Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

How long before an operation should a patient be fasted of food and drink?

A

6 hours of no food or feeds before the operation
2 hours of no clear fluids (fully “nil by mouth”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the biggest concern during rapid sequence induction?

A

aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the triad of anaesthesia?

A

Hypnosis
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State 3 IV hypnotic agents

A

Propofol (the most commonly used)
Ketamine
Thiopental sodium (less common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

State 2 inhaled hypnotic agents

A

Sevoflurane (the most commonly used)
Desflurane (less favourable as bad for the environment)
Isoflurane (very rarely used)
Nitrous oxide (combined with other anaesthetic medications – may be used for gas induction in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 2 categories of muscle relaxant and give an example of each

A

Depolarising (e.g., suxamethonium)
Non-depolarising (e.g., rocuronium and atracurium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the most common agents used for analgesia in anaesthetics?

A

Fentanyl
Alfentanil
Remifentanil
Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

state 3 prophylactic anti-emetics that may be given at the end of an operation and their contraindications

A

Ondansetron (5HT3 receptor antagonist) – avoided in patients at risk of prolonged QT interval
Dexamethasone (corticosteroid) – used with caution in diabetic or immunocompromised patients
Cyclizine (histamine (H1) receptor antagonist) – caution with heart failure and elderly patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what drug can reverse the effect of non-depolarising relaxants?

A

Sugammadex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name some significant risks of general anaesthesia

A

Accidental awareness (waking during the anaesthetic)
Aspiration
Dental injury
Anaphylaxis
Cardiovascular events
Malignant hyperthermia
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the features of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Increased body temperature (hyperthermia)
Increased carbon dioxide production
Tachycardia
Muscle rigidity
Acidosis
Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name 3 procedures where a spinal anaesthetic may be used

A

Caesarean sections
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
Hip fracture repairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

state 3 adverse effects of an epidural

A

Headache if the dura is punctured, creating a hole for CSF to leak from (“dural tap”)
Hypotension
Motor weakness in the legs
Nerve damage (rare)
Infection, including meningitis
Haematoma (may cause spinal cord compression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a common complication of mechanical ventilation?

A

Ventilator-associated lung injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

list the options for respiratory support from least to most invasive

A

Oxygen therapy
High-flow nasal cannula
Non-invasive ventilation
Intubation and mechanical ventilation
Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

17
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome presents with an acute onset of:

A

Collapse of the alveoli and lung tissue (atelectasis)
Pulmonary oedema (not related to heart failure or fluid overload)
Decreased lung compliance
Fibrosis of the lung tissue (typically after 10 days or more)

18
Q

clinically what are the signs of acute respiratory distress?

A

Acute respiratory distress
Hypoxia with an inadequate response to oxygen therapy
Bilateral infiltrates on a chest x-ray

19
Q

what is the management of ARDS?

A

Respiratory support
Prone positioning (lying on their front)
Careful fluid management to avoid excess fluid collecting in the lungs
Positive end-expiratory pressure

20
Q

what is the concentration of oxygen via a nasal cannula?

A

24 – 44% oxygen

21
Q

what is the concentration of oxygen via a simple face mask?

A

40 – 60% oxygen

22
Q

what are inotropes?

A

medications that alter the contractility of the heart

23
Q

what are vasopressors?

A

medications that cause vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). This increases the systemic vascular resistance and consequently mean arterial pressure (MAP)

24
Q

state 4 indications for acute dialysis

A

A – Acidosis (severe and not responding to treatment)
E – Electrolyte abnormalities (treatment-resistant hyperkalaemia)
I – Intoxication (overdose of certain medications)
O – Oedema (severe and unresponsive pulmonary oedema)
U – Uraemia symptoms such as seizures or reduced consciousness