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Supporting Anaesthesia 312 > Anaesthetic Monitoring Question Bank > Flashcards

Anaesthetic Monitoring Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Monitoring of genera anaesthesia should include all of the following except;
A)monitoring the surgical procedure
B)monitoring the anaesthesia machine and breathing system
C)monitoring the rate of intravenous fluid administration
D)monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

A

D)monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

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2
Q

Monitoring of the anaesthetised patient ends;
A)When the volatile agent is switched off
B)At extubation
C)When the patient is able to lift its head and maintain Sternal recumbency
D)When the patient is discharged from the practice

A

D)When the patient is discharged the practice

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3
Q

Pulse oximetry is;
A)an invasive method of blood pressure monitoring
B)A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
C)Ineffective without the simultaneous use of ECG measurement
D)An invasive method of assessing pulse rate and quality

A

B)A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin

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4
Q

Pulse oximetry is;
A)An invasive method of blood pressure monitoring
B)A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
C)Ineffective without the simultaneous use of ECG measurement
D)An invasive method of assessing pulse rate and quality

A

B)A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin

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5
Q

An example of invasive cardiovascular monitoring of the anaesthetised patient is;
A)Palpation of peripheral blood vessels
B)Ultrasonic Doppler
C)Pulse oximetry
D)Arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

A

D)Arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

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6
Q 
With regards to depth of anaesthesia “eyes down” means the eyeballs are positioned;
A)Dorsoventrally 
B)Ventrolaterally 
C)Ventromedially 
D)Craniocaudally
A

C)Ventromedially

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7
Q 
Signs of inadequate neuromuscular blockade and relaxation include;
A)Return to consciousness
B)Cessation of ventilation 
C)Twitching 
D)Eyes in central position
A

C)Twitching

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8
Q

A patient has stopped breathing during a surgical procedure. After informing the veterinary surgeon you switch off the volatile agent, then you should;
A)Start external cardiac massage
B)Wait to see if the patient start to breathe on its own
C)Check for a heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV
D)Disconnect the breathing system, remove the endotracheal tube and give 100% oxygen by mask

A

C)Check for heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV

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9
Q

A patient stops breathing and appears cyanosed after induction with propofol. Your reaction is to;
A)Inform the veterinary surgeon and give oxygen by mask
B)Inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation
C)Commence external cardiac compressions while informing the veterinary surgeon
D)Inform the veterinary surgeon whilst drawing up a dose of atipamezole

A

B)Inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation

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10
Q

Doppler blood pressure measurement records;
A)Diastolic pressure
B)Systolic pressure only
C)Mean arterial pressure only
D)Systolic and diastolic arterial pressures

A

B)Systolic pressure

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11
Q 
An anaesthetised dog that has a persistent end-tidal carbon dioxide reading of 70 mmHg is likely to be suffering from;
A)Hypercapnia
B)Hypoxaemia
C)Hypotension
D)Hypothermia
A

A)Hypercapnia

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12
Q

Which category of anaesthetic drugs characteristically has a tranquillising effect, as well as being an anxiolytic?
A)Sedative
B)Tranquilliser
C)Narcotic

A

B)Tranquilliser

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13
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to have a negative impact on recovery time following general anaesthesia?
A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Renal disease
C)Obesity
D)Hepatic disease
A

D)Hepatic diseas

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14
Q

What does I/P stand for?

A

Intra peritoneal

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15
Q 
For which of the following procedures would use of local anaesthesia not be indicated?
A)Digit amputation
B)Cruciate ligament repair
C)Thoracotomy 
D)Multiple dental extraction
A

C)Thoracotomy

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16
Q 
Which of the following requires injections of anaesthetic drugs into the cerebrospinal fluid?
A)Spinal block
B)Epidural
C)Myelogram
D)Perineural block
A

A)Spinal block

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17
Q 
Which of the following would be the most appropriate drug for the use in an ophthalmic examination?
A)Lidocaine
B)Proxymetacaine
C)Bupivacaine
D)Mepivacaine
A

B)Proxymetacaine

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18
Q 
Which of the following is not listed as a specified component of balanced anaesthesia?
A)Muscle relaxation
B)Unconsciousness
C)Analgesia
D)Amnesia
A

D)Amnesia

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19
Q 
Through which part of the respiratory system does gaseous exchange occur?
A)Alveoli
B)Bronchioles
C)Trachea
D)Bronchi
A

A)Alveoli

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20
Q 
Which of the following does not assist with the control of volume of air inhaled?
A)Abdominal muscles
B)Intercostal muscles
C)Larynx
D)Diaphragm
A

C)Larynx

21
Q

Constriction of blood vessels with increased cardiac output is associated with which of the following?
A)Hypertension
B)Hypotension

A

A)Hypertension

22
Q

The statement “the pressure exerted on the arteries between heart contractions” describes which of the following?
A)Systolic
B)Diastolic
C)Mean

A

B)Diastolic

23
Q 
Which of the following organs has significant roles in maintaining blood volume, the excretion of anaesthetic drugs and blood pressure control?
A)Liver
B)Lungs
C)Kidneys
D)Brain
A

C)Kidneys

24
Q 
On which piece of equipment will you most commonly find a Bosun’s whistle?
A)Oxygen supply
B)Pulse oximeter
C)Active scavenging system
D)Humphreys ADE
A

A)Oxygen system

25
Q 
A size F gas cylinder contains how many litres of medical oxygen?
A)680
B)1340
C)3400
D)6800
A

B)1340

26
Q

What does APL stand for when referring to anaesthetic circuits?

A

Adjustable pressure limiting valve

27
Q 
“An elevated heart and respiratory rates dilated pupils, skeletal muscle activity and all reflexes present” most accurately represents which stage of anaesthesia?
A)Voluntary excitement
B)Involuntary excitement
C)Surgical anaesthesia
D)Overdose
A

A)Voluntary excitement

28
Q 
How many planes are there within stage 3 of anaesthesia?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
A

C)4

29
Q 
Which category of the ASA anaesthetic risk scoring system would a patient described as an “animal with moderate systemic disease or disturbances, mild clinical signs” come under?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
A

B)3

30
Q

During an equine hind limb lameness examination which forelimb should you lift off the floor to minimise patient movement during the administration of the local anaesthesia?
A)Ipsilateral
B)Contralateral

A

A)Ipsilateral

31
Q 
Which of the following would likely be the most ineffective method of reducing the movement of an equine patient during examination of treatment?
A)Ear twist
B)Skin (neck) twitch
C)Tail twitch
D)Nose twitch
A

C)Tail twitch

32
Q 
According to the American society of anaesthesiologist risk assessment what class would you identify a patient which has mild systemic disease?
A)class 1
B)class 2
C)class 3
D)class 4
A

B)Class 1

33
Q 
An example of an alpha 2 antagonist would be;
A)Atipam
B)Medtomidine
C)Ketamine
D)Cartrophen
A

A)Atipam

34
Q

Minute volume is;
A)Amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath
B)Amount of breaths in one minute
C)Amount of carbon dioxide released in one minute
D)Total amount of oxygen released on exhalation

A

A)Amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath

35
Q

Tidal volume describes;
A)The amount of air displaced between normal inspiration and expiration
B)The amount of air exhausted on expiration
C)The total amount of air the lung is able to inspire
D)The total amount of air from inspiration

A

A)The amount of air displaced between normal inspiration and expiration

36
Q

Describe the Hering-Breuer reflex

A

A reflex to prevent over inflation of the lung

37
Q

Physiological dead space is;
A)The area within the bronchi where oxygen cannot reach
B)The area within the alveoli where oxygen cannot reach
C)The area within the trachea where oxygen is unable to reach
D)When not all the air in each breath is able to be used for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

B)The area within the alveoli where oxygen cannot reach

38
Q 
Nitrous oxide is best used at the following ratio;
A)1:2 oxygen to nitrous oxide
B)2:1 oxygen to nitrous oxide
C)1:1 oxygen to nitrous oxide
D)1:1.5 oxygen to nitrous oxide
A

A)1:2 oxygen to nitrous oxide

39
Q

The term neuraxial means?
A)To provide anaesthesia to the neurons only
B)To provide anaesthesia to the spinal cord
C)To provide localised anaesthesia to the brain
D)None of the above

A

B)To provide anaesthesia to the spinal cord

40
Q 
During which plane of anaesthesia does involuntary excitement occur?
A)Stage 1
B)Stage 2
C)Stage 3
D)Stage 4
A

B)Stage 2

41
Q

What does the term co-axial mean?

A

A system for the delivery of gaseous anesthetic which has separate conduits for fresh gas and expired air and is essentially the same as the T-piece system except that one conduit is inside the other. An attractive system because the exhaust gases can be ducted to the exterior.

42
Q

What is the tidal volume for cats and small dogs?

A

15 ml/kg

43
Q

What is the tidal volume for dogs?

A

10 ml/kg

44
Q

What is Minute volume?

A

The amount of air passing in and out of the lungs in 1minute.
Tidal volume X Respiratory rate

45
Q

State the circuit factors for ayres t piece

A

2.5-3 X minute volume

46
Q

State the circuit factor for Bain

A

2.5-3 X minute volume

47
Q

State the circuit factor for Lack

A

1-1.5 X minute volume

48
Q

State the circuit factor for Magil

A

1-1.5 X minute volume

Supporting Anaesthesia 312 (5 decks)

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