Anaesthesia quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Which opioid can antagonise the effects of fentanyl?

A

Butorphanol.
Butorphanol is a kappa agonist and a mu antagonist and thus can interfere with activity of fentanyl and other mu receptor agonists. This effect can last much longer than the clinical sedative and analgesic effects of butorphanol

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2
Q

What opioid that should be avoided in dogs with oesophageal foreign body?

A

Morphine.
Morphine should be avoided due to the risk of vomiting which is detrimental in a patient with oesophageal foreign body as vomiting may lead to increased trauma if foreign body such as a bone is stuck in the oeophagous.

Vomiting is also contra-indicated if animals have GDV, intracranial disease and bleeding disorders.

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3
Q

What is the opioid agent that has been reported to cause the most hyperthermia in cats?

A

All opioids can alter thermoregulatory thresholds, however buprenorphine has the longest effect of all mentioned opioids and has been reported to cause severe hyperthermia in cats. It is not reported in dogs.

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4
Q

What are the most common adverse effect of systemic administration of opioids on the cardiovascular system

A

Bradycardia and hypotension.

Typically opioids increase parasympathetic activity and lead to decrease HR. If severe this will result in decreased BP. The exemption is pethidine which has anti-muscarinic effects and can increase HR and BP. Furthermore, if histamine release is stimulated by release of Morphine, this will decrease BP and may result in compensatory increase in heart rate.

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5
Q

What are two commonly used agents that are NMDA receptor antagonists?

A

Ketamine has NMDA antagonist effects at sub-anaesthetic doses. It is a useful agent for administration as a low dose infusion in animals with increased sensitivity to pain.

Methadone is a full mu agonist and NMDA antagonist. this makes it a useful opioid to use in patients with increased sensitivity to pain, tolerance to opioids and as a rescue analgesic agent when analgesia associated with other analgesics is inadequate.

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6
Q

Lignocaine administered as a intravenous infusion is a good analgesic agent during GIT surgery, why?

A

Lignocaine is a prokinetic

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7
Q

What is the recommended dosing regimen for perioperative use of carprofen in cats?

A

One dose only.

Carprofen is registered for a single dose only in cats due to risk of kidney injury associated with multiple dosing. In contrast Meloxicam is registered for once a day for three days at doses used for perioperative analgesia. Lower doses of meloxicam have been used chronically in cats with osteoarthritis without apparent increased risk of kidney damage

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8
Q

A dog requires anaesthesia for a lump removal. The dog has been receiving antidepressant to assist with chronic neuropathic pain. What agent that should be avoided due to the potential for drug interactions.

A

Tramadol is a serotonin uptake inhibitor that increases serotonin levels within CNS. If tramadol is used with other agents that increase serotonin levels serotonin toxicity can result. This results in hyperthermia and seizures and can be fatal.

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9
Q

What opioid that is considered to have the best transmucosal uptake in cats?

A

Buprenorphine is believed to be well absorbed across the oral mucous membranes. It does not need to be swallowed.

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10
Q

Epidural administration of bupivacaine is contraindicated under what 4 conditions?

A

Skin infection, sepsis, hypovolaemia, coagulopathy

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11
Q

Select the two mu receptor agonists that are associated with histamine release especially after IV administration

A

Pethidine + Morphine.
Pethidine commonly causes histamine release when administered IV, thus this route of administration is generally avoided for Pethidine

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12
Q

Select the opioid that is most commonly associated with panting in conscious animals

A

Methadone
Opioids mediate panting by altering the thermoregulatory threshold. As a result dogs will pant to cool themselves even when body temperature is normal. this is most commonly seen with methadone and fentanyl.

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13
Q

Metabolism of opioids is decreased in animals with reduced liver function. Select TWO changes in administration required to prevent accumulation of repeated doses of opioids.

A

Use of lower doses, especially when using IV infusions of drugs like fentanyl, will also help reduce accumulation of opioids when their metabolism is reduced. Furthermore, if liver disease has resulted in reduced serum albumen, lower doses are required if using an opioid that has a high level of protein binding e.g. fentanyl

Use metabolism is decreased in animals with reduced live function the duration of effect is longer and thus increased interval between doses is required.

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14
Q

Select two opioids which can not be reversed with nalaxone

A

Butorphanol is a mu receptor antagonist and kappa receptor agonist and thus can not be reversed using naloxone which is a mu receptor antagonist only. However, adverse effects associated with drug administration have a ceiling effect, severe decreases in HR and ventilation are less likely

Buprenorphine is a partial mu antagonist that binds very tightly to the mu receptor, as a result it is very difficult to reverse. However, adverse effects associated with drug administration have a ceiling effect, severe decreases in HR and ventilation are less likely

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15
Q

When using a circle breathing system (=rebreathing system) a higher oxygen flow rate is used initially. Why?

A

To prevent excessive dilution of inspired anaesthetic gases (gases in the circle) by expired gases

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16
Q

A co-axial bain is selected for use in an 8 kg pug. What is the minimum oxygen flow rate that should be used in this dog.

A

2.4L/min

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17
Q

A paediatric circle system can be used in animals < 10 kg. Select the reason/s why this is possible

A

The Y piece has a smaller dead space which minimises rebreathing.
The new concentration of inhalation agent is reached quicker after changing the vaporizer setting due to the smaller volume of the breathing system. There is still some dilution within the space of the sodalime canister; however the volume is reduced by using narrower tubes and small rebreathing bag

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18
Q

Duration of action of which induction agents are significantly reduced in animals receiving phenobarbitone or corticosteroids increasing risk of sudden wakening

A

Propofol + Alfaxalone

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19
Q

Select the one most commonly associated with increased HR and blood pressure in normal animals

Buprenorphine
Ketamine
Medetomidine
ACP

A

In animals with a normal sympathetic nervous system, ketamine stimulates release of catecholamines that lead to increased HR and BP. Please note that in animals with depleted or immature sympathetic nervous systems, the direct depressant effects of ketamine will predominate leading to decreased BP.

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20
Q

Alfaxalone is the only agent that has not been reported to cause arrhythmias - True or False?

A

true

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21
Q

Of commonly used induction agents, duration of clinical effect of which drug, is not altered in animals with reduced hepatic function

A

propofol

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22
Q

Ketamine should be used carefully in animals with kidney disease especially cats. Why?

A

In cats, 50 % of ketamine is excreted unchanged by kidneys

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23
Q

Select the induction agent most commonly associated with hypotension directly after induction

A

Thiopentone

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24
Q

Select the induction agent that increases intracranial cerebral metabolism and thus can increase intracranial pressure

A

Ketamine increases metabolism of the brain which leads to increased cerebral blood flow, and this increase in blood volume causes increased ICP

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25
Q

Select the induction agent that is most commonly associated with agitated recoveries in lightly sedated healthy dogs

A

Alfaxalone

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26
Q

Select the agent/s that are most commonly associated with post-induction apnoea if administered too quickly

A

Propofol + Thiopentone

27
Q

Which of the agent/s could be an appropriate co-induction agent that can be used to reduce the dose of administered alfaxalone or propofol in animals with cardiovascular disease.

A

Midazolam.
Benzodiazepines have no depressant effects on the heart and thus are useful agents to help reduce dose of induction and maintenance agents and associated decreases in cardiovascular function.

Fentanyl.

28
Q

Select the agent used in anaesthesia that reduces the seizure threshold and thus increases risk of seizures in animals with intracranial disease

A

Acepromazine

29
Q

Total plasma protein concentrations can be decreased in animals with reduced liver function. Select two induction agents that are highly protein bound and thus will require dose reduction in animals with reduced protein

A

Propofol and thiopentone

30
Q

Select TWO induction agents that are typically associated with a decrease in PCV

A

Thiopentone, propofol

This drug causes splenic relaxation and sequestration of red cell in the spleen. This also increases size of the spleen.

31
Q

Select the volatile agent that is most suitable for mask induction of cats.

A

Sevoflurane is rapid in onset and is not pungent or irritant to airways, this has best characteristics for mask induction

32
Q

Of the inhaled anaesthetic agents listed below (4) , select the one that causes the greatest myocardial depression

A

halothane

- decreases in BP associated with relative greater depression of myocardium

33
Q

Of the inhalation agents listed below, select the agents that causes the least increase in intracranial pressure

A

If administered at 1 MAC, no increase in ICP is observed with sevoflurane

34
Q

Of the agents listed below, select the agent with the quickest onset

A

Desflurane

35
Q

Of the agents listed below, select the agent that has the greatest risk of causing arrhythmias

A

Halothane

36
Q

Select the volatile agent that has the highest % of liver metabolism.

A

Halothane

Isoflurane has minimal hepatic metabolism.

37
Q

Give two factors decrease the MAC of volatile agents

A

pregnancy + hypothermia

38
Q

Which of the volatile anaesthetics is the most potent

A

Halothane

39
Q

Dopamine is a common agent used to improve blood pressure in anaesthetised dog and cats. Of the mechanism of actions listed below, select those that are more likely to be observed at medium doses (3-5 mcg/kg/min)

A

Dopamine receptors agonism and beta 1 receptor agonist

40
Q

Glycopyrrolate is preferred over atropine for treatment in which of the following scenarios.

A

Intracranial disease due to absence of pupil dilation, not quick change in blood pressure.
+ Heart disease

41
Q

Acepromazine can cause cardiovascular collapse in boxers. What drug is the most appropriate treatment of this collapse

A

atropine

42
Q

Describe the change in cardiovascular function typically observed following administration of an alpha 2 agonist

A

Increased blood pressure followed by decreased blood pressure accompanied by decreased heart rate

43
Q

What premedicant that should not be given to a cat requiring dermal allergy testing

A

acepromazine

44
Q

Which tranquiliser is associated with the most pronounced decrease in PCV

A

acepromazine

45
Q

The stimulatory effects of ketamine on the cardiovascular system (increased HR, increased BP) requires normal sympathetic nervous system activity. True or False.

A

True

46
Q

Propofol causes more post-induction hypotension following rapid administration than alfaxalone. True or False.

A

False

47
Q

Acepromazine can decrease afterload and improve cardiac output in dogs with valvular heart disease

True or False?

A

True

48
Q

Midazolam is a good tranquiliser that can be used for premedication in healthy dogs

True or False?

A

False.
Midazolam and diazepam can cause disinhibition and paradoxical excitement in healthy dogs and is not recommended as a premedicant in healthy dogs. However they are extremely effective tranquilisers in neonates as sole agent and can also be useful in geriatrics in combination with opioid

49
Q

Compare the metabolism of ketamine in cats and dogs.

A

Ketamine in dogs is metabolised by the liver, however in cats, the DOA depends on the renal excretion of ketamine.
If renal excretion is altered by disease, then the DOA of ketamine may be prolonged in cats.

50
Q

What percentage of CO do the kidney’s receive?

A

25

51
Q

List 5 functions of the kidneys.

A

(Filtration, reabsorption, secretion)

  • Participates in RBC production (erythropoetin)
  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Endocrine functions: hormones - EPO, renin, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
  • Maintenance of acid/base balance
  • Rentention of substances vital to the body such as protein + glucose
52
Q

What is the normal urine output of dogs/cats?

A

1-1.5ml/kg/hr

53
Q

What is the difference between uraemia and azotaemia?

A

Azotaemia is defined as elevations in urea and creatinine but no obvious CS of illness.
Uraemia is defined as elevations in urea and creatinine w/ CS of systemic ill-health.

54
Q

List 7 changes that can be seen in patients w/ renal failure:

A
  1. Changes in the blood-brain barrier dt azotaemia leading to inc. drug penetration into the CNS.
  2. Uraemia can interfere w/ platelet function.
  3. Animals may be acidotic which will inc. the fraction of unbound barbiturates and other injectables into the plasma.
  4. Animals may have a protein-losing nephropathy which can lead to hypercoagulability (loss of antithrombin III) + hypoalbuminaemia (–> Dec. drug binding and possible oedema formation)
  5. Animals may have electrolyte irregularities. If potassium is markedly elevated, then the patient may have assoc. ECG abnormalities.
  6. Possible nausea and V+
  7. Inc. protein catabolism which can lead to weight loss (skinny renal cats)
55
Q

What MAP is required to maintain renal auto-regulation to ensure a constant blood supply.

A

50-150mmHg.

56
Q

List 4 pre-anaesthetic considerations for a patient with renal disease.

A
  1. Note possible changes protein/nausea/acidotic
  2. Aim to maintain renal autoregulation
  3. Aim to reduce vasoconstrction of afferent arteriole dt sympathetic tone - stress, pain, surgical stim, drugs (vasoconstrictors)
  4. Check lytes, PCV/TS prior to anaesthesia to get an idea of water and lyte balance.
57
Q

What opioid relies on renal excretion?

A

Morphine - thus any damage to renal system will correlate to an extended DOA.

58
Q

What drug combo is a good for premeds of patients with renal disease?

A

Benzos + opioids

59
Q

Can thiobarbiturates be used for animals in renal disease for induction? Why/not?

A

Yes - as it doesn’t appear to cause marked changes in renal blood flow or GFR. However, dt delayed excretion that can occur w/ renal Dz, recovery may be prolonged.

60
Q

What CRI of dopamine is used to target dopamine receptors and what is the effect?

A

1-3ug/kg/min

Supposed to cause renal vasodilation of the arteries leading to inc. renal blood flow. Not all studies support this*

61
Q

What are potentially beneficial effects of mannitol in renal patients?

A

Renal arteriole dilation and scavenges oxygen free radicals.

62
Q

What four factors regulate BV through effects on vascular tone?

A
  1. Autoregulation - myogenic response to changes in BP eg. inc. BP causes vasodilation to maintain constant blood flow
  2. Chemical response to changes in (dec) O2 and (inc) CO2 stimulate vasodilation
  3. Flow-metabolism coupling - inc. metabolism inc. blood flow and thus BV
  4. Viscosity - inc. viscosity stim. vasodilation.
63
Q

What MAP do you aim for to maintain perfusion in presence of inc. ICP?

A

70-80mmHg.