Anaesthetic monitoring Flashcards

1
Q

What are the goals of anaesthetic monitoring?

A

Provide an appropriate depth of anaesthesia for the procedure required;

Whilst maintaining normal physiological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How often is anaesthetic monitoring carried out?

A

Patients monitored continuously, parameters recorded every 5 min

Allows for action

Chances of surviving slim if not checked at least every 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe monitoring charts

A

Must be completed for all cases.

Legal document

Don’t become so focused on completing this form that you are neglecting your monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should be monitored?

A
  1. Anaesthetic depth
  2. Circulation
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cranial nerve reflexes can be checked to aid in anaesthetic monitoring?

A

Palpebral Reflex

Corneal reflex

Pedal reflex

(Jaw tone)

Avoid doing too often or can become refractory (palpebral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe eye position and pupil diameter

A

Observe both eyes

Surgical plane of anaesthesia eye ventromedial position with some sclera visible

Depth increases
-the eye becomes central again

The use of ketamine will affect this pattern

As the depth of anaesthetic increases the pupil becomes more dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What might salivation indicate?

A

Excessive with an inadequate anaesthetic depth/pain

Note breed variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe indications from mucous membranes and capillary refill times

A

Mucous membrane colour should be pink

Capillary refill time (CRT) is measured by pressing on a non-pigmented area of gingiva. This will cause it to blanch

The time for the colour to return is the CRT

Should be ~2seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can the response to surgical stimulation aid in monitoring?

A

Lost during surgical planes

If present increase in heart rate, respiratory rate and muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the heart rate and pulse quality

A

Check every 5 minutes.

Rapid when
-the patient is light

Slows in surgical planes

Will slow further
-as anaesthetic depth increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the respiratory rate and pattern

A

Check every 5 minutes

Rapid and irregular
-patient is too lightly anaesthetised

Slower and regular at surgical planes

Shallower and slower when
-too deep until irregular jerky breathing movements are seen, eventual apnoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How might temperature aid in anaesthetic monitoring?

A

Hypothermia is common

Temperature should be monitored regularly
-Every 5-30mins

Frequency of measurement depends on the case details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of monitoring aids?

A

To provide additional information about the physiological status of the patient. They should never replace the basic hands on monitoring detailed previously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the advantages/disadvantages regarding mechanical aids

A

Allows a more precise picture of the patients health status

May detect early changes in patients’ health status allowing early intervention

Allow closer control over anaesthetised patients

Must be monitored to ensure information provided is correct

Should never take the place of routine, basic monitoring procedures i.e. observations, listening and touching the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the oesophageal stethoscope

A

Often overlooked

Simple and effective

Allows VN to hear heart beat reliably

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the pulse oximeter

A

Non-invasive method of measuring arterial oxygen saturation

Gives information about gas exchange and arterial oxygenation

Provision of an audible indicator of heart rate is reassuring

but the remaining information is limited- when breathing oxygen, the saturation will not fall unless your patient is in serious trouble

The oxygen saturation of a patient receiving 100% oxygen should always be above 95%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do pulse oximeters work?

A

Two sources of light originate from the probe at different wavelengths (red and infra-red)

Absorbed by the red blood cells differently depending on how well the RBCs are saturated with oxygen

The device recognises the pulsatile flow of the arteries and can display both the oxygen saturation and the pulse rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is the probe of the pulse oximeter usually placed?

A

Usually the probe is placed on the tongue

Can be placed on other non-pigmented areas of skin

  • Prepuce
  • Vulva
  • Between the toes
  • Ear pinna
  • Lip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When might a pulse oximeter fail?

A

f there is peripheral vasoconstriction, or low blood pressure

In smaller patients the heart rate may be too high for a standard machine to register

Diathermy and bright operating lights can both disrupt the signal

Can be misleading in the anaemic patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define systolic blood pressure

A

This is the peak pressure within the arteries that occurs towards the end of the cardiac cycle, when the ventricles are contracting. It is determined by a combination of peripheral vascular resistance, stoke volume and intravascular volume.

The normal range in dogs, cats and horse is 90-120mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define diastolic blood pressure

A

This is the minimum pressure within the arteries that occurs towards the beginning of the cardiac cycle. This is when the ventricles are filled with blood and is predominately determined by the peripheral vascular resistance.

The normal range for dogs, cats and horses is 55-90mmHg

22
Q

Define mean blood pressure

A

This is the average blood pressure during the cardiac cycle. It provides information about tissue perfusion. The normal range for dogs, cats and horses is 60-85mmHg.

It is important to maintain a mean blood pressure > 60 mmHg to ensure adequate organ perfusion

23
Q

Why would you use blood pressure monitoring?

A

Gives more direct information about the peripheral circulation than palpating a pulse

Useful measure of cardiovascular function specifically in patients with significant cardiovascular disease or those undergoing major surgery

It provides information of the heart’s ability to pump blood around the body and the fluid balance of the patient

Fluid therapy supports blood pressure, would be useful to know we are using an adequate flow rate

24
Q

What might high blood pressure indicate?

A

A low blood pressure may indicate that vital organs are not being sufficiently perfused and/or the patient is under deep anaesthesia

25
Q

What might low blood pressure indicate?

A

High blood pressure may indicate that an animal is only lightly anaesthetised or that there is sympathetic stimulation

26
Q

Describe doppler ultrasonography

A

This method provides intermittent readings of blood pressure.

A cuff tourniquet is applied proximal to the artery (cuff width = 40% circumference of the limb)

The area where the Doppler is to be applied; normally over the carpal pulse is clipped and contact gel applied

The Doppler is then used to detect the pulse

Once detected the cuff is inflated using the sphygmomanometer until the sound disappears, then slowly deflated until the first sound is heard

The pressure at which the flow recommences is taken as the systolic blood pressure.

27
Q

Describe oscillometric blood pressure

A

Measures the magnitude of arterial pulsations produced within an air filled cuff. It detects movement of the artery wall vibrating against the cuff

Inaccurate results can be given when there is patient movement (Shivering), dysrhythmia, hypotension and bradycardia

These monitors can be set up to take repeated measurements

Systolic, diastolic and mean blood pressure is recorded

28
Q

Describe a capnograph

A

Provides information of both respiratory and cardiovascular function

Measures adequacy of ventilation (hyper or hypoventilation)

Provides measurement of carbon dioxide in each breath of the respiratory cycle

29
Q

Describe capnography

A

Gas breathed out a mixture of anatomical dead space gas followed by increasing levels of CO2 rich gas

When the animal breathes in the level of CO2 will return to zero (if breathing system working correctly)

30
Q

What can affect capnography?

A

Problems with either the circulation or respiratory system will affect amount of CO2 breathed out

Skill needed to interpret the trace

31
Q

When will a capnography graph never return to the base line?

A

Rebreathing CO2

32
Q

When will the end tidal CO2 rise?

A

Breathing too shallow or slowly and CO2 building up in the lungs

33
Q

What can lead to a reduction in ETCO2?

A

Hyperventilation

34
Q

Why would you use an ECG?

A

Can provide useful information on -

Heart rate

Assessment of heart rhythm

Does not indicate the mechanical output of the heart – tracing can continue many minutes after the heart has ceased to be an effective pump

35
Q

What parameters would class as bradycardia in dogs and cats?

A

dogs < 60, cats <90

36
Q

What parameters would class as tachycardia in dogs and cats?

A

dogs >200, cats >250

37
Q

Describe an ECG

A

Electrical equipment can interfere with the signal, as can movement.

An audible beep is usually given

Rate displayed on the screen or on a paper output

Abnormal rhythms are easily visible (but could also be heard using a stethoscope)

38
Q

What do you check on an ecg to determine if it is normal?

A

HR

P for every QRS

QRS for every P

QRS and P’s all the same

Rhythm regular

39
Q

How may an ECG indicate an issue?

A

Abnormal complex shapes, or missing p waves can indicate impending problems before the abnormal pumping action actually occurs

If there is no audible heart beat the ECG will tell us whether fibrillation is present and allow more effective treatment

Unlikely to be used for every operation, but in high risk cases it can be a valuable aid

40
Q

Describe arterial blood gas

A

Only way of truly knowing how much O2 and CO2 are in the blood

Considered gold standard of monitoring

Blood sample taken from an artery and analysed

Not commonly used in small animal general practice

41
Q

What are the two methods of temperature support?

A

Passive

Active

42
Q

Name types of circulatory support

A

Intravenous fluid therapy

Blood pressure monitoring

Chest auscultation

43
Q

Name types of breathing support

A

IPPV

Manual

Mechanical

44
Q

What can effect the speed of recovery?

A

Breed

Existing illness- renal, hepatic, respiratory, cardiac

Temperature

Duration and type of anaesthesia

Route of drug administration

45
Q

In what cases should you extubate early?

A

Risks inhalation of FBs

Best for cats

Not for brachycephalic dogs

Allows pollution of atmosphere

46
Q

In what cases should you extubate late?

A

Airway protected until gag response returns

Best for potential airway obstruction

Risk of laryngeal spasm in cats

Less pollution of atmosphere

Prolonged O2 breathing

47
Q

What should you monitor during recovery?

A

Position of patient

Pulse

Respiratory rate and pattern

MM colour and CRT

What is indicated by

  • pale mms?
    - cyanosis?
    - red mms?

Temperature

Pain

Hydration

Wound management

Drug therapy

Nutrition

48
Q

How can supplemental oxygen be given?

A

Flow-past

Oxygen tent

Mask

Intranasal catheter

49
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a flow-past?

A

A- Easy to do

D- Inspired oxygen levels lower than with other methods

50
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of an oxygen tent?

A

A- Easy to do provided equipment is available

D- Only for small patients.

Requires high flow rates so is expensive

51
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a mask?

A

A- Can achieve good levels of O2 with low flow rates in ideal situation

D- Patient distress and interference

52
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of an intranasal catheter?

A

A- Good oxygen levels with low flow rates.

Well tolerated.

Can be used for a prolonged period

D- Not difficult to place, but maybe a bit scary if you haven’t done it before!

Placement takes time so unsuitable for short periods