementation required
  • Moderate procedure: 50mg hydrocortisone before induction and 25mg every 8h for 24h
  • Major surgery: 100mg hydrocortisone before induction and 50mg every 8h for 24h, thereafter halving dose every 24h until maintenance dose reached.
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7
Q

What is the most common site for intraosseus access?

A

Proximal tibia

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8
Q

How long prior to surger should the COCP be disoncinued?

When can it be restarted?

A

Should be stopped 4 weeks before, can be restared 2 weeks after.

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9
Q

Which muscle relaxant is used in rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia?

A

A depolarising muscle relaxant such as suxamethonium is used for rapid sequence induction, as it has the fastest onset.

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10
Q

What is a rapid sequence induction and give an example for when it is used.

A

Rapid sequnce induction is where th patients is not ventilated form administration of the drugs to tracheal intubateion.

This is used when the stomach hasn’t been emptied (e.g. in trauma surgery) as it reduces the risk of aspiration.

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11
Q

What is a contraindication to use suxamethonium?

A
  • Suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as suxamethonium increases intra-ocular pressure.
  • Patients with high potassium: suxamethonium may cause hyperkalaemia. It is therefore often containdicated in burns/trauma patients.
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12
Q

When is ketamine used as an anesthetic agent?

A

Ketamine may be used for induction of anaesthesia in patients that are haemodynamically unstable as it produces little myocardial depression.

t may be used for emergency procedures outside the hospital environment to induce anaesthesia for procedures such as emergency amputation.

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13
Q

How many units of blood should be corssmatched for open cystectomy?

How many for laparoscopic cystectomy?

A

4-6 depending on local guidelines.

Laparoscopic: G&S is enough.

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14
Q

How many units of blood should be corssmatched for AAA repair?

A

4-6 depending on local guidelines.

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15
Q

How many units of blood should be corssmatched for salpingectopy, ruptured ectopic, total hip replacement?

A

2 units

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16
Q

Describe the management of post-operative ilues.

A

Conservative with nasogastric tube insertion for stomach decompression for symptom control and placing the patient nil by mouth to allow bowel rest. The recommencement of fluids/light diet should be in stages and guided by the clinical state of the patient.

17
Q

Which fluids does NICE recommend to use to clean wounds post-OP?

A

Up to 48 hours: Sterile saline

From 48 hours onwards, patients may shower and tap water may be used.

18
Q

In which situations can you not use a laryngeam mask airway?

A
  • Patient not fasted (as doesn’t protect from aspiration)
  • Cannot be used to provide high pressure ventilation
19
Q

SUmmarise the immediate management of a DIC during labour.

A

Clotting studies and a platelet count should be urgently requested and advice from a haematologist sought. Up to 4 units of FFP and 10 units of cryoprecipitate may be given whilst awaiting the results of the coagulation studies.’

20
Q

What are early causes of post-OP pyrexia?

A
  • Blood transfusion
  • Cellulitis
  • UTI
  • Physiological systemic inflammatory reaction
  • Pulomnary atelectasis
21
Q

What are late causes of post-OP pyrexia?

A
  • VTE
  • Pneumonia
  • Wound infection
  • Anastomotic leak
22
Q

What is the diagnosis of choice for suspected anastomotic leak?

A

Abdominal CT.

23
Q

What is the most appropriate way to administer TPN?

A

Central line

24
Q

What medications are known to slow bone healing?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Immunosuppressives
  • Steroids
  • Anti-neoplastic drugs
25
Q

What electrolyte/acid-base abnormality may occur when giving too much normal saline?

A

xcessive administration of sodium chloride is a recognised cause of hyperchloraemic acidosis and therefore Hartmans solution may be preferred where large volumes of fluid are to be administered.

26
Q

Describe the immediate management of wound dehiscnece.

A
  • Apply sterile gauze soaked in 0.9% saline.
  • Call senior help immediately for theatre.
27
Q

What is a complication of long-term intubation?

A

Long term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients can result in tracheo-oesophageal fistula formation.

The pressure arising from the endotracheal tube on the posterior membranous wall of the trachea can result in ischaemic necrosis that also involves the anterior wall of the oesophagus. This results in TOF formation.

28
Q

Which anaesthetic agent is hepatotoxic and should therefore be avoided in patient with hepatic dysunction?

A

Halothane.

Halothane is hepatotoxic. Despite this it remains in mainstream use. It should be avoided in patients with hepatic dysfunction, and scavengers should be used in theatres as accumulation of the drug may be injurious to theatre staff.

29
Q

What are the symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity?

A
  • Circumoral and/or tongue numbness.
  • Metallic taste.
  • Lightheadedness.
  • Dizziness.
  • Visual and auditory disturbances (difficulty focusing and tinnitus)
  • Disorientation.
  • Drowsiness.
30
Q

How can local anaesthetic toxicity be treated?

A

Local anesthetic toxicity can be treated with IV 20% lipid emulsion

31
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of suxamethonimum apnoea?

A

Pseudocholinesterase deficiency (also known as suxamethonium apnoea) is a rare abnormality in the production of plasma cholinesterases. This leads to an increased duration of action of muscle relaxants used in anaesthesia, such as suxamethonium. Respiratory arrest is inevitable unless the patient can be mechanically ventilated safely while waiting for the circulating muscle relaxants to degrade.

32
Q

What are components of the WHO surgical safety checklist?

A
  • Patient has confirmed: Site, identity, procedure, consent
  • Site is marked
  • Anaesthesia safety check completed (machine/medications)
  • Pulse oximeter is on patient and functioning
  • Does the patient have a known allergy?
  • Is there a difficult airway/aspiration risk?
  • Is there a risk of > 500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)?
33
Q

Which ventilation technique can be used to facilitate long-term weaning?

A

Tracheostomies.