Anaemia Flashcards

1
Q
A

C - iron deficiency anaemia

  • hypochromic RBCs
  • pencil cells
  • anisopoikilocytosis
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2
Q

What is the definition of anaemia?

How do you clinically check whether someone is anaemic?

A
  • anaemia describes a low blood haemoglobin
  • check for anaemia by looking for conjunctival pallor
  • patients will often also have pale skin, but this can be difficult to identify
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3
Q

What is meant by “symptomatic anaemia”?

Why does this develop?

A
  • symptomatic anaemia occurs when a patient’s respiratory rate and heart rate are raised
  • anaemic patient is not oxygenating their tissues effectively due to less Hb present in the blood
  • RR and HR are increased to compensate for the lack of oxygenation
  • anaemia can be a cause of acute breathlessness
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4
Q

What are the 3 features that help to identify iron-deficiency anaemia on a blood film?

A
  • there is anisopoikilocytosis
  • RBCs are both hypochromic and microcytic
    • a cell is hypochromic when > 1/3 of the cell is pale in colour (central pallor)
  • pencil cells are present
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5
Q

What is meant by “anisopoikilocytosis”?

A

this is a combination of 2 words:

  • poikilocytosis means different shapes are present within the blood film
  • anisocytosis means that different sizes are present within the blood film
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6
Q

What are the 3 different categories of causes of iron-deficiency anaemia and examples of each?

A

Reduced uptake:

  • malnutrition
  • coeliac disease
  • IBD

Increased loss:

  • GI malignancy
  • peptic ulcer
  • IBD
  • menstruation

Increased requirement:

  • pregnancy
  • breastfeeding
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7
Q

What is the biggest concern in older patients (>55) with iron deficiency anaemia?

What other associated symptoms would heighten concern?

A
  • in older patients with unexplained IDA, think colon cancer until proven otherwise
  • colon cancer presents with a triad of symptoms:
    • unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia
    • PR bleeding
    • change in bowel habit
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8
Q

What type of anaemia is anaemia of chronic disease?

What is the main “chemical” that is responsible for this?

A
  • it is often normocytic, but can also be microcytic
  • the presence of a chronic disease causes increased release of cytokines due to presence of chronic inflammation
  • cytokines increase the amount of hepcidin in the body
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9
Q

What is involved in removing iron from the gut and what happens to it after this has happened?

A
  • iron is loaded via ferroportin in the gut
  • iron comes out into the blood via transferrin
  • OR it is stored as ferritin
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10
Q

How does hepcidin interfere with iron storage and transport?

A
  • hepcidin decreases the activity of ferroportin
    • this reduces the uptake of iron from the gut
  • it also decreases the activity of transferrin
    • if some iron manages to come in from the gut, the hepcidin then stops it from getting out of cells and into the blood
  • hepcidin causes iron to clump in the interstitial cells and be converted to ferritin
    • ​this makes the iron useless as it is just being stored and can’t be used
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11
Q

Why is the production of hepcidin useful in acute inflammation?

How do its actions lead to anaemia of chronic disease?

A
  • in acute inflammation, the body wants to ensure bacteria are not provided with iron that they can use for nutrition
  • hepcidin prevents iron from being available by storing it as ferritin
  • starving an infection of iron will stop it from replicating
  • in a chronic state this results in anaemia as there is decreased iron in the blood
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12
Q
A
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13
Q

How can ferritin be used to distinguish between IDA and ACD?

Why is this not the best marker to use?

A
  • ferritin is REDUCED in iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA)
  • ferritin is unchanged or INCREASED in anaemia of chronic disease (ACD)

ferritin is upregulated due to hepcidin production

  • ferritin is an acute phase protein so can also be raised in acute infections
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14
Q

What is the best marker to use for distinguishing between IDA and ACD on blood test?

A

Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

  • this relates to the raw level of transferrin in the blood
  • there is HIGH transferrin in IDA as you are trying to get as much iron as possible into the blood from the gut
  • there is LOW transferrin in ACD as it is inhibited by hepcidin
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15
Q

What is thalassaemia?

What type of anaemia does this produce?

A
  • inherited blood disorders characterised by decreased haemoglobin production
  • these are autosomal recessive globin chain mutations
  • they produce a microcytic anaemia
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16
Q

What are the 2 different types of thalassaemia?

In which country are both these types relatively common?

A
  • alpha thalassaemia is more rare than beta thalassaemia
  • in alpha - there is a defect affecting chromosome 16
  • in beta - there is a defect affecting chromosome 11
  • Cyprus has one of the highest levels of thalassaemia in the world
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17
Q

What are the different subtypes of alpha thalassaemia?

How does the severity differ?

A
  • alpha+
  • alphao
  • Hb H
  • Hb Barts
  • there are 4 alpha genes, 2 from your father and 2 from your mother
  • different subtypes arise depending on how many genes are knocked out
  • the more genes that are knocked out, the increased severity of disease

(someone with Hb H has only 1 alpha gene and needs blood transfusions for life

in Hb Barts there are no alpha genes at all and it produces death in utero)

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

What are the different types of beta-thalassaemia?

How does their severity vary?

A
  • beta minor
  • beta intermedia
  • beta major
  • beta minor involves only one allele bearing a mutation, and sufferers have microcytic anaemia
  • beta intermedia involves the need for occasional transfusions e.g. in pregnancy
  • beta major occurs when both alleles have mutations and requires blood transfusions for life
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20
Q

What are the investigations involved in thalassaemia?

A
  • diagnosis involves identification of microcytic anaemia but with normal iron studies
    • normal levels of iron show it is not IDA or ACD
  • gel electrophoresis is performed to confirm the diagnosis
    • ​different sized proteins depend on the number of genes present
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21
Q

What is a benefit of having thalassaemia minor?

A
  • it is associated with resistance to falciparum Malaria
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22
Q

Around what age do alpha and beta thalassaemia present?

A
  • at birth the child has foetal Hb (blue line) which decreases with age
  • B-Hb compensates for foetal Hb and increases in the first 3 months of life
  • if you are lacking a B-globin chain in B-thalassaemia, it will present here
  • A-thalassaemia will present from birth
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23
Q

What causes sickle cell disease?

In what population is it common and why?

A
  • caused by a point mutation on the B globin gene on chromosome 11
  • it is an autosomal recessive condition
  • 20% of tropical Africa population have sickle cell trait as it has resistance to Falciparum Malaria
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24
Q

What factors predispose to sickling of RBCs?

A
  • hypoxia
  • dehydration
  • acidosis
  • infection (particularly encapsulated bacteria)
  • these all upset the membrane potential of the cell and make it more predisposed to sickling
    • sickle cells can then go on to cause occlusion of blood vessels
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25
How is sickle cell anaemia identified on blood film?
* **_sickled cells_** are present * **_Howell-Jolly bodies_** are present, which are nuclear remnants * they would usually be taken up and removed by the spleen
26
What are the 4 different types of sickle cell crises? What causes these?
* **acute painful crisis** * **stroke** * **sequestration crisis** * **chronic cholecystitis** * these all occur due to sickle cells entering small, narrow vessels and causing **_vessel occlusion_**
27
What happens during a sequestration crisis?
* sickle cells can become lodged in the spleen * the spleen decides whether RBCs are functional or not, so attempts to **remove the sickle cells** * there are so many sickle cells, that as the spleen tries to remove them it becomes **_massively enlarged_** * the sequestration crisis occurs due to all the RBCs **getting stuck inside the spleen**
28
Are Howell-Jolly bodies typically seen in older or younger patients and why is this the case?
* in **younger patients**, the spleen is still functioning so they will get **_sequestration crisis_** (and splenomegaly) * the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies tells you that the spleen is **_no longer functioning_** as it would've removed these if it could * **older patients** will have **_Howell-Jolly bodies_** and **_hyposplenism_** as their spleen is no longer functioning
29
30
How is sickle cell anaemia diagnosed and treated?
* it is diagnosed by **_Hb electrophoresis + blood film_** * management involves preventing problems related to sickling from happening before they occur ***_Conservative:_*** * avoid triggers ***_Medical:_*** * hydroxyurea * prophylactic antibiotics - as patients are susceptible to certain infections * vaccination - to prevent infection, which can cause sickling ***_Surgical:_*** * bone marrow transplant
31
What are the 5 most severe consequences of sickle cell anaemia?
***_Dactylitis:_*** * RBCs enter vessels of the hands and cause **swelling of the fingers**, which is very painful ***_Acute chest syndrome_*** ***_Priapism:_*** * sickle cells clog up vessels in the penis and cause an **erection that lasts for 4-5 hours** and is painful ***_Haemolytic anaemia:_*** * the cells break apart and haemolysis occurs * this leads to **jaundice** due to the build-up of bilirubin ***_Aplastic crisis:_*** * this occurs due to infection by **parvovirus B19**
32
What type of anaemia is produced from folate or B12 deficiency? How can this be identified on blood film?
* it is a **_megaloblastic anaemia_** (macrocytic) * folate helps the nucleus to develop, so in megaloblastic anaemia there is a **problem with nuclear development** * this produces **_hypersegmented neutrophils_** * the cells become **_very large_** as the cytoplasm carries on growing, whilst the nucleus cannot
33
What are the different causes of megaloblastic anaemia caused by vitamin B12 and folate deficiency?
***_Vitamin B12 deficiency:_*** * alcohol * IBD and coeliac disease * **malnutrition** * **pernicious anaemia** * this is the autoimmune cause of B12 deficiency ***_Folate deficiency:_*** * alcohol * IBD and coeliac disease * **anti-folate drugs** * **pregnancy** * folic acid supplements are given to women who are planning on getting pregnant
34
Why does B12 deficiency produce neurological signs? What are these signs?
* B12 is important for **_preserving the myelin sheath_** in the nervous system, so deficiency produces neurological symptoms * these symptoms are referred to as ***"subacute combined degeneration of the cord"*** and include: * glove and stocking parasthesiae * hyporeflexia * Romberg's positive
35
What is glove and stocking paraesthesia?
* numbness or tingling sensations * the distal portions of the nerves are affected, meaning that this affects the hands and feet
36
When do the symptoms of B12 deficiency typically arise?
B12 reserves last for **_3-4 years_** symptoms of deficiency do not arise until after this time
37
What is meant by a positive Romberg's sign?
* the patient **stands upright** and is asked to **close their eyes** * a **_loss of balance_** is interpreted as a **_positive Romberg's test_** * this is a test of **proprioception** (body's sense of positioning), which requires healthy functioning of the **dorsal columns** of the spinal cord
38
What is meant by the phrase "subacute combined degeneration of the cord"?
* this is **_progressive degeneration_** of the spinal cord due to **_vitamin B12 deficiency_** * there is damage to nerve fibres that control movement and sensation * there is tingling / numbness in the hands / feet, stiff limbs and confusion / irritability
39
What is pernicious anaemia?
* **autoimmune** condition which produces **_autoantibodies_** against **_intrinsic factor_** or cells in the stomach (**_parietal cells_**) that produce intrinsic factor * intrinsic factor **binds vitamin B12** so that it can be absorbed * the body cannot produce enough RBCs due to **_lack of vitamin B12_**
40
What are the 4 main causes of non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia?
remember **_A_**lcoholics **_M_**ay **_H_**ave **_L_**iver failure * A - Alcohol * M - Myelodysplasia * H - Hypothyroidism * L - Liver disease
41
What is haemolytic anaemia? What are the 2 different mechanisms by which this can occur?
* anaemia resulting from RBCs being ***destroyed faster than they can be reproduced*** ***_Intravascular haemolysis:_*** * RBCs lyse / rupture **_within the blood vessels_** * this occurs due to rupture of the RBC membrane ***_Extravascular haemolysis:_*** * this is haemolysis occurring in the **_liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes_** * the spleen removes RBCs that are not functioning properly
42
What are the clinical features of haemolytic anaemia?
* scleral icterus (jaundice) * pale conjunctivae & skin
43
What will blood tests show in haemolytic anaemia and why?
* **low haemoglobin** * **_low haptoglobin_** * this is the molecule that **mops up Hb** in the blood * you would expect Hb levels to be high as it leaks out of RBCs, but it is not as haptoglobin mops it up * eventually **levels drop as haptoglobin is exhausted** * this is a sign of **_intravascular haemolysis_** * **raised unconjugated bilirubin** * **_raised LDH_** * this leaks out of RBCs
44
What are the 4 different hereditary haemolytic anaemias? Which parts of the RBC are affected in each type?
* **_hereditary spherocytosis_** affects the RBC **membrane** * **_G-6-PD deficiency_** affects **enzymes** within the RBC * **_sickle cell anaemia_** and **_thalassaemia_** result from **haemoglobin defects**
45
Why do broad beans (fava beans) predispose to glucose-6-phosphate deficiency?
* G6P is an enzyme that is involved in making **_glutathione_**, which helps the body to deal with **_oxidative stress_** * if there is a G6P deficiency, the person may **run out of glutathione** * they cannot respond to oxidative stress and the **_cell becomes damaged_** * things that are oxidative stressors, such as fava beans, are more likely to cause problems
46
How is glucose-6-phosphate deficiency contracted?
it is an **_X-linked recessive_** condition
47
What 2 signs on blood film will be present in G6PD? What do these result from?
***_Heinz bodies:_*** * these are small bits of **oxidative damage** from the nucleus * they are detected by the spleen which attempts to remove them * the spleen literally **"takes a bite"** out of the cell producing... ***_Bite cells:_*** * these indicate **_previous haemolysis_** as the spleen takes time to respond
48
How can hereditary spherocytosis be identified on blood film? What causes it?
* this is an **_autosomal dominant_** inherited condition * the blood film shows **_spherocytes_** * these cells are shaped like a sphere so have **no central pallor**
49
What is involved in the pathogenesis of hereditary spherocytosis?
* it is caused by a **_beta spectrin_** or **_ankyrin deficiency_** * these proteins usually anchor the centre of the cell to make it a **biconcave shape** * when these proteins are defected, the cell loses its shape and becomes **_spherical_**
50
What is the investigation for hereditary spherocytosis? How does it work?
**_osmotic fragility test_** * **_hypotonic fluid_** is given, which puts stress on the RBC * a normal RBC can expand in response to the extra fluid * when fluid enters a spherocyte, they are more prone to breaking apart, so **_lysis_** occurs * this test identifies whether there are **_spherocytes_**
51
How does an aplastic crisis occur in hereditary spherocytosis and sickle cell anaemia?
* **_parvovirus B19_** infects children (usually) and enters the **bone marrow** * it prevents the bone marrow from making RBCs, so you need to rely on the **current store** of RBCs circulating in the body * if someone has HS or SCD, RBCs in the body are **_prone to lysis_** * this leads to **very few RBCs** in the periphery as they are breaking apart and **none are being made** in the bone marrow * this is an aplastic crisis
52
What type of "sheared cell" is associated with haemolytic-uraemic syndrome? How are they formed?
* **_schitsocytes_** are seen in HUS * they occur as a result of **mechanical destruction** of a normal RBC * RBCs get trapped in **fibrin strands** * the sheer force of the blood flow produces a **"cheese grater" effect** that causes the RBC to break
53
What type of anaemia is seen in haemolytic uraemic syndrome? What is the triad of symptoms associated with this condition?
* this is a disease of early childhood that is characterised by **microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia** (MAHA) * the triad of HUS includes: * **thrombocytopenia** * **AKI** * **MAHA** * it presents with **_jaundice_** and **_conjunctival pallor_**
54
What type of infection is the main cause of HUS in children aged 4-5?
**EHEC O157:H7** * this is a nasty **_haemorrhagic E. coli infection_** that can be acquired through eating **dodgy food** * it is a gastric infection so also causes **_abdominal pain_** and **_bloody diarrhoea_**
55
What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?
DIC involves **_concurrent clotting and bleeding_** * there is an underlying problem that **activates the clotting cascade** * no proper clots are formed as there is no specific problem/injury * the **supply of clotting factors** is eventually **exhausted** * there are lots of **small ineffective clots** that are not doing anything, and now clots can not be formed when needed * bleeding occurs very easily as **_clotting factors have been depleted_**
56
What are the 6 most common causes of DIC?
* pancreatitis * sepsis * obstetric complications * cancer * trauma * ABO reaction
57
What are the bleeding features, clotting features and haemolytic features associated with DIC?
***_Bleeding features:_*** * petechiae * ecchymoses (bruising) * haematuria ***_Clotting features:_*** * prolonged APTT * prolonged PT ***_Haemolytic features:_*** * jaundice * conjunctival pallor
58
What blood test results would you expect to see in DIC?
* **decreased platelets** * **decreased fibrinogen** * this has all been exhausted as it is part of the clotting cascade * increased FDPs * **_increased D-dimer_** * this indicates that excess thrombolysis is occurring
59
Why does thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura occur?
* there is a defect of the **_ADAMTS-13 enzyme_** * ADAMSTS-13 enzyme **cleaves vWF,** decreasing the activity of vWF multimers * without this enzyme, **platelets bind vWF** as they **_spontaneously aggregate_** in small blood vessels * this is a form of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) * the platelet-vWF complexes form **small blood clots** that **shear RBCS**, leading to their rupture and formation of **_schistocytes_**
60
61
What are the features of the clinical pentad associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? How can this be remembered?
remember there is a defunct **_ADAMSTS-13_** enzyme: * **A** - Antiglobulin negative * **D** - Decreased platelets * **A** - AKI * **M** - MAHA * **T** - Temperature * **S** - Swinging CNS signs * decreased platelets, AKI and MAHA are all signs of HUS * temperature and swinging CNS signs are not present in other MAHAs
62
What test is negative in all 3 MAHAs?
**_DAT / Coombs test_** is negative
63
How does the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) / Coombs test work? In what type of condition will it be positive?
* it is used to detect the presence of **_autoimmune_ haemolytic anaemias** by detecting the presence of antibody bound to the red cell surface * if it is autoimmune, there will be **antibodies bound to the RBC antigen** * DAT test uses **_antibodies to human globin_** * these will **bind to the autoantibodie**s anchored to the RBC and cause **_RBC agglutination_**
64
What is meant by warm and cold types of autoimmune haemolytic anaemias? What can cause these?
***_Warm:_*** * agglutination occurs at **_\> 37oC_** * associated with **_IgG antibodies_** attacking the RBC * idiopathic * SLE * CLL ***_Cold:_*** * agglutination occurs at **_\< 37oC_** * associated with **_IgM antibodies_** attacking the RBC * ​idiopathic * **_M_**ycoplasma * **_M_**ononucleosis both of these will be **_DAT / Coombs positive_** as there are **anti-RBC antigen antibodies**
65
myelofibrosis
66
What is primary myelofibrosis? What causes it?
***fibrosis in response to a _bone marrow malignancy_*** * myelofibrosis means fibrosis of the bone marrow * **fibroblasts** are very **overactive** * the interior of the bone marrow is **destroyed by fibroblast tissue**, leading to formation of **_scar tissue_** * the scar tissue crowds the bone marrow so it cannot work properly, leading to **_anaemia_** and **_low WCC_**
67
What are the risk factors for primary myelofibrosis? What would you expect to see on blood film?
* increased risk with **_radiation exposure_** and **_\>65 years old_** * **_tear drop cells_ (dacrocytes)** are seen on blood film these occur when there is fibrosis as the RBCs have to **squeeze out of the bone marrow**, which distorts their shape
68
What would you expect to see on bone marrow aspirate in primary myelofibrosis?
**_"dry tap" fibrosis_** * bone marrow is usually **highly vascularised** and will **bleed** * when there is **_scarring and fibrosis_**, it has all **_dried up_** so you won't be able to extract anything out of it
69
What might be found on examination in someone with primary myelofibrosis?
**_massive splenomegaly_** * this is due to **_extramedullary haematopoiesis_** * the bone marrow is ruined so the rest of the body tries to compensate and form new blood cells * as the spleen **tries to compensate for the BM**, it increases in size