Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

The effects of Adrenaline:

A

Receptors affected: α1 β1 β2

Inotropic
Chronotropic
Vasopressor

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2
Q

The effects of dobutamaine:

A

Receptors affected: β1 β2

Inotropic
Chronotropic

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3
Q

The effects of Noradenaline:

A

Receptors affected: α1 β1

Inotropic
Vasopressor

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4
Q

The effects of Phenylephrine:

A

Receptors affected: α1

Vasopressor

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5
Q

How are patients on ICU sedated?

A

A continuous intravenous infusion of Propofol

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6
Q

What can insufficient sedation of a patient on ICU lead to?

A

Agitation and poor ventilation

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7
Q

What can over sedation of a patient on ICU increase the risk of?

A

Chest infection
Neuropathies
Venous thromboembolism

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8
Q

What urine output indicated a developing AKI?

A

less than 0.5ml/kg/hour

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9
Q

Stop which drugs during an AKI?

A

Stop the DAMN drugs

Diuretics
ACEs and ARBs
Metformin
NSAIDs

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10
Q

What are the target saturations for a COPD patient?

A

88-92%

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11
Q

What type of respiratory support may be indicated for worsening Type 1 respiratory failure?

A

CPAP

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12
Q

What type of respiratory support may be indicated for worsening Type 2 respiratory failure?

A

BiPAP

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13
Q

What may be indicated if non invasive ventilation methods fail?

A

Intermittent positive-pressure ventilation (IPPV)

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14
Q

What is the safe dose of Lignocaine without adrenaline?

A

3mg/kg

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15
Q

What is the safe dose of Lignocaine with adrenaline?

A

7mg/kg

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16
Q

What is the safe dose of Bupivacaine / levobupivacaine ? (with or without adrenaline)

A

2mg/kg

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17
Q

What is the safe dose of Prilocaine?

A

6mg/kg

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18
Q

What are the fasting guidelines for clear fluids?

e.g. water, black tea, black coffee, fruit juice without pulp

A

2 hours

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19
Q

What are the fasting guidelines for breast milk?

A

4 hours

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20
Q

What are the fasting guidelines for cows milk or a light meal?

A

6 hours

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21
Q

What drugs are traditionally used in a Rapid Sequence Induction?

A

Thiopentone (4-5mg/kg)

Suxamethonium (1-1.5mg/kg)

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22
Q

What should a General Anaesthesia achieve?

A

Amnesia – lack of response and recall to noxious stimuli

Analgesia – pain relief

Akinesis – immobilisation / paralysis

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23
Q

Name 4 induction agents

A

Thiopentone
Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate

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24
Q

What are the properties of Propofol and its benefits as an induction agent?

A

Propofol 1.5 – 2.5 mg/kg
Lipid based (white emulsion)
Excellent suppression of airway reflexes
Decreases incidence of PONV

25
Q

What are the problems with Propofol as an induction agent?

A

Propofol 1.5 -2.5 mg/kg

Unwanted effects:
Marked drop in HR and BP
Pain on injection
Involuntary movements

26
Q

What are the properties of Thiopentone and its benefits as an induction agent?

A

Thiopentone 4–5 mg/kg
Barbiturate - Faster than propofol
Used mainly for rapid sequence induction
Antiepileptic properties and protects brain

27
Q

What are the problems with Thiopentone as an induction agent?

A

Thiopentone 4-5 mg/kg

Unwanted effects:
Drops BP but rise in HR
Histamine release = Rash / Bronchospasm
Intraarterial injection: thrombosis and gangrene
Contraindicated in Porphyria
28
Q

What are the properties of Ketamine and its benefits as an induction agent?

A
Ketamine 1-1.5 mg/kg 
Dissociative anaesthesia
Anterograde amnesia and profound analgesia
Slow onset (90 seconds)
Rise in both HR and BP
Bronchodilation
29
Q

What are the problems with Ketamine as an induction agent?

A

Ketamine 1-1.5 mg/kg

Nausea and vomiting
Emergence phenomenon: vivid dreams, hallucinations

30
Q

What are the properties of Etomidate and its benefits as an induction agent?

A

Etomidate 0.3 mg/kg
Rapid onset
Hemodynamic stability
Lowest incidence of hypersensitivity reaction

31
Q

What are the problems with Etomidate as an induction agent?

A

Adreno-cortical suppression

Pain on injection
Spontaneous movements
High incidence PONV

32
Q

A patient with porphyria comes for an inguinal hernia repair

which induction agent do you use?
which do you definitely not use?

A

Use propofol

Avoid thiopentone

33
Q

Which induction agent is best used for changing burns dressings?

34
Q

A patient with intestinal obstruction requires an emergency laparotomy, which induction agent do you use?

A

Thiopentone

35
Q

A patient with a history of heart failure requires a general anaesthetic, which induction agent do you use?

36
Q

Which induction agent can cause adrenal-cortical suppression?

37
Q

Name the 5 common inhalation agents and consider their MACs

A
Nitrous oxide: 104%
Sevoflurane: 2%
Isoflurane : 1.15%
Desflurane : 6%
Enflurane : 1.6 %
38
Q

Which inhalation agent can be used for a gas induction in children with no IV access?

A

Sevoflurane

39
Q

Which inhalation agent will be used for a long operation lasting several hours?

A

Desflurane

40
Q

Which induction agent would be used during an organ retrieval from a donor?

A

Isoflurane

41
Q

How do you assess and manage a patient with postoperative pain?

A

ABCDE assessment
Pain assessment (0-3 score)
Analgesic ladder
Acute pain service

42
Q

Analgesics for a postoperative pain score of 0

A

PRN - Paracetamol

43
Q

Analgesics for a postoperative pain score of 1

A

Regular- Paracetamol

PRN - NSAID, Weak Opioid

44
Q

Analgesics for a postoperative pain score of 2

A

Regular - Paracetamol, NSAID and Weak Opioid

PRN - Strong Opioid

45
Q

Analgesics for a postoperative pain score of 3

A

Regular - Paracetamol and NSAID

PRN - Strong opioid
or Standard PCAS, Epidural or Spinal

46
Q

What is the definition of chronic pain?

A

Persistent and intractable pain lasting more than 3 months

47
Q

Diclofenac, Ketorolac and Parecoxib are example of what?

48
Q

Which opioid is commonly used during induction?

49
Q

What are the properties of suxamethonium and what are its benefits?

A

Suxamethonium 1 -1.5 mg/kg
Depolarising muscle relaxant
- agonist of nicotinic receptors
Rapid Sequence Induction (Rapid onset - Rapid offset)

50
Q

What are the adverse affects of suxamethonium?

A
muscle pains, 
fasciculations,
hyperkalemia
malignant hyperthermia, 
rise in ICP, IOP and gastric pressure
51
Q

What are the short acting non depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Atracurium, Mivacurium

52
Q

What are the intermediate acting non depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Vecuronium, Rocuronium

53
Q

What are the long acting non depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Pancuronium

54
Q

What drugs can be used to reverse non depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Neostigmine & Glycopyrrolate

55
Q

What are the mechanism of action of neostigmine and glycopyrrolate?

A

Used for reversal of non depolarising muscle relaxants

Neostigmine is an anti-cholinesterase
Prevents breakdown of acetylcholine

Muscarinic effects of acetylcholine = Bradycardia etc
Glycopyrrolate is an antimuscarinic
Reduces unwanted effects of neostigmine

56
Q

Best vasoactive agent for a patient with a low BP and a low HR?

A

Ephedrine

Raises BP and HR

57
Q

Best vasoactive agent for a patient with a low BP and a high HR?

A

Phenylephrine or Metaraminol

Raise the BP by vasoconstriction

58
Q

How do you manage a local anaesthetic overdose?

A

Stop local anaesthetic
ABCDE assessment and management
Control seizures
Give IV Lipid emulsion