Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Anaesthesia Question Bank > Flashcards

Anaesthesia Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Monitoring of general anaesthesia should include all of the following EXCEPT:-

a) Monitoring the surgical procedure
b) Monitoring the anaesthetic machine and breathing system
c) Monitoring the rate of intravenous fluid administration
d) Monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

A

D)monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Monitoring of the anaesthetised patient ends:-

a) When the volatile agent is switched off
b) At extubation
c) When the patient is able to lift its head and maintain sternal recumbency
d) When the patient is discharged from the practice

A

D)when the patient is discharged from the practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pulse oximetry is:-

a) An invasive method of blood pressure monitoring
b) A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
c) Ineffective without the simultaneous use of ECG measurement
d) An invasive method of assessing pulse rate and quality

A

D)an invasive method of assessing pulse rate quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An example of invasive cardiovascular monitoring of the anaesthetised patient is:-

a) Palpation of peripheral blood vessels
b) Ultrasonic Doppler
c) Pulse oximetry
d) Arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

A

D)arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With regards to depth of anaesthesia, ‘eyes down’ means the eyeballs are positioned:-

a) Dorsoventrally
b) Ventrolaterally
c) Ventromedially
d) Craniocaudally

A

C)ventromedially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Signs of inadequate neuromuscular blockade and relaxation include:-

a) Return to consciousness
b) Cessation of ventilation
c) Twitching
d) Eyes in central position

A

c)twitching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient has stopped breathing during a surgical procedure. After informing the veterinary surgeon you switch off the volatile agent, then you should:-

a) Start external cardiac massage
b) Wait to see if the patient starts to breathe on its own
c) Check for a heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV
d) Disconnect the breathing system, remove the endotracheal tube and give 100% oxygen by mask

A

C)check for a heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient stops breathing and appears cyanosed after induction with propofol. Your reaction is to:-

a) Inform the veterinary surgeon and give oxygen by mask
b) Inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation
c) Commence external cardiac compressions while informing the veterinary surgeon
d) Inform the veterinary surgeon whilst drawing up a dose of atipamezole

A

B)inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Doppler blood pressure measurement records:-

a) Diastolic pressure only
b) Systolic pressure only
c) Mean arterial pressure only
d) Systolic and diastolic arterial pressures

A

B)systolic pressure only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An anaesthetised dog that has a persistent end-tidal carbon dioxide reading of 70 mmHg is likely to be suffering from:-

a) Hypercapnia
b) Hypoxaemia
c) Hypotension
d) Hypothermia

A

A)hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A prolonged recovery from anaesthesia may be due to:-

a) Decreased heart rate and transport of anaesthetic drugs and metabolites for excretion
b) Increased respiratory rate and elimination of inhalation anaesthetic agents
c) The use of a rebreathing system
d) The use of a local heat source in the recovery kennels

A

A)decreased heart rate and transport of anaesthetic drugs and metabolites for excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The anaesthetised patient you are monitoring appears to be getting “light” during surgery despite having had the vaporiser turned up. The problem may be due to:-

a) The induction agent used
b) The high flow rate used
c) Disconnection of the breathing system from the patient or machine
d) Hypothermia

A

C)disconnection of the breathing system from the patient or machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

End-tidal carbon dioxide is measured using a:-

a) Capnometer
b) oximeter
c) Doppler monitor
d) Thermistor

A

A)capnometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Urine output in a healthy dog is approximately:-

a) 1-2 ml/kg/hr
b) 0.5-0.75 ml/kg/hr
c) 1-2 ml/kg/min
d) 10-20 ml/kg/day

A

A)1-2ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Electrocardiography monitors:-

a) The electrical activity of the heart
b) Closure of heart valves
c) Cardiac stroke volume
d) The intensity of myocardial muscle contraction

A

A)the electrical activity of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The situation that would cause an increase in end-tidal carbon dioxide tension measured on a capnograph is:-

a) Hypoventilation
b) Oesophageal intubation
c) Cardiac arrest
d) Ventilator discon

A

A)hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The colour of mucous membranes of a dog with septic shock are likely to be:-

a) Brick red
b) Blue
c) Grey
d) White

A

A)brick red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

After euthanasia under anaesthesia, the monitoring parameter that may appear normal for several minutes after death is the:-

a) ECG
b) Capnograph
c) Pulse oximeter
d) Doppler blood pressure

A

A)ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The classical triad of anaesthesia consists of:-

a) Amnesia, narcosis and muscle relaxation
b) Dissociation, muscle relaxation and analgesia
c) Analgesia, dissociation and amnesia
d) Narcosis, analgesia and muscle relaxation

A

D)narcosis, analgesia and muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gaseous exchange takes place in the:-

a) Mainstem bronchus
b) Trachea
c) Alveoli
d) Bronchioles

A

C)alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The most suitable stage of anaesthesia for an elective bitch spay is stage:-

a) IV
b) I
c) III
d) II

A

C)III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One of the functions of oxygen within the anaesthetic breathing system is as a:-

a) Second gas
b) Carrier gas
c) Volatile agent
d) Gas sparing agent

A

B)carrier gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The tidal volume of a 20 kg dog is approximately:-

a) 250 ml
b) 300 ml
c) 100 ml
d) 200 ml

A

D)200ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tidal volume is the volume of air:-

a) Left in the lungs after normal expiration
b) Breathed in and out in one minute
c) Left in the lungs after a forceful expiration
d) Breathed in and out in one breath

A

D)breathed in and out in one breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The MAC of an inhalant agent refers to its:-

a) Solubility in the brain
b) Potency
c) Solubility in blood
d) Volatility

A

B)potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An indication of a very light plane of anaesthesia is:-

a) Strong jaw tone
b) Ventral eye position
c) Dry corneas
d) No anal reflex

A

A)strong jaw tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The air that moves in and out of the patient’s airways unchanged is known as the:-

a) Equipment dead space
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Physiological dead space
d) Expiratory reserve volume

A

C)physiological dead space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The minute volume of a 30 kg dog with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is:-

a) 3600 litres
b) 3600 ml
c) 5400 litres
d) 5400 ml

A

A)3600 litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The analgesic drug that prevents prostaglandin formation is:-

a) Carprofen
b) Fentanyl
c) Butorphanol
d) Morphine

A

A)carprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The minimum alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide determines that it will be ineffective at:-

a) Providing analgesia
b) Acting as a carrier gas
c) Inducing narcosis
d) Producing a second gas effect

A

C)inducing narcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The drug that is a depolarising neuromuscular blocking agent is:-

a) Atracurium
b) Pancuronium
c) Suxamethonium
d) Vecuronium

A

C)suxamethonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acepromazine:-

a) Has antihistamine properties
b) Causes narcosis
c) Provides analgesia
d) Is a dissociative agent

A

A)has antihistamine properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The anaesthetic drug that has cumulative effects in cats is:-

a) Ketamine
b) Butorphanol
c) Propofol
d) Alfaxalone

A

C)propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The part of the pain pathway where the sensation passes from the spinal cord up towards the brain is known as:-

a) Perception
b) Transmission
c) Modulation
d) Transduction

A

C)modulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gold standard endotracheal intubation involves the patient’s recumbency to be:-

a) Left lateral
b) Sternal
c) Dorsal
d) Right lateral

A

B)sternal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Morphine and fentanyl are examples of:-

a) Pure mu opioids
b) Alpha-2 agonists
c) Alpha-2 antagonists
d) Partial mu opioids

A

A)pure mu opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The blood/gas solubility of a volatile agent will affect the:-

a) Minute volume of the patient
b) Speed of anaesthetic induction
c) Percentage of volatile agent metabolised by the liver
d) Percentage concentration required to maintain anaesthesia

A

B)speed of anaesthetic induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atipamezole is an antagonist agent for:-

a) Methadone
b) Midazolam
c) Acepromazine
d) Medetomidine

A

D)medetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Electrocardiography indicates:-

a) Stroke volume
b) The electrical activity of the heart
c) The intensity of myocardial contraction
d) Closure of the heart valves

A

B)the electrical activity of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The breathing system that is most appropriate for performing IPPV on a 25 kg dog is the:-

a) Mini Lack
b) Parallel Lack
c) Circle
d) Magill

A

C)circle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The pin index system is found on the:-

a) Common gas outlet
b) Vaporiser back bar
c) Cylinder yoke
d) Pipeline connection

A

C)cylinder yoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The minimal occlusive volume technique is used for:-

a) Attaching the vaporiser to the back bar
b) Pressure checking the anaesthetic machine
c) Attaching the pipeline gas supply to the socket
d) Inflating the cuff of an endotracheal tube

A

D)inflating the cuff of an endotracheal tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Soda lime mainly consists of:-

a) Sodium carbonate
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Sodium hydroxide
d) Calcium hydroxide

A

D)calcium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

An ideal mean arterial blood pressure measurement (MAP) in an anaesthetised dog is:-

a) 55 mmHg
b) 45 mmHg
c) 70 mmHg
d) 130 mmHg

A

C)70 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The European standard colour coding for an oxygen cylinder is:-

a) Black with grey shoulders
b) White with black shoulders
c) Blue
d) White

A

D)white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

During anaesthesia, the monitor that would give the earliest and most reliable indication of circulatory or respiratory failure would be:-

a) Capnography
b) Pulse oximetry
c) Doppler blood pressure
d) ECG

A

A)capnography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Automatic controlled ventilation of the patient is essential when:-

a) Using a circle system
b) Neuromuscular blockade has been performed
c) Using a Humphrey ADE with the lever in the up position
d) Hypocapnia is noted

A

B)neuromuscular blockade has been performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Activated charcoal adsorbers do NOT adsorb:-

a) Desflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane

A

B)nitrous oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The size of intravenous catheter that is coloured green is:-

a) 20G
b) 18G
c) 24G
d) 22G

A

B)18G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The species that requires food should be withheld for 2-4 hours before anaesthesia is the:-

a) Rat
b) Hamster
c) Ferret
d) Rabbit

A

C)ferret

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A patient who is not expected to survive 24 hours, with or without anaesthesia, should be assigned an ASA risk category of:-

a) I
b) II
c) V
d) IV

A

C)V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The most appropriate size of intravenous catheter to use in a 25 kg dog with a GDV is:-

a) 24G
b) 18G
c) 22G
d) 20G

A

B)18G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When anaesthetising a patient to repair a ruptured diaphragm, it is recommended that IPPV or mechanical ventilation is started:-

a) When the abdominal cavity has been open for several minutes
b) Immediately after induction
c) Immediately before induction
d) When the rupture in the diaphragm has been repaired

A

B)immediately after induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The minimum time to wait after desensitising the larynx of a cat prior to intubation, before attempting the procedure, is:-

a) 15 seconds
b) 10 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 5 seconds

A

C)30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Inflammation around an intravenous catheter site is known as:-

a) Embolus
b) Phlebitis
c) Thrombus
d) Extravasation

A

B)phlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When anaesthetising a bitch for a caesarean section, it is important to remember that there is an increase in:-

a) Venous return
b) Heart rate and stroke volume
c) MAC of inhalant agent
d) Systemic vascular resistance

A

B)heart rate and stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

One factor that makes anaesthesia of a neonatal patient different to that of an adult is that a neonate has a:-

a) Lower proportion of body water
b) Smaller surface area to volume ratio
c) Greater ability to concentrate urine
d) Higher metabolic oxygen consumption

A

D)higher metabolic oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A standard fluid giving set is calibrated to deliver:-

a) 20 drops per 1 ml fluid
b) 10 drops per 1 ml fluid
c) 60 drops per 1 ml fluid
d) 15 drops per 1 ml fluid

A

A)20 drops per 1ml fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Capnography measures:-

a) Central venous pressure
b) Oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
c) End-tidal carbon dioxide levels
d) Arterial blood pressure

A

C)end tidal carbon dioxide levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The Doppler technique is an anaesthetic monitoring modality for:-

a) Direct blood pressure
b) Arterial blood gas analysis
c) Central venous pressure
d) Indirect blood pressure

A

D)indirect blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Extubation in the cat should take place:-

a) When laryngeal and pharyngeal reflexes are brisk
b) After the swallowing reflex has returned
c) When the cat starts chewing the tube
d) After the ear twitch reflex has returned

A

D)after the ear twitch reflex has returned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The reflex that becomes non-responsive if over-stimulated is the:-

a) Anal reflex
b) Pedal reflex
c) Corneal reflex
d) Palpebral reflex

A

D)palpebral reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The normal ETCO2 range in a healthy anaesthetised dog is:-

a) 35-45 mmHg
b) 120/80 mmHg
c) 0-10 cmH2O
d) 95-100%

A

A)35-45mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When performing IPPV during CPR in a dog or cat, the number of breaths per minute is:-

a) 20
b) 5
c) 30
d) 10

A

D)10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When performing CPR in a dog or cat, the number of chest compressions is:-

a) 80-100
b) 130-150
c) 100-120
d) 60-80

A

C)100-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Hypercapnia may result from:-

a) Disconnection of the patient from the breathing system
b) Tachypnoea
c) Exhausted soda lime
d) Oesophageal intubation

A

C)exhausted soda lime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Cyanosis of the mucous membranes is:-

a) Consistent with an SpO2 of 95%
b) A normal finding after administration of opioid drugs
c) An early indication of hypoxaemia
d) A late sign of hypoxaemia

A

D)a late sign of hypoxaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In an anaesthetic emergency, the first action should be to:-

a) Increase rate of fluid infusion
b) Activate the emergency oxygen flush valve
c) Begin manual ventilation
d) Start chest compressions

A

D)start chest compressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The drug that is an anticholinergic agent is:-

a) Glycopyrrolate
b) Diazepam
c) Pethidine
d) Carprofen

A

A)glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The majority of general anaesthetic agents will:-

a) Cause malignant hyperthermia
b) Increase the efficiency of gas exchange in the alveoli
c) Be analeptic in action
d) Depress cardiovascular function

A

D)depress cardiovascular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Analgesia following thoracotomy helps to:-

a) Decrease patient movement
b) Increase ventilation
c) Reduce hydrostatic congestion
d) Abolish the need for a chest tube

A

B)increase ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Minute volume is described as the:-

a) Number of breaths per minute
b) Volume of air breathed per minute
c) Volume of air inhaled in each breath
d) Volume of carbon dioxide produced per minute

A

B)volume of air breathed per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

An agent with antisialogogue properties is:

a) Acepromazine
b) Diazepam
c) Carprofen
d) Atropine

A

D)atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cardiac output is the product of:-

a) Stroke volume x heart rate
b) Stroke volume x respiratory rate
c) Stroke volume x body weight
d) Stroke volume x systolic blood pressure

A

A)stroke volume x heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

You are in the process of admitting a Labrador for anaesthesia when the owner informs you that the dog has recently been fed a large meal. Besides increasing the risk of vomiting, this presents a problem because a full stomach may:-

a) Give an inaccurate body weight for dose calculation
b) Give inaccurate haematology results
c) Obscure the surgical area during an abdominal procedure
d) Put pressure on the diaphragm, therefore reducing lung volume

A

D)put pressure on the diaphragm, therefore reducing lung volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In times of need the body is able to maintain blood pressure by:-

a) Increasing systemic vascular resistance
b) Decreasing systemic vascular resistance
c) Peripheral vasodilation
d) Increasing respiratory rate

A

A)increasing systemic vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Anaesthetic gases travel across the alveolar membrane into the blood stream via:-

a) Osmosis
b) Hydrolysis
c) Volumetric pressure
d) Diffusion

A

D)diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The supply of blood through the capillary beds allowing normal cellular respiration is called:

a) Stroke volume
b) Perfusion
c) Tidal volume
d) Vascular resistance

A

B)perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A 4 kg cat requires an injection of acepromazine 2 mg/ml at a dose rate of 0.01 mg/kg. The correct volume for this cat is:-

a) 0.02 ml
b) 0.04 ml
c) 0.2 ml
d) 0.1 ml

A

A)0.02ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Prior to anaesthesia, guinea pigs should have:-

a) Food and water withheld for 12 hours
b) Food and water withheld for 8 hours
c) Access to water only
d) Access to food and water as normal

A

D)access to food and water as normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Apnoea means:

a) Inadequate ventilation
b) Increased production of carbon dioxide
c) A drug-induced sleep
d) Cessation of breathing

A

D)cessation of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Diazepam belongs to the group of drugs known as the:-

a) Phenothiazines
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Barbiturates
d) Opioids

A

B)benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by a:-

a) Build up of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream due to decreased ventilation
b) Build up of carbon dioxide due to poor circulation
c) Build up of carbon dioxide due to an increased metabolic rate
d) Reduction in carbon dioxide due to IPPV

A

A)build up of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream due to decreased ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cuffed endotracheal tubes should NOT be used if:-

a) The internal diameter is larger than 3 cm
b) The cuff does not remain inflated
c) The patient is likely to vomit post-operatively
d) The patient will be having a thoracotomy

A

B)the cuff does not remain inflated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Following premedication, patients should be:-

a) Encouraged to exercise
b) Observed and monitored
c) Given water
d) Housed in an area with loud background noise

A

B)observed and monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The best way to evaluate the patient’s metabolic function prior to surgery is to:

a) Take a medical history from the owner
b) X-ray the chest and abdomen
c) Take temperature, pulse and respiration rates on admission
d) Run haematological and biochemical blood tests

A

D)run haematological and biochemical blood tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

On the day of admission for anaesthesia, prior to premedication, all patients should be:

a) Fasted
b) Exercised
c) Weighed
d) Fed wet food

A

C)weighed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Intravenous fluid therapy is indicated prior to premedication and general anaesthesia in patients who:-

a) Are young and healthy
b) Are anaemic
c) Are vomiting
d) Have heart disease

A

C)are vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Acepromazine is an example of a group of premedicants known as the:-

a) Butyrophenones
b) Cyclohexanones
c) Phenothiazines
d) Benzodiazepines

A

C)phenothiazines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Patients with diabetes mellitus should:-

a) Never be anaesthetised
b) Have glucose levels stabilised pre-operatively
c) Be fed 2 hours prior to anaesthesia
d) Be induced and maintained with inhalation agents only

A

B)have glucose levels stabilised pre operatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Acepromazine should be used with care in:-

a) Poodles
b) Dobermans
c) Spaniels
d) Boxers

A

D)boxers

92
Q

Hypoventilation is due to:-

a) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood stream
b) Inadequate volume and rate of respiration
c) High body temperature
d) Abnormally low oxygen content of blood

A

B)inadequate volume and rate of respiration

93
Q

Tidal volume is described as the:-

a) Volume of air breathed in and out during quiet respiration
b) Volume of air left in the lungs after forced, prolonged exhalation
c) Total lung capacity
d) Volume of air within the respiratory tract which does not reach the alveoli

A

A)volume of air breathed in and out during quiet respiration

94
Q

After premedication with acepromazine, a patient may exhibit signs of:-

a) Tachycardia
b) Bradycardia
c) Hyperventilation
d) Salivation

A

B)bradycardia

95
Q

Anaesthetic vaporisers should be in the locked position on the back bar of the anaesthetic machine:-

a) Only when in use
b) Only when not in use
c) Never
d) Always

A

D)always

96
Q

Anaesthetic consent forms should be signed:-

a) By the person bringing the animal to the practice
b) By the owner or owner’s representative
c) After premedication has been administered
d) After blood samples have been taken

A

B)by the owner or owner’s representative

97
Q

A patient weighing 10 kg is to have an injection of bupivacaine 0.5% at a dose rate of 2 mg/kg. The correct volume for this patient is:-

a) 2 ml
b) 4 ml
c) 0.2 ml
d) 0.4 ml

A

B)4ml

98
Q

A side effect of atropine sulphate is that it causes:-

a) Vasodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Respiratory depression
d) Bradycardia

A

B)mydriasis

99
Q

The anaesthetic breathing system that is a hybrid system is the:-

a. Jackson-Rees modified Ayre’s T-piece
b. Humphrey ADE
c. Mini Lack
d. Coaxial Bain

A

B)humphrey ADE

100
Q

Medetomidine and dexmedetomidine are both examples of:-

a. Phenothiazines
b. Barbiturates
c. Butyrophenones
d. Alpha 2 agonists

A

D)alpha 2 agonists

101
Q

NSAIDs are contraindicated:-

a. Prior to anaesthesia
b. Within 12 hours of opioid administration
c. If gastric bleeding occurs
d. In cats

A

C)if gastric bleeding occurs

102
Q

The use of analgesic agents pre-operatively:-

a. Promotes smooth, less painful recoveries
b. Is contraindicated in the smaller animals such as rabbits and hamsters
c. Is only effective if given intravenously
d. Ensures post-operative analgesia will never be required

A

A)promotes smooth, less painful recoveries

103
Q

When the lever of the Humphrey ADE breathing system is in the down position:-

a. The patient is breathing spontaneously
b. A ventilator must be attached
c. The bag is in the system
d. A 2 litre or larger bag must be used

A

B)a ventilator must be attached

104
Q

A disadvantage of non-rebreathing systems is:-

a. Anaesthetic depth may be quickly changed
b. The presence of unidirectional valves
c. Cold, dry gases are delivered to the patient
d. They are economical to use

A

C)cold, dry gases are delivered to the patient

105
Q

An Ayre’s T-piece anaesthetic system carries a circuit factor of:-

a. 1-1.5 x respiratory rate
b. 1-1.5 x minute volume
c. 2.5-3 x respiratory rate
d. 2.5-3 x minute volume

A

D)2.5-3x minute volume

106
Q

A suitable anaesthetic breathing system for a 5 kg puppy is:-

a. Universal-F
b. Parallel Lack
c. Bain
d. Ayre’s T-piece

A

D)ayre’s t-piece

107
Q

Activated charcoal in passive scavenging systems does not absorb:-

a. Sevoflurane
b. Isoflurane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Desflurane

A

C)nitrous oxide

108
Q

An anaesthetic breathing system that delivers fresh gas to the patient via a small bore tube, which is inside a larger bore tube that carries waste gases away from the patient, is a:-

a. Bain
b. Lack
c. Humphrey ADE
d. Ayre’s T-piece

A

A)bain

109
Q

Anaesthetic overdose is characterised by:-

a. Central eye position and maximum pupil dilation
b. Capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds
c. Sluggish palpebral reflex
d. Lateral nystagmus

A

A)central eye position and maximum pupil dilation

110
Q

During use of the circle circuit:-

a. Cold, dry gases are inhaled by the patient
b. Emergency IPPV cannot be performed
c. Mechanical dead space increases as the soda lime becomes exhausted
d. A circuit factor of 2.5 - 3 x minute volume should be used

A

C)mechanical dead space increases as the soda lime becomes exhausted

111
Q

If the float in a flowmeter on an anaesthetic machine is a bobbin, the gas is read from the:-

a. Bottom of the bobbin
b. Middle of the bobbin
c. Top of the bobbin
d. Dot on the bobbin

A

C)top of the bobbin

112
Q

If the float in a flowmeter on an anaesthetic machine is a ball, the gas is read from the:-

a. Bottom of the ball
b. Middle of the ball
c. Top of the ball
d. Dot on the ball

A

B)middle of the ball

113
Q

When the lever of the Humphrey ADE breathing system is in the up position:-

a. A ventilator must be attached
b. The bag is out of the system
c. A 1 litre or smaller bag must be used
d. The patient is breathing spontaneously

A

D)the patient is breathing spontaneously

114
Q

If the vaporiser is set at 1% and the oxygen is flowing at 3 litres per minute, the volume of oxygen passing through the vaporiser is:-

a. 3 ml per minute
b. 30 ml per minute
c. 300 ml per minute
d. 3000 ml per minute

A

B)30ml per minute

115
Q

In an active scavenge system, gases leave the anaesthetic breathing system and go to:-

a. An open window or door
b. A container of activated charcoal
c. An extractor fan
d. An airbrake receiver attached to a negative pressure system

A

D)an airbrake receiver attached to a negative pressure system

116
Q

Monitoring of general anaesthesia should include all of the following EXCEPT:-

a. Monitoring the surgical procedure
b. Monitoring the anaesthetic machine and breathing system
c. Monitoring the rate of intravenous fluid administration
d. Monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

A

D)monitoring the nurse opening packs of swabs and instruments

117
Q

Monitoring of the anaesthetised patient ends:-

a. When the volatile agent is switched off
b. At extubation
c. When the patient is able to lift its head and maintain sternal recumbency
d. When the patient is discharged from the practice

A

D)when the patient is discharged from the practice

118
Q

Nitrous oxide should be used with care in rebreathing systems because:-

a. It reacts with soda lime
b. It reacts with isoflurane
c. The ratio of nitrous oxide to oxygen in the reservoir bag is unknown
d. It produces ‘swings’ in anaesthetic depth

A

C)the ratio of nitrous oxide to oxygen in the reservoir bag is unknown

119
Q

Non-rebreathing anaesthetic systems:-

a. Rely on the removal of carbon dioxide by soda lime
b. Rely on the removal of carbon dioxide by high gas flow rates
c. Do not have valves
d. Do not require the use of scavenge systems

A

B)rely on the removal or carbon dioxide by high gas flow rates

120
Q

Pulse oximetry is:-

a. An invasive method of blood pressure monitoring
b. A non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
c. Ineffective without the simultaneous use of ECG measurement
d. An invasive method of assessing pulse rate and quality

A

B) a non invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin

121
Q

The non-rebreathing anaesthetic system that is usually coaxial is the:-

a. Bain
b. Mini Lack
c. Humphrey ADE
d. Ayre’s T-piece

A

A)bain

122
Q

To prevent rebreathing of carbon dioxide in circle circuits:-

a. The flow rate is set between 0.5 and 1 litre per minute
b. Active scavenge systems must be used to draw the gases from the circuit
c. Patients must be 10 kg and over
d. Soda lime granules are used

A

D)soda lime granules are used

123
Q

To prevent rebreathing of waste anaesthetic gases, a 10 kg patient breathing at a respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute on a parallel Lack breathing system would require a fresh gas flow rate of:-

a. 3.75 - 4.5 litres per minute
b. 4.0 - 5.5 litres per minute
c. 1.2 - 2.25 litres per minute
d. 150 - 225 mls per minute

A

C)1.2-2.25 litres per minute

124
Q

The anaesthetic breathing system that contains unidirectional valves is the:-

a. Circle
b. Parallel Lack
c. Ayre’s T-piece
d. Mini Lack

A

A)circle

125
Q

When using activated charcoal in scavenge systems, the canister should be:-

a. Regularly weighed to check if it is exhausted
b. Checked to see if the contents have changed colour, indicating exhaustion
c. Replaced after each operating session
d. Replaced every week

A

A)regularly weighed to check if it is exhausted

126
Q

A 1.25% solution contains:-

a. 0.125 mg/ml
b. 1.25 mg/ml
c. 12.5 mg/ml
d. 125 mg/ml

A

C)12.5mg/ml

127
Q

The anaesthetic agent that possesses good analgesic properties is:-

a. Nitrous oxide
b. Isoflurane
c. Sevoflurane
d. Desflurane

A

A)nitrous oxide

128
Q

An advantage of injectable over inhalation anaesthesia is that:-

a. The patient’s airway is always protected
b. Antagonists are available for all agents
c. The drugs are equally safe in all species
d. The drugs can be used in patients with oral or facial trauma

A

D)the drugs can be used in patients with oral or facial trauma

129
Q

An example of an injectable anaesthetic agent classified as a phenol is:-

a. Propofol
b. Alphaxalone
c. Medetomidine
d. Ketamine

A

A)propofol

130
Q

The amount of agent that is in 100 ml of a 5% solution is:-

a. 5 g
b. 50 mg
c. 500 mg
d. 5000 g

A

A)5g

131
Q

During intubation, the laryngoscope blade is used to:-

a. Depress the epiglottis in cats
b. Lift the hard palate to visualise the larynx
c. Ensure the mainstem bronchus is not intubated
d. Depress the tongue only

A

D)depress the tongue only

132
Q

If an oxygen cylinder contains 60 litres and the flow meter is set at 4 litres per minute, the cylinder will last:-

a. 3 hours
b. 40 minutes
c. 24 minutes
d. 15 minutes

A

D)15 minutes

133
Q

The anaesthetic agent that is a neurosteroid is:-

a. Alfaxalone
b. Propofol
c. Etomidate
d. Ketamine

A

A)alfaxalone

134
Q

Indications of hypothermia in an anaesthetised patient include:-

a. An increasing core to periphery temperature difference
b. Increased bleeding at the surgical site
c. Increased respiratory rate
d. Increased heart rate

A

A)an increasing core to periphery temperature difference

135
Q

The drug that antagonises methadone is:-

a. Adrenaline
b. Naloxone
c. Atipamezone
d. Flumazenil

A

B)naloxone

136
Q

Once opened, a bottle of propofol that contains no preservative should be:-

a. Stored in the fridge and used within 7 days
b. Stored at room temperature and used within 7 days
c. Discarded after 48 hours
d. Discarded after 6 hours

A

D)discarded after 6 hours

137
Q

Tec vaporisers are able to compensate for the drop in temperature during evaporation of the volatile agent because:-

a. They have a cooling jacket surrounding the main chamber
b. They are constructed of glass
c. A pin index system is present
d. A bimetallic strip valve is present

A

D)a bimetallic strip valve is present

138
Q

The drug that antagonises medetomidine is:-

a. Naloxone
b. Atipamezole
c. Flumazenil
d. Adrenaline

A

B)antipamezole

139
Q

The efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs is most accurately monitored with:-

a. Capnography
b. Arterial blood gas analysis
c. Doppler ultrasound
d. A thermistor

A

B)arterial blood gas analysis

140
Q

The drug that antagonises diazepam is:-

a. Naloxone
b. Flumazenil
c. Adrenaline
d. Atipamezole

A

B)fluazenil

141
Q

The coaxial anaesthetic system in which the narrow inner tube is the inspiratory tube is the:-

a. Mini Lack
b. Parallel Lack
c. Ayre’s T-piece
d. Bain

A

D)bain

142
Q

When changing soda lime granules in a circle canister:-

a. It should be performed under a ventilation hood
b. Protective clothing, including a mask and safety glasses, should be worn
c. They should be changed every week, regardless of the colour of the granules
d. Used granules should be discarded into a clinical waste bag

A

B)protective clothing, including a mask and safety glasses, should be worn

143
Q

When exhausted, pink soda lime changes to:-

a. Violet
b. Green
c. Brown
d. White

A

D)white

144
Q

An example of invasive cardiovascular monitoring of the anaesthetised patient is:-

a. Palpation of peripheral blood vessels
b. Ultrasonic Doppler
c. Pulse oximetry
d. Arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

A

D)arterial catheterisation for direct blood pressure measurement

145
Q

With regards to depth of anaesthesia, ‘eyes down’ means the eyeballs are positioned:-

a. Dorsoventrally
b. Ventrolaterally
c. Ventromedially
d. Craniocaudally

A

C)ventromedially

146
Q

The most suitable anaesthetic breathing system to use for a 12 kg dog that requires long term IPPV is the:-

a. Circle
b. Parallel Lack
c. Mini Lack
d. Ayre’s T-piece

A

A)circle

147
Q

The statement relating to cylinder pressure gauges that is true is:-

a. Nitrous oxide gauges indicate the saturated vapour pressure
b. Pipeline pressure is higher than cylinder pressure
c. Oxygen cylinders must be weighed to estimate the amount of gas remaining
d. All pressure gauges are white

A

A)nitrous oxide gauges indicate the saturated vapour pressure

148
Q

An agent with a low blood-gas solubility coefficient will:-

a. Produce a slow recovery rate
b. Be a potent anaesthetic agent
c. Produce a rapid response to altered vaporiser settings
d. Have good analgesic properties

A

C)produce a rapid response to altered vaporiser settings

149
Q

Cardiac arrest during anaesthesia may be caused by:-

a. Myocardial hypoxia
b. IPPV
c. Crystalloid intravenous fluid therapy infusion at a rate of 1-2 ml/kg/hr
d. An existing sinus arrhythmia

A

A)myocardial hypoxia

150
Q

During anaesthesia, reptiles:-

a. Must be kept at their preferred body temperature
b. Must not be intubated
c. Do not require oxygen supplementation
d. Do not require monitoring

A

A)must be kept at their preferred body temperature

151
Q

The minute volume of a 5 kg cat with a respiration rate of 20 breaths per minute is:-

a. 1500 ml/minute
b. 150 ml/minute
c. 75 ml/minute
d. 750 ml/minute

A

A)1500ml/minute

152
Q

Hypothermia is of great concern during anaesthesia of small mammals because they:-

a. Have a large surface area to volume ratio
b. Have a small surface area to volume ratio
c. Have a high respiratory rate and heat is lost via the respiratory system
d. Cannot be given fluid therapy

A

A)have a large surface area to volume ratio

153
Q

Hypothermia is of great concern during anaesthesia of small mammals because they:-

a. Have a large surface area to volume ratio
b. Have a small surface area to volume ratio
c. Have a high respiratory rate and heat is lost via the respiratory system
d. Cannot be given fluid therapy

A

A)have a large surface area to volume ratio

154
Q

Immediately after cessation of anaesthetic inhalation agents:-

a. Rabbits will always be unavoidably hypothermic
b. Reptiles will shed their skin
c. Birds should have 100% oxygen administered to flush out the air sacs
d. Chelonia should be put on a heating pad

A

C)birds should have 100% oxygen

155
Q

Isoflurane produces rapid recovery from anaesthesia because it:-

a. Does not produce analgesia
b. Has a low blood-gas solubility coefficient
c. Has a MAC value higher than sevoflurane
d. Produces good muscle relaxation

A

B)has a low blood gas solubility coefficient

156
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents are administered:-

a. Intramuscularly with other premedication agents
b. Intravenously at the same time as other premedication agents
c. Intravenously 10 minutes before induction
d. Intravenously soon after induction

A

D)intravenously soon after induction

157
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents exert their effects on:-

a. All muscles
b. Voluntary muscles only
c. Cardiac muscles only
d. Involuntary muscles only

A

B)voluntary muscles only

158
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents may be used as part of a balanced anaesthetic technique when only light planes of anaesthesia are required. When used in this way, it is very important that:-

a. No other agent is used to provide muscle relaxation
b. The surgical procedure does not involve opening into the thoracic cavity
c. The patient is intubated with a non-cuffed endotracheal tube
d. The patient remains unconscious throughout the surgical procedure

A

D)the patient remains unconscious throughout the surgical procedure

159
Q

Nitrous oxide is supplied in cylinders coloured:-

a. White
b. Blue
c. Grey
d. Black with white shoulders

A

B)blue

160
Q

Nitrous oxide is used during inhalation anaesthesia because it:-

a. Prevents hypovolaemia
b. Has good analgesic properties
c. Improves heart function
d. Improves thermoregulation

A

B)has good analgesic properties

161
Q

Nitrous oxide should not be used in rabbits because:-

a. It does not cross the blood-brain barrier
b. They have a low erythrocyte count
c. It is toxic
d. It will sequester into the gut causing dilation

A

D)it will sequester into the gut causing dilation

162
Q

Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents may be antagonised by an injection of:-

a. Neostigmine
b. Naloxone
c. Atropine sulphate
d. Doxapram

A

A)neostigmine

163
Q

162) The drug that is a dissociative agent is:-
a. Propofol
b. Alfaxalone
c. Acepromazine
d. Ketamine

A

D)ketamine

164
Q

Signs of inadequate neuromuscular blockade and relaxation include:-

a. Return to consciousness
b. Cessation of ventilation
c. Twitching
d. Eyes in central position

A

C)twitching

165
Q

The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) value given to an inhalation agent indicates:-

a. How easily the agent dissolves in the blood stream
b. How easily the agent is carried across the alveoli
c. The minimum concentration required to prevent the patient from responding to a painful stimulus
d. The minimum concentration required for mask induction of patients

A

C)the minimum concentration reuired to prevent the patient from responding to a painful stimulus

166
Q

The breathing system that preserves dead space gas and can be used with low flow rates is the:-

a. Humphrey ADE
b. Mini Lack
c. Coaxial Bain
d. Ayre’s T-piece

A

A)humphrey ADE

167
Q

When ending nitrous oxide administration:-

a. Patients should be disconnected from the breathing system to breathe atmospheric air
b. Patients should breathe 100% oxygen for a minimum of 3 minutes
c. The scavenge system may be switched off
d. The oxygen should also be turned off

A

B)patients should breathe 100% oxygen for a minimum of 3 minutes

168
Q

IPPV stands for:-

a. Immediate partial pressure ventilation
b. Intermittent partial pressure ventilation
c. Immediate positive pressure ventilation
d. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation

A

D)intermittent positive pressure ventilation

169
Q

The hydroxide compound of which soda lime is mainly composed is:-

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Barium
d. Potassium

A

A)calcium

170
Q

A patient has stopped breathing during a surgical procedure. After informing the veterinary surgeon you switch off the volatile agent, then you should:-

a. Start external cardiac massage
b. Wait to see if the patient starts to breathe on its own
c. Check for a heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV
d. Disconnect the breathing system, remove the endotracheal tube and give 100% oxygen by mask

A

C)check for a heart beat and give 100% oxygen by IPPV

171
Q

A patient stops breathing and appears cyanosed after induction with propofol. Your reaction is to:-

a. Inform the veterinary surgeon and give oxygen by mask
b. Inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation
c. Commence external cardiac compressions while informing the veterinary surgeon
d. Inform the veterinary surgeon whilst drawing up a dose of atipamezole

A

B)inform the veterinary surgeon and prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation

172
Q

Adrenaline is often added to local anaesthetic solutions because it:-

a. Decreases the time of onset of action
b. Prolongs the duration of action
c. Reduces the duration of action
d. Reduces the toxicity of the solution

A

B)prolongs the duration of action

173
Q

Doppler blood pressure measurement records:-

a. Diastolic pressure only
b. Systolic pressure only
c. Mean arterial pressure only
d. Systolic and diastolic arterial pressures

A

B)systolic pressure only

174
Q

Bites and scratches to personnel can be minimised by:-

a. Suitable physical and chemical restraint techniques
b. Requesting the owner to restrain the animal for premedication
c. Requesting the presence of the owner during induction
d. Using mask induction techniques

A

A)suitable physical and chemical restraint techniques

175
Q

During anaesthesia an intubated patient shows signs of increased respiratory effort and is cyanotic. The problem is likely to be due to:-

a. Disconnection of the endotracheal tube from the breathing system
b. An obstruction in the endotracheal tube
c. The patient becoming ‘light’ during the anaesthetic
d. The patient developing a sinus arrhythmia

A

B)an obstruction in the endotracheal tube

176
Q

If a member of staff is accidentally injected with ketamine hydrochloride you should:-

a. Take the person to hospital with the drug data sheet
b. Administer naloxone intramuscularly and support with 100% oxygen until an ambulance arrives
c. Give a sweet drink and observe the person for signs of hypothermia
d. Do nothing as there is no danger from ketamine self-injection

A

A)take the person to hospital with the drug data sheet

177
Q

In relation to emergency drugs:-

a. Atropine slows the heart
b. Dopamine increases blood pressure
c. Lidocaine with adrenaline must be given intravenously
d. Doxapram causes respiratory arrest

A

B)dopamine increases blood pressure

178
Q

If cardiopulmonary resuscitation is being successfully carried out on a patient:-

a. The mucous membranes will remain cyanotic
b. The capillary refill time will be 3 seconds
c. The pupils will dilate to their maximum width
d. The pulse will be palpated during compressions

A

D)the pulse will be palpated during compression

179
Q

An intercostal block, using a local analgesic agent, is advantageous for post-operative pain control with:-

a. Abdominal surgery
b. Thoracic surgery
c. Ophthalmic surgery
d. Spinal surgery

A

B)thoracic surgey

180
Q

Lidocaine hydrochloride is:-

a. Usually used as a 1% or 2% solution
b. A strong alkaline solution
c. Licensed for intravenous use only
d. Only used for superficial skin wounds

A

A)usually used as 1% or 2% solution

181
Q

Local anaesthesia administered by infiltration would be suitable to perform:-

a. Digit amputation
b. Tail amputation
c. Caesarean section
d. Wart removal

A

D)wart removal

182
Q

An anaesthetised dog that has a persistent end-tidal carbon dioxide reading of 70 mmHg is likely to be suffering from:-

a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypoxaemia
c. Hypotension
d. Hypothermia

A

A)hypercapnia

183
Q

A prolonged recovery from anaesthesia may be due to:-

a. Decreased heart rate and transport of anaesthetic drugs and metabolites for excretion
b. Increased respiratory rate and elimination of inhalation anaesthetic agents
c. The use of a rebreathing system
d. The use of a local heat source in the recovery kennels

A

A)decreased heart rate and transport of anaesthetic drugs and metabolites for excretion

184
Q

The ABC of first aid is applied to anaesthetic emergencies. ABC stands for:-

a. Anaesthetic, breathing, circulation
b. Airway, bleeding, cardiac massage
c. Airway, breathing, circulation
d. Adrenaline, bicarbonate, calcium

A

C)airway, breathing, circulation

185
Q

The anaesthetised patient you are monitoring appears to be getting “light” during surgery despite having had the vaporiser turned up. The problem may be due to:-

a. The induction agent used
b. The high flow rate used
c. Disconnection of the breathing system from the patient or machine
d. Hypothermia

A

C)disconnection of the breathing system from the patient or machine

186
Q

The contents of an anaesthetic emergency box should:-

a. Never need replacing
b. Be checked only after each time of use
c. Be checked at least once a week by a specified member of staff and after every time of use
d. Be checked once or twice a year

A

C)be checked at least once a week by a specified member of staff and after every time of use

187
Q

The most common time that an anaesthetic complication or emergency will arise is during:-

a. Induction and recovery
b. Induction and maintenance
c. Premedication and recovery
d. Premedication and maintenance

A

A)induction and recovery

188
Q

To prevent systemic toxic effects of local anaesthetic agents, prior to injecting the agent:-

a. A tourniquet should be applied
b. The syringe plunger should be drawn back to ensure the needle has not entered a blood vessel
c. A small amount of saline should be injected into the area
d. A small amount of sterile water should be injected into the area

A

B)the syringe plunder should be drawn back to ensure the needle has not entered a blood vessel

189
Q

End-tidal carbon dioxide is measured using a:-

a. Capnometer
b. oximeter
c. Doppler monitor
d. Thermistor

A

A)capnometer

190
Q

Blood transfusions should be considered when the percentage blood loss is:-

a. 20% blood volume
b. 5% blood volume
c. 10% blood volume
d. 15% blood volume

A

A)20% blood volume

191
Q

When cardiac arrest is suspected in an anaesthetised patient, your first action should be to:-

a. Start chest compressions
b. Administer atropine
c. Increase fluid therapy rate
d. Begin artificial ventilation

A

A)start chest compressions

192
Q

Activated charcoal adsorbers:-

a. Should be weighed to check if they are exhausted
b. Are an example of active scavenging
c. Absorb nitrous oxide
d. Absorb all expired gases

A

A)should be weighed to check if they are exhausted

193
Q

The statement about flowmeters that is true is:-

a. Flow should be read from the middle of a ball
b. Flow should be read from the bottom of a ball
c. Flow should be read from the bottom of a bobbin
d. Flow should be read from the middle of a bobbin

A

A)flow should be read from the middle of a ball

194
Q

The perception of pain from a stimulus that is not usually painful is known as:-

a. Allodynia
b. Hypoalgesia
c. Paraesthesia
d. Hyperalgesia

A

A)allodynia

195
Q

The correct order of the physiological processes of pain is:-

a. Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
b. Perception, transmission, transduction, modulation
c. Transmission, transduction, modulation, perception
d. Modulation, transmission, perception, transduction

A

C)transmission, transduction, modulation, perception

196
Q

Schedule 3 drugs:-

a. Must be kept locked in a cupboard
b. Include methadone and morphine
c. Need to be recorded in a book when they are used
d. Require the presence of a policeman or customs official when they are disposed of

A

A)must be kept locked in a cupboard

197
Q

The tidal volume for a 4 kg cat is approximately:-

a. 60 ml
b. 80 ml
c. 40 ml
d. 250 ml

A

A)60ml

198
Q

The anaesthetic breathing system that requires denitrogenation to be performed is the:-

a. Circle
b. Parallel Lack
c. Ayre’s T-piece
d. Coaxial Bain

A

A)circle

199
Q

The colour of fresh soda lime that is specifically indicated for use with low fresh gas flows and sevoflurane is:-

a. Green
b. White
c. Pink
d. Violet

A

A)green

200
Q

Intervention for respiratory arrest should be:-

a. Endotracheal intubation and IPPV with 100% oxygen
b. A precordial thump followed by cardiac compressions
c. Mouth-to-nose resuscitation
d. Intracardiac administration of adrenaline

A

A)endotracheal intubation and IPPV with 100% oxygen

201
Q

In patient resuscitation, Basic Life Support consists of:-

a. Airway, Breathing and Circulation
b. Drugs, ECG and Follow up
c. Circulation, Drugs and Electrical defibrillation
d. Drugs, ECG and Electrical defibrillation

A

A)airway, breathing and circulation

202
Q

The local anaesthetic which may be found in a crash box as an emergency drug is:-

a. Lidocaine
b. Mepivacaine
c. Procaine
d. Bupivacaine

A

A)lidocaine

203
Q

LMA stands for:-

a. Laryngeal mask airway
b. Larynx medical appliance
c. Lung maintenance airway
d. Linked multiple airways

A

A)laryngeal mask airway

204
Q

To avoid damage to the tracheal mucosa, the best type of cuff of an endotracheal tube is:-

a. High volume, low pressure
b. Low volume, high pressure
c. High volume, high pressure
d. High pressure, no volume

A

A)high volume, low pressure

205
Q

After euthanasia under anaesthesia, the monitoring parameter that may appear normal for several minutes after death is the:-

a. ECG
b. Capnograph
c. Pulse oximeter
d. Doppler blood pressure

A

A)ECG

206
Q

The optimal patient position for anaesthetic induction and tracheal intubation is:-

a. Sternal recumbency
b. Left lateral recumbency
c. Right lateral recumbency
d. Either left or right lateral recumbency

A

A)sternal recumbency

207
Q

A central line is placed in the:-

a. Jugular vein
b. Cephalic vein
c. Dorsal metatarsal artery
d. Lateral saphenous vein

A

A)jugular vein

208
Q

Extravasation can be defined as:-

a. Depositing fluids or drugs outside the vein
b. Haematoma formation due to incorrect catheter placement
c. Inflammation and clot formation in the vessel
d. Bleeding out through the catheter site

A

A)depositing fluids or drugs outside the vein

209
Q

A cannula is:-

a. A hollow tube
b. A wire over which a catheter is threaded
c. A large gauge hypodermic needle
d. A stylet

A

A)a hollow tube

210
Q

An disadvantage of manual IPPV is:-

a. Decreased venous return and lowered blood pressure
b. Increased venous return and increased heart rate
c. Increased cardiac output and decreased stroke volume
d. Decreased respiratory rate and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide levels

A

A)decreased venous return and lowered blood pressure

211
Q

The statement concerning IPPV that is false is:-

a. Peak inspiratory pressures in a small animal should be approximately 40 cmH20
b. IPPV increases the release of renin and angiotensin
c. IPPV can be provided using a circle system
d. IPPV can be used to decrease end-tidal carbon dioxide levels

A

A)peak inspiratory pressures in a small animal should be approximately 40 cmH20

212
Q

The statement relating to pressure-cycled ventilators that is true is:-

a. Pressure dictates when the ventilator switches from inspiration to expiration
b. Inspiration is generated by pressure
c. The mode of operation is pressure driven
d. Pressure dictates when the ventilator switches from expiration to inspiration

A

A)pressure dictates when the ventilator switches from inspiration to expiration

213
Q

Long-term total intravenous anaesthesia in the cat should not be accomplished using:-

a. Propofol
b. Alfaxalone
c. Ketamine and fentanyl
d. Fentanyl and midazolam

A

A)propofol

214
Q

The most potent anaesthetic agent is:-

a. Isoflurane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Desflurane
d. Sevoflurane

A

A)isoflurane

215
Q

The blood gas solubility of a volatile anaesthetic agent affects the:-

a. Speed of anaesthetic induction
b. Dialled percentage required to keep a patient anaesthetised
c. Patient’s minute volume
d. Percentage of volatile agent metabolised by the liver

A

A)speed of anaesthetic induction

216
Q

Urine output in a healthy dog is approximately:-

a. 1-2 ml/kg/hr
b. 0.5-0.75 ml/kg/hr
c. 1-2 ml/kg/min
d. 10-20 ml/kg/day

A

A)1-2ml/kg/hr

217
Q

Electrocardiography monitors:-

a. The electrical activity of the heart
b. Closure of heart valves
c. Cardiac stroke volume
d. The intensity of myocardial muscle contraction

A

A)the electrical activity of the heart

218
Q

The situation that would cause an increase in end-tidal carbon dioxide tension measured on a capnograph is:-

a. Hypoventilation
b. Oesophageal intubation
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Ventilator disconnection

A

A)hypoventilation

219
Q

The statement regarding pre-anaesthetic blood tests that is false is:-

a. Routine pre-anaesthetic blood tests should include full haematology, biochemistry and clotting profile
b. Blood tests do not replace good history taking and clinical examination
c. Premedication drugs should be given after blood results have been assessed
d. Assessment of renal and hepatic function is particularly significant in geriatric patients

A

A)routine pre anaesthetic blood test should include full haematology, biochemistry and clotting profile

220
Q

The agent which has the lowest minimum alveolar concentration (greatest anaesthetic potency) is:

a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Halothane

A

D)halothane

221
Q

A Magill breathing system:

a) is an example of a rebreathing circuit
b) is an example of a non-rebreathing circuit
c) is ideally suited for controlled ventilation
d) is an example of a co-axial breathing circuit

A

B)is an example of a non rebreathing circuit

222
Q

The chemical colour change that indicates soda lime is exhausted is:

a) Blue soda lime changes to pink
b) Pink soda lime changes to white
c) White soda lime changes to brown
d) Pink soda lime changes to blue/purple

A

B)pink soda lime changes to white

223
Q

Which of the following types of local anaesthesia is not administered by injection:

a) Spinal
b) Surface
c) Regional
d) Infiltration

A

B)surface

224
Q

Recovery from general anaesthesia is the period between:

a) Extubation and ambulation
b) Oxygen support and patient being returned to a cage
c) Cessation of anaesthesia and patient being placed in sternal recumbency
d) At the end of the surgical procedure and the patient returning to normal rectal temperature

A

A)extubation and ambulation

225
Q

Which of the following is not a property of nitrous oxide?

a) Analgesia
b) Weak anaesthesia
c) Relatively non-toxic
d) Four times more potent than ether

A

B)weak anaesthesia

226
Q

Which of the following is not a hazard to personnel who are in the operating theatre when a volatile anaesthesia agent is in use?

a) Explosion
b) Complication of pregnancy
c) Liver damage
d) Brain tumour

A

D)brain tumour

Pharmacology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions