Anaemia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms of anaemia?

A

May be assymptomatic.
Very non specific symptoms:
Fatigue/malaise is the most common symptom

Pale pallor
Headaches
Faintness
Dysopnea
Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is anaemia classified and describe the different causes of anaemia?

A

By MCV: microcytic, normocytic and macrocytic.

Microcytic causes:
Iron deficiency.
Thallasemias
Hereditary sideroblastic anaemia, (the bone marrow is unable to incorporate iron into RBCs properly.)

Normocytic causes:
Anaemia of chronic disease
Renal failure (reduced erythpoeitin aka reduced production)
Acute blood loss ( not enough time to compensate with reticulocytes)
Haematological malignancies

Macrocytic causes: 
Folate deficiency B9
B12 deficiency 
Haemolytic causes (G6DP deficiency)
Alcoholism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the general physiology of RBC production and the general pathophysiology of anaemia?

A

EPO released from the mesangial cells from the kidneys.

Stimulates erythropoesis in the bone marrow.

Forms reticulocytes partially nucleated which develop into erythrocytes.

After approximately 120 days they get destroyed in the reticular endothelial system (RES) in the spleen.

RES works like a filter if the RBC is too large, or old it gets broken down by macrophages, therefore if RBC which are incorrectly formed may be broken down more quickly.

Anaemia in general terms is due to:

An underproduction of RBC or an over destruction of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Worldwide: Hook worm is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia and all anaemia. But it is rare in the western world.

General causes:

Bleeding (GI bleed: peptic ulcers, colorectal ca, polyps, diverticuli. Menustration. Hook worm.)

Demand > Supply (growth, pregnancy, reduced intake)

Malabsorption potentially following a gastrectomy (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Discuss the investigations used to confirm a patient has iron deficiency anaemia?

A

FBC: Microcytic anaemia

Blood film + iron studies:
Low serum ferritin
Transferrin also reported as TIBC (Total Iron Binding Capacity) will be raised as the liver makes more transferrin to try and compensate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Outline the appropriate investigations for a patient with confirmed iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Any anaemia always check previous results.

If bleeding is suspected enquire about menustration and consider endoscopy.

Give oral iron and see if the Hb normalises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outline the physiological absorption of B12 and Folate and the area of the bowel in which it occurs?

A

B12 needs intrinsic factor released from the parietal cells to be absorbed.

B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum therefore there is often B12 deficiency anaemia in patients with ileal resections.

Folate is found in leafy greens and is absorbed in the jejenum. Alcoholics with a poor dietary intake are often deficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and diagnosis of B12 or folate deficiency anaemia?

A

Folate is needed in DNA purine production (adenosisne and guanine) and B12 is needed to activate the folate.

When there is deficiency in either this causes the RBC to grow too much giving it a macrocytic appearance this then causes increased destruction of these RBC’s by the RES.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

It is a autosomal recessive disease which causes RBC’s to be sickle shaped and have a reduced life span.

The reduced life span is exacerbated by low oxygen tension, dehydration and the cold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical features of sickle cell anaemia?

A

In the most severe form HbSS:

Anaemia of ~6 there will be malaise and potential breathlessness associated.

May be haemolytic jaundice. Note may have splenomegaly in young children.

Increase incidence of infection (pneumococcal) due to hyposplenism due to infarcts (sickle celled rbc more likely to occlude vasculature)

Painful crises due vaso-occlusive episodes often in the hand and feet. Often accompanied by a haemolytic crisis as sickle cells have a reduced life span during crises.

Priapism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia diagnosed?

A

Usually diagnosed via the guthrie test performed in the neonatal period. This involves screening for the HbS.

Haemoglobin electrophoresis is then used to differentiate between patients that are homo/heterozygous for HbS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia managed including painful crises?

A

Full immunisation.
Prophylactic daily oral penicillin throughout childhood.
Folic Acid supplementation.

Vaso-occlusive crises should be avoided by avoiding the:

  • cold
  • dehydration
  • exercising excessively
  • undue stress
  • hypoxia.

Treatment of an acute crises should be analgesia, good hydration, oxygen and antibiotics.

Note: Hb should be treated with transfusion when less than 6.

Note 2: Parovirus B19 can cause a 2-3 day halt in BM erythropoesis causing a aplastic crisis treated by transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is thallassaemia?

A

Thalassemia is an autosomal recessively inherited haemaglobinopathy.

There are 2 forms beta and alpha.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of alpha and beta thallassaemia?

A

Alpha thalassaemia:

Healthy individuals have 4 alpha global genes. If all 4 are deleted then the individual will not be able to produce alpha global chains. This is known as alpha thalassaemia major which is not compatible with human life.

If there are 3 deletions and 1 functioning gene then the anaemia will be mild-moderate.

If there are 1 or 2 deletions the individual will be an asymptomatic carrier.

In B-thalassaemia due to abnormal genes the body cannot produce adequate amounts of B-globin chains, there is therefore a reduction in HbA (2 alpha and 2 beta).

All affected individuals have a severe reduction in B-globin and disease severity depends on the amount of residual HbA and HbF production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the clinical features of beta thallasaemia?

A

Profound anaemia with associated symptoms.
Stunted growth.
Haemolytic anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly and bone marrow expansion (if not treated)

Severity is dependent on residual HbA and HbF production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the lab findings in haemolytic anaemia?

A

Presence of red cell destruction:

  • Normocytic hypochromic anaemia aka reduced Hb normal MCV.
  • Spherocytes, fragmented red cells, nucleated red cells or other abnormal red cells.
  • Increased serum unconjugated bilirubin, increased lactate dehydrogenase.
  • Increased urinary urobilinogen.

Presence of red cell compensatory production:

  • Reticuloctosis
  • Increased MCV

Note may have other abnormal features on the FBC in conditions such as SLE, CLL and lymphoma.

17
Q

What are the extra tests which you could order in suspected haemolytic anaemia?

A

Cold agglutinins: a high titre of anti-I antibody may be found in mycoplasma infections and a high titre of anti-I antibody may be found in haemolysis associated with infectious mononucleosis.

Direct coomb’s/antiglobulin test is used to test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and is usually positive.

Specific genetic testing for sickle cell, spherocytosis, 6-GDP deficiency etc.

18
Q

Briefly explain the principle of the direct Coomb’s test?

A

Direct Coomb’s Test:
Used to test for antibodies which have attached onto RBC’s.

A patients blood sample is taken it is washed to remove the plasma. It is then combined with anti human antibodies.

If there is agglutination this is a positive test. A positive Coombs test indicates that an immune mechanism is attacking the patient’s own RBCs as for the anti human antibodies to have attached there must already be antibodies present on the RBC.

Note: the direct coombs test is also known as the direct antiglobulin test.

19
Q

Briefly explain the principle of the indirect Coomb’s test?

A

It is used prior to blood transfusions. It detects antibodies against RBCs that are present unbound in the patient’s serum.

A blood sample is taken and the patients serum is extracted. It is then incubated with donor RBC’s. If agglutination occurs then the test is positive and it suggests that the patients serum contains antibodies against the donor RBC.

Indirect coombs test is also known as the indirect antiglobulin test.

20
Q

What are the common causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Non immune:

  • Hereditary (G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency hereditary spherocytosis, sickle cell, thalassaemia)
  • Acquired (DIC, CLL Lymphoma , SLE, malaria, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, hypersplenism)

Immune:

  • Cold (haemolysis occurs when patient is too cold)
  • Warm (haemolysis occurs when patient is too warm)
  • Transfusion reactions/haemolytic disease of the newborn
21
Q

Briefly describe the aetiology, signs and symptoms and treatment of hereditary sperocytosis?

A

Hereditary defect in the spectrin protein in RBC making them more spherical.

Increased osmotic fragility and therefore are destroyed more readily by the RES.

Causes anaemia, pre-hepatic jaundice, reticulocytosis, folate deficiency and gallstones (due to excess bilirubin)

Reduced haemolysis post splenectomy.

22
Q

Briefly describe the aetiology, signs and symptoms and treatment of G6PD deficiency?

A

Genetic deficiency of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase. It is the only source of NADPH in rbc’s.

NADPH is an important reducing agent and therefore makes rbc more prone to oxdative stress.

Causes intravascular haemolysis in response to oxidative agents such as: fava beans, Vit K, certain meds (dapsone).

Note: more common in west africans and meditarrean’s potentially protective against malaria

23
Q

Briefly describe the aetiology, investigation results and treatment of warm immune mediated haemolysis?

A

Usually idiopathic but can be secondary to: SLE, CLL, NHL and some drugs e.g methyldopa (old fashioned antihypertensive but still used in pregnancy)

IgG mediated autoimmune response which occurs when the patient gets too warm.

On a blood film shows up as microsperocytes (macrophages remove a segement of the rbc)

May improve with high dose prednisolone or post splenectomy.

24
Q

Briefly describe the aetiology, investigation results and treatment of cold immune mediated haemolysis?

A

Usually idiopathic but may be secondary to NHL or infection mycoplasma, EBV.

IgM mediated autoimmune response when patient is too cold.

On a blood film appears as red cell agglutination.

Treat underlying cause if idiopathic avoid cold weather.

25
Q

What is microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

A

It is anaemia caused by haemolysis of rbc’s caused by factors in small blood vessels.

It is identified by the presence of Schistocytes (red blood cell fragments) on a blood film and anaemia.

26
Q

What are the causes of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • DIC
  • Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome*
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
  • Malignant hypertension
  • Meningococcal septicaemia
  • Eclampsia

Treat underlying cause + blood products.