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Ana > ANA LE 1 > Flashcards

ANA LE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main function of epithelial cells?

A

Lining of surface or body cavities; glandular cavities

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2
Q

4 basic types of tissues

A

Epithelium, muscle, nervous and connective

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3
Q

Functions of epithelium

A

Barrier & Protection
○ E.g. skin, oral mucosa
● Absorption
○ E.g. small intestine absorbs nutrients and water
● Secretion
○ E.g. digestive enzymes (intestinal epithelium), mucus (respiratory
epithelium)
● Lubrication
○ E.g. mesothelium (outermost covering of abdominal organs) secretes
small amount of tissue fluids
● Reproduction
○ E.g. linings of male and female reproductive tracts
● Transport
○ E.g. allows small molecules & ions to pass through the epithelium on either direction

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4
Q

Characteristics of epithelial cells

A

● Avascular
● Exhibits polarity
● Presence of basement membrane or basal lamina
● Presence of junctional complexes or cell junctions

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5
Q

Avascular

A

○ No blood vessels
○ Nutrients and oxygen are acquired via diffusion from its neighboring
blood vessels

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6
Q

What are the 3 poles of epithelial cell?

A

○ Apical pole: opposite a space (usually a lumen)
○ Basal pole: domain in contact with ECM & connective tissue
○ Lateral surface: pole in contact with adjacent cells

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7
Q

Functions of Basement Membrane

A

→ Filter (e.g. renal glomeruli)
→ Provide structural support for epithelial cells
→ Attach epithelium to underlying connective tissue
→Important in maintaining cellular functions (endocytosis, signal
transduction, cell-to-cell interactions, polarity, etc.)
→Epithelial repair and regeneration (e.g. stem cells); acts as the
scaffolding to rebuild on after injury

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8
Q

2 Components of Basal Membrane

A

→ Basal lamina: Electron-dense, closest to the basal portion of the cell
→ Reticular lamina: More diffuse, fibrous

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9
Q

What is the intermediate filament of epithelium?

A

Keratin

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10
Q

Junctional complexes for cell-to-cell adhesions

A

Occluding/Tight Junctions - Zonula Occulens
Anchoring Junctions - Zonula Adherens
Communications / Gap Junctions or Nexus

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11
Q

Cell-to-Cell Extracellular Matric Junctions

A

Hemidemosomes

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12
Q

What is/are the transmembrane proteins involved in Zonula Occulens?

A

Claudin & Occludin

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13
Q

What is/are the transmembrane proteins involved in Zonula Adherins?

A

Cadherin & Cadenin

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14
Q

What is/are the transmembrane proteins involved in Demosomes?

A

Desmoglein & Desmocollin

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15
Q

What is/are the transmembrane proteins involved in Gap Junctions/Nexus?

A

Connexin

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16
Q

What is/are the transmembrane proteins involved in Hemidemosomes?

A

Integrins

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17
Q

What is the purpose of Zonula Occulens and where is it found?

A

(Zonula: encircles the entire cell)
● Found at the most apical portion –> This would ensure that all molecules
enter or exit the cell via transcellular pathway (vs. paracellular pathway)

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18
Q

Transcellular vs Intracellular

A

○ Transcellular: it will go into the cell

○ Paracellular: in between cells

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19
Q

What is the purpose of Zonula Adherins and where is it found?

A

● Like a belt around the cell (it surrounds the cell)
● Immediately below tight junctions
● Anchors cells closely to neighboring cells

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20
Q

What is cellular junction that is calcium requiring and what is the transmembrane that binds with the other cell?

A

Zonula Adherens and Cadherins

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21
Q

What are the 2 Anchoring Junctions?

A

Zonula Adherens and Macula Adherens

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22
Q

What is the purpose of Demosomes and where is it found?

A

○ Does not form a belt around the cell but rather it appears like a
“spot-weld”
○ Provides stability to cells especially those under shearing stress to keep
neighboring cells intact

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23
Q

What is Pemphigus Vulgaris and what is the cellular junction associated with it?

A

Faulty desmosome function is correlated with various blistering skin
conditions

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24
Q

What are the opening in gap junctions called and what are their functions?

A

Connexons
Allows small molecules and nutrients selectively between cells (<1.5
nanometers)

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25
Q

What are the function of Gap junctions and where can they be found?

A

● Allows cells to function as a unit or together
● Organs that need gap junctions:
○ Heart muscles - required to contract as a single unit (many gap junctions)
○ Abdominal/Visceral organs - requires to function rhythmically

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26
Q

What does a hemidemosome resemble?

A

Demosome

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27
Q

What are the function of Integrins?

A

→ Forms crosslinks

→ Reacts with laminin molecules (located at the basal lamina)

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28
Q

What is Epidermolysis Bullosa and what is the cellular junction associated with it?

A

Faulty hemidesmosomes -> blistering condition (Epidermolysis Bullosa)
→Rare condition which causes to have a blister even with minimal friction

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29
Q

What are the types of cell-to-cell extracellular matrix junctions and where are they located?

A

Hemidemosomes and focal adhesion

Located in the basal membrane

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30
Q

What is the purpose of focal adhesions and where is it found?

A

○ Resembles hemidesmosomes
○ More numerous and smaller
○ Anchors cells at its basal portion

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of cilia?

A 
○ Long (longer and larger than microvilli)
○ Highly motile
○ Axoneme is the core protein structure
○ Uniform in height
○ Attached to apical part of the cell
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32
Q

What is the core protein structure of Cilia?

A

Axoneme

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33
Q

Does Cilia have a specific arrangement? What is it’s arrangement when a cross section is done in the middle and on the basal area?

A

● Arranged in a specific arrangement
If cross section is done through the middle portion:
○ Doublet: 2 microtubules
○ 9 + 2 assembly of microtubules:
→Centrally= PairedMicrotubules(2)
→ Peripherally = (9) Microtubule Doublets
➢ Called an Axoneme
● If cross section is done through the basal portion:
○ Structurally similar to centrioles
○ 9 + 0 assembly of microtubules
○ (9) microtubule triplets without axoneme
○ 0Triplets are linked together in a pin-wheel arrangement with NO central microtubule

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34
Q

What is the function of Cilia and where can it be found?

A

● Function: “To propel”
○ RespiratoryTract:
→ Sweep or move fluid, cells, particulate matter across cell surfaces
→ Rid air passages of particulate matter or mucus
○ Oviduct:
→ Moves egg cells and sperm cells along the passageway
○ Testes:
→ Move mature sperm into the epididymis

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35
Q

What are the type of cilia that are abundant in columnar and cuboidal cells in epithelia?

A

Motile Cilia

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36
Q

What are the types of Cilia?

A

Three types of cilia:
○ Motile cilia: Lines adult human body (e.g respiratory system)
○ Non-motile/primary: No 2 central doublets; lines sensory organs (e.g
Organ of Corti: Inner ear)
○ Nodal cilia: Found in developing embryo (surrounding the primitive node)
that helps in the proper orientation of developing cells during gastrulation

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37
Q

What are the characteristics of microvilli?

A 
Characteristics:
○ Microscopic finger-like projections
○ Uniform in length
○ Shorter and smaller than cilia
○ Non motile
○ Core of thin actin microfilaments
→ The vertical actin microfilaments attached to actin microfilaments at the cytoplasm called “Terminal Webs”
○ Dirty looking appearance “Striated” (e.g Proximal Convolut
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38
Q

What is the intermediate filament of microvilli?

A

keratin

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39
Q

What is the vertical actin microfilaments attached to actin microfilaments at the cytoplasm called?

A

“Terminal Webs”

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40
Q

What is the function of microvilli and where can it be found?

A

Functions: Absorption; Increase surface area of the cell
○ Intestinal Lining
→ Increase surface area for absorption
→ Densely packed so they are visible as brush/striated border
○ Proximal convoluted tubule
→ Reabsorption of substances such as glucose and amino acids

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41
Q

What is another name for microvilli?

A

Striated border: Rigid similar in thickness, height, and width (seen in
intestines)
○ Brush border: Different height, width, and thickness (seen in PCT of
kidney)

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42
Q

What are the characteristics of stereocillia?

A

● Characteristics:
○ Non motile
○ Related to microvilli (both non motile), not cilia (motile) ○ Longer and more slender than microvilli
○ Distal portion is usually branched

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43
Q

What is the function and location of stereocillia?

A

● Function:
○ Concentrates contents of an organ of lumen
○ Facilitates absorption; increases surface area of cells ○ Inner ear sensory cells
● Location:
○ Epididymis: For absorbing fluid
○ Inner ear: Function as mechanoreceptors

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44
Q

What are the characteristics of flagella?

A

Characteristics:
○ Whip-like motile structures
○ Made up of microtubules; related to the sperm cells ○ Function: Motility

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45
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of simple squamous epithelium?

A

● Thin, single layer of flattened cells
○ Nucleus is also flattened
○ “Squama” = Latin word which means Scale; which resemble a fish scale
(flat) ● Function:
○ Peritoneal Cavity: Reduces friction between visceral organs by producing lubricating fluid & transport fluids
○ Cardiovascular system: Allows passive transport of fluids, nutrients, and metabolites across the thin capillary walls
○ Alveolar lining of lungs: Facilitates diffusion of gasses and small molecules; more efficient gas exchange
○ Cornea: Lining of the inner surface
○ Loop of Henle: Outer covering (thin loops) ● Typically specialized:
○ Lining of vessels and cavities where they regulate passage of substances into the underlying tissues
○ Can be called specific names depending on location:
→Mesothelium: Serous lining of of pericardium (heart), and peritoneal
cavities
→ Endothelium: Lining of blood vessels, capillaries and lymphatics → Function: Diffusion

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46
Q

Mesothelium

A

Mesothelium: Serous lining of of pericardium (heart), and peritoneal
cavities

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47
Q

Endothelium

A

→ Endothelium: Lining of blood vessels, capillaries and lymphatics

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48
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

● One layer of cells that are as long as they are wide (cube/round)
● Greater thickness allows cytoplasm to be rich in mitochondria and other
organelles for a high level of transport across the epithelium
● Function:
○ Ovary: Lining and protection
○ Pancreatic Ducts: Transport
○ Proximal Convoluted Tubule: Absorption of filtered substances ○ Thyroid: Activate secretion of substances into the filtrate
○ They usually form ducts
● Locations:
○ Renal connecting tubules
○ Periphery of the thyroid follicle
○ Germinal epithelium (covering of ovary)

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49
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of simple columnar epithelium?

A

● One layer of cells that are taller than they are wide
● They usually have apical surface modifications: Cilia or Microvilli
● Columnar cells are specialized in absorption
● Seen in lining in stomach (no goblet cells), intestine (with goblet cells) and
gallbladder (digestive organs), renal collecting duct, oviducts (fallopian
tubes) and ductuli efferentes testis
● Can often be termed as “terminal bars”
● Functions:
○ Absorption ○ Protection ○ Lubrication ○ Secretion

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50
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of pseudostratisfied columnar epithelium?

A

● One layer of tall cells
● All the tall columnar cells rest on the basement membrane, but not all cells
are of the same height; creates illusion of stratification
● Stratified appearance is due to the nuclei of the cells placed in different
levels and not all cells extend to the free surface
● Functions:
○ Secretion
○ Protection
○ Cilia-mediated transport
● Locations:
○ Lining of the upper respiratory tract (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles) ○ Lumina of the epididymis and vas deferens

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51
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS NONKERATINIZED EPITHELIUM?

A

● Non-keratinized or Wet type
● Function: Protection
● Location: Areas subjected to constant friction
○ Esophagus ○ Oral Mucosa ○ Vagina
○ Cervix
○ Anal Canal ○ Cornea
● Multiple layers of cells, cuboidal at the base, polyhedral at the middle or columnar, and flattened cells at the top with no keratinization

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52
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS KERATINIZED EPITHELIUM?

A

● DryType
● Thick skin (Palms and soles)
○ Stratum corneum is very thick ○ Topmost layer is flattened
○ More keratinized layers, dense
● Thin skin
○ With hair follicles
○ Stratum corneum is thinner
○ Lesser keratinization/Fewer cell layers
● Lack of nuclei in the topmost layer (Thin lamellae, dead skin cells)
● Function: Protection and prevention of water loss
● As the cells mature from the basal area, they go up the surface, lose their
organelles, and become keratinized

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53
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of STRATIFIED CUBOIDAL EPITHELIUM?

A 
● ●
●
Not common
Multiple layers of cells that are tall as they are wide
Functions: ○ Protection
○ To produce secretions Location:
○ Ducts of sweat glands
○ Developing ovarian follicles ○ Large excretory ducts
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54
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of STRATIFIED COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM?

A

● Quite rare ● Location:
○ Conjunctiva
○ Largest Ducts of Exocrine Glands ○ Anorectal Junction

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55
Q

What are the characteristics , function, and location of TRANSITIONAL EPITHELIUM?

A 
● Found only in mammals
● Location: Urinary Passages
○ Bladder
○ Ureters
○ Renal Calyces
● If relaxed,
○ Have features that are intermediate between stratified cuboidal and
stratified squamous
○ Topmost layer: Dome-shaped
● If stretched,
○ Topmost layer will be flattened
● Has plaques
○ Serve as an osmotic barrier (Not uniform throughout) ○ Prohibit passage of water and salts
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56
Q

What are the types of glands based on path of release?

A

Endocrine, Paracrine and Exocrine glands

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57
Q

Where do Endocrine glands originate and what are their products of secretion?

A

○ Originates from epithelial cells that lost connection to surface
epithelium and ducts
○ Products of secretion → target organ via the bloodstream
○ Example: Pituitary Gland, Thyroid Gland, Pancreas

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58
Q

Where do Paracrine glands originate and what are their products of secretion?

A

○ Products → target surrounding cells
○ Example: Cells of the pancreas when it release somatostatin that target
other pancreatic cells; growth hormone producing cells during early development

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59
Q

Where do Exocrine glands originate and what are their products of secretion?

A

○ Originates from the epithelial cells that maintained connection to
surface epithelium
○ Products → target organ via the ducts
○ Example: Sweat Gland, Salivary Gland, Pancreas

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60
Q

Unicellular vs multicellular glands. Which one is the most common one?

A

● Unicellular Glands
○ Glands composed of a single cell (e.g. Goblet cells in large intestine)
○ Flask-shaped and nucleus is found in the narrow basal part of the cell;
apical part has mucin filled vesicles

Multicellular glands
○ The most common type of gland; composed of multiple cells

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61
Q

Serous vs mucous glands

A

● Serous Glands
○ Secretory portion are composed of serous cells
○ Serous cells form spherical mass of cells with a lumen in the center
called acini that produces serous fluid
○ Secretions are thin and aqueous and contain enzymes
○ Description: pyramidal with a broad base, rounded nucleus, granular and
basophilic cytoplasm due to apical portion containing secretory vesicles and basal portion containing rough endoplasmic reticulum

● Mucous Glands
○ Secretory portion are composed of mucous cells
○ Mucous cells form tubules that produces mucin or mucous
○ Secretions are viscous and made up of mucin and water
○ Description: cuboidal or columnar, its nuclei is flattened towards the
base, sometimes nuclei appear elongated due to mucous accumulation
pressing it towards the base
○ Is lightly stained due to mucous getting dissolved in alcohol

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62
Q

What surrounds the serous and mucous cells - and initial portions of the ducts, and helps propel the secretion to the exterior via the intercalated duct?

A

Myoepithelial cells

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63
Q

What is the initial duct, what is it made of and where are the secretions of this brought to?

A

Intercalated duct which is made of simple cuboidal epithelium and its secretion is brought to the striated ducts

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64
Q

The large presence of striations at the basal layer of the cell brought about the infoldings of the plasma membrane, together with the elongated mitochondria, interspersed between the infolded membrane

A

Striated Duct

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65
Q

Serous and mucous secretions brought to the exterior via the ___ will be then led to the ___. from there, the products of the gland are now brought to the ___, then to the ___ (ducts in between the lobes).

A

Intercalated duct, striated duct, intralobular duct, interlobular duct

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66
Q

Types of glands and their difference

A

Simple Glands (do not branch; 1 duct + secretory portion/s) and Compound Glands (several branched secretory portions)

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67
Q

What are simple tubular glands?

A

elongated secretory portion; ducts are short/absent

mucus glands (colon and intestinal glands)

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68
Q

What are branched tubular ducts?

A

several long secretory portions

glands in the uterus and stomach

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69
Q

What are simple coiled tubular glandsWhat are simple coiled tubular glands

A

long coiled secretory potions

sweat glands

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70
Q

What are simple acinar (alveolar) glands?

A

rounded, sac-like secretory portions

small mucous glands (urethra)

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71
Q

What are simple branched acinar glands

A

multiple sac-like secretory portions

sebbaceous glands

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72
Q

What are compound tubular glands?

A

several elongated, coiled secretory portions - ducts converging into a larger duct

submucosal brunner glands (duodenum)

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73
Q

What are compound acinar glands?

A

Several sac-like secretory portions - small ducts converging into a larger duct

exocrine pancreas

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74
Q

What are compound tubulacinar glands?

A

a combination of tubular and acinar secretory portions converging into a larger duct

salivary glands

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75
Q

What are the types of glands based on the mechanism of product release?

A

Merocrine (Eccrine) gland, Holocrine gland, and Apocrine gland

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76
Q

Merocrine (Eccrine) vs Holocrine vs Apocrine gland. Which is the most common one?

A

● Merocrine (Eccrine) gland
○ The most common type of glands (based on gland-cell participation)
○ Secretions are released or brought to the duct via exocytosis (through
the secretory vesicles)
○ E.g., salivary glands

Holocrine gland
○ Undergoes apoptosis (i.e. cell death)
○ Secretory portions become part of the secretion (sacrificed and formed
part of the secretion)
○ E.g., sebaceous glands

Apocrine gland
○ Part of the apical surface of the cell is pinched or released with the
secretion of the gland
○ E.g., Mammary gland

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77
Q

Cells renew continuously via

A

Mitosis and stem cell populations

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78
Q

Rate of renewal of small intestine and epidermis

A

4 days intestine

28 days epidermis

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of
    epithelia?
    a) Shape of cells in the basal layer
    b) Number of cell layers
    c) Presence of a basal lamina
    d) Size of the nuclei
    e) Nature of the cell junctions that are present
A

B

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80
Q
  1. Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland? a) Serous gland
    b) Mixed gland
    c) Mucous gland
    d) Tubuloacinar gland e) Simple gland
A

D

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81
Q
  1. Which of the following is found during meiosis but not mitosis?
    a) Chromatids
    b) Polar microtubules
    c) Metaphase
    d) Synapsis
    e) Cytokinesis
A

D

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82
Q
  1. A mixed salivary gland is classified morphologically as a compound tubuloacinar gland.
    a) True
    b) False
A

A

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83
Q
  1. Cilia are long, motile, structures with a core of 9 microtubule triplets arranged around a pair of microtubules.
    a) True
    b) False
A

B

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84
Q

Refer to the glands and epithelium lecture trans for the pictures

A

6) Cilia - blue arrow; Basement membrane - yellow arrow. Note: not Basal lamina since one can only see it using an electron microscope
7) Both are simple squamous epithelium (blue and black arrow)
8) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells
9) Transitional epithelium (relaxed; but no need to mention)
10) Stratified squamous epithelium non keratinizing/wet type
11) Stratified squamous epithelium keratinized/dry type (Thin skin)
12) Simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli/brush border/striated border

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85
Q

What is the function of peroxisome?

A

Detoxify specific harmful substances either produced by the cell or taken into the cell, engage in beta oxidation of fatty acid from Acetyl CoA

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86
Q

Basic structural and functional unit of the human body

A

Cell

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87
Q

Study of cells

A

Cytology

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88
Q

Study of tissues

A

Histology

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89
Q

Study of Organs

A

Organology

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90
Q

What parts of the cell can be seen via Light Microscope?

A

Cytoplasm, Nucleus and Nucleolus

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91
Q

What parts of the cell can be seen via Electron Microscope?

A

Cell membrane, Centriole, Chromatin, golgi apparatus, mitochondria, nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope, nuclear pore, endoplasmic reticulum

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92
Q

What should be observed when examining a cell?

A

Shape and size of cell. shape and size of nucleus, if nucleolus is present

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93
Q
  1. Which of the following is an intermediate filament protein found in cytoplasm of most filament cells?
    a. Actin
    b. Vimentin
    c. Myosin
    d. Laminin
    e. Keratin
A

E

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94
Q
  1. Which of the following types of epithelium withstands the hypertonic effect of fluids?
    a. Simple Cuboidal
    b. Simple Squamous
    c. Stratified Columnar
    d. Transitional
A

D

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95
Q
  1. Functions of the basement membrane include which of the following?
    a. Contractility
    b. Molecular filtering
    c. Active ion transport
    d. Excitability
    e. Modification of secreted proteins
A

B

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96
Q
  1. Functions of the basement membrane include which of the following?
    a. Contractility
    b. Molecular filtering
    c. Active ion transport
    d. Excitability
    e. Modification of secreted proteins
A

B

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97
Q
  1. The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion?
    a. Merocrine
    b. Serous
    c. Apocrine
    d. Mucous
    e. Holocrine
A

C

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98
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE? The basal lamina is a thin sheet of macromolecules that can be appreciated using light microscopy.
A

False

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99
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE? The zonula adherens are disc-shaped cell junctions that provide stability to cells subject to shearing and stresses.
A

False

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100
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE? Microvilli are long, motile, structures with a core of uniformly arranged microtubules.
A

False

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101
Q

Supine

A

Recumbent, lying on the back facing upwards

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102
Q

Prone

A

Lying on the abdomen, facing downwards

103
Q

How would you describe the common anatomical position visual reference?

A

Standing upright, head, gaze and toes facing anteriorly
Lower limbs close together with feet parallel to one another (Spread as wide as the shoulder)
Upper limbs are held out to the sides

104
Q

Saggital plane

A

Divides the body longitudinally into left and right sides

105
Q

Median Saggital Plane

A

going through the midline of the body dividing left and right sides equally

106
Q

Frontal (Coronal) Plane

A

divides the body vertically into anterior (front) and posterior (back)

107
Q

Transverse (horizontal or axial) plane

A

divides body into superior (upper) and Inferior (lower) parts

108
Q

Longitudinal sections

A

Lengthwise cuts along the long axis of the body

109
Q

Transverse/cross section

A

cuts that form right angles to the longitudinal axis of the body

110
Q

Oblique Sections

A

Do not follow the longitudinal or transverse planes

111
Q

Anterior (Ventral) and Posterior (Dorsal)

A

Nearer the front

Nearer the back

112
Q

Superior (cranial) and Inferior (caudal)

A

Upward nearer the head

Downward nearer the foot

113
Q

Medial and Lateral

A

Toward the midline/median plane

farther from the midline/median plane

114
Q

Superficial, Intermediate and Deep

A

Closer or towards the surface
Between a superficial and deep structure
Farther from the surface

115
Q

Internal and External

A

Inside closer to the center of an organ or cavity

Outside farther to the center of an organ or cavity

116
Q

Unilateral and Bilateral

A

One side of the body

Both sides of the body

117
Q

Ipsilateral and Contralateral

A

Same side and opposite sides of the body

118
Q

Palmar and Dorsum

A

anterior (Palm) and posterior of hand

119
Q

Lateral/Radial and Medial/Ulnar

A

Where the thumb is and also the radius

Where the pinky is and also Ulna

120
Q

Dorsum and Plantar

A

Superior and Inferior aspect of foot

121
Q

Lateral/ Fibular and Medial/ Tibial

A

Small toe side where fibula is

Big toe side where tibia is

122
Q

Flexion-Extension

A

Flexion - bending or decreasing the angle between bones or body parts

123
Q

Abduction-Adduction & Circumduction

A

Abduction - moving away from median line
Adduction moving towards median line
Circumduction - circular motion that involves sequential flexion, abduction, extension and adduction

124
Q

Internal/Medial Rotation and External /Lateral Rotation

A

Internal/medial rotation - bring the anterior part of the limb closer to the median plane
External/Lateral Rotation - Bring the anterior part of the limb away from medial plane

125
Q

Eversion and Inversion

A

Happens at ankle joint
Eversion- rotation of a dorsiflexed foot lateral; sole moves away from median plane
Inversion - Rotation of a plantarflexed foot medially plane

126
Q

Opposition- Reposition

A

Opposition - Pad of the thumb is brought to the pad of other fingers
Reposition - Returning the thumb to its original anatomical position after opposition

127
Q

Protrusion and Retrusion

A

e.g. jaw
Protrusion - moving anteriorly
Retrusion - moving posteriorly

128
Q

Protraction and Retraction

A

e.g. eating ice cream with tongue
Protraction - anterolateral movement (e.g. reaching out)
Retraction - Postereomedial movement (Picking something up)

129
Q

Elevation and Depression

A

Elevation - raises a body part superiorly

Depression - Lowers a body part inferiorly

130
Q

What are parts of the axial skeleton (Central Supporting Axis)?

A

80 bones
Skull (Cranial bones and facial bones), Associated bones (Auditory Ossicles and hyoid bone), Vertebral Column (Cervical Vertebrae, Thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum and Coccyx), Thoracic cage (Sternum and Ribs)

131
Q

What are parts of the Appendicular Skeleton (bones of extremities)?

A

Pectoral Girdles, pelvic girdles, upper extremity/upper limb, lower extremities/lower limb

132
Q

Bone that is taller than wide (give example)

A

Long (humerus, Femur and phalanges)

133
Q

As tall as they are wide “cube shaped”. (give example)

A

Short (Tarsus and Carpus)

134
Q

Bone that usually serves a protective function; for muscle attachment (give example)

A

Flat (sternum, ribs, bones of the skull)

135
Q

Various shaped; protect organs or attach tendons (give example)

A

Irregular (Segments of the Vertebral Column)

136
Q

Grows with a tendon, where they rub over bony surfaces

A

Sesamoid (Pisiform and Patella (knee cap))

137
Q

Small round articular head

A

Capitulum

138
Q

Smooth, rounded knuckle-like articular area, often occurring in pairs

A

Condyle

139
Q

Smooth flat area usually covered with cartilage, where a bone articulates with another bone

A

Facet

140
Q

Large round articular head

A

Head

141
Q

Narrow connection between the Epiphysis and Diaphysis

A

Neck

142
Q

Spool-like articular process (Process that acts like a pulley)

A

Trochlea

143
Q

Tubular passage or tunnel in a bone (Opening or depression)

A

Canal (Opening)

144
Q

Slit though a bone (Opening or depression)

A

Fissure (opening)

145
Q

Passage through a bone (Opening or depression)

A

Foramen (Openings)

146
Q

Opening into a canal (Opening or depression)

A

Meatus Depression

147
Q

Air-filled space in a bone (Opening or Depression)

A

Sinus (depression)

148
Q

Hollow or depression area (Opening or depression)

A

Fossa (Depression)

149
Q

Elongated depression or furrow (Opening or depression)

A

Groove (Depression)

150
Q

Narrow groove (Opening or depression)

A

Suculus (Depression)

151
Q

Narrow groove

A

Suculus (Depression)

152
Q

Narrow ridge or bone

A

Crest

153
Q

Eminence superior or adjacent to a condyle

A

Epicondyle

154
Q

Linear elevation; slightly elongated elevation or ridge

A

Line

155
Q

Rounded process indentation at the edge of a bone process an extension/projection serving a particular purpose

A

Notch

156
Q

Rounded process

A

Malleolus

157
Q

Any bone eminence

A

Process

158
Q

Part of a bone that forms an angle with the rest of the structure

A

Ramus

159
Q

Slender, pointed, thorn-like process

A

Spine

160
Q

Projecting spine-like part

A

Spinous Process

161
Q

Large blunt elevation for muscle attachment

A

Trochanter

162
Q

Small, raised eminence for muscle attachment

A

Tubercle

163
Q

Large, rounded elevation

A

Tuberosity

164
Q

Unions or junctions between 2 or more bones or rigid parts of the skeleton

A

Articulations

165
Q

What are the classification of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartiliginous and synovial joints

166
Q

What are the types of fibrous joints?

A

Sutures, syndesmosis and gomphoses

167
Q

Suture lines of the skull, short fibers of connective tissues

A

Sutures

168
Q

Unites bones with a sheet of fibrous tissue; the movement varies with the length iod the fiber

A

Syndesmosis

169
Q

“Peg in socket” joints which occur in between teeth and their sockets

A

Gomphoses

170
Q

What is the fibrous connection present with the teeth and their sicket?

A

Peridontal Ligament

171
Q

What are the types of cartilaginous joints?

A

Primary/synchondrosis/hyaline and Secondary/Symphysis/Fibrocarilage joints

172
Q

Temporary connections that is converted into bone after development

A

Primary/synchondrosis/hyaline joint

173
Q

Disc shaped connections

A

Secondary/Symphysis/Fibrocartillage

174
Q

What are the types of synovial joints?

A

Plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid (Ellipsodal), saddle, and ball and socket

175
Q

“Gliding joints” for sliding and gliding movements

A

Plane Joint

176
Q

Flex and extend only (Uniaxial)

A

Hinge Joint

177
Q

Allows rotational movement; uniaxial

A

Pivot joints

178
Q

Flex and extend, abduct and adduct; biaxial

A

Condyloid (Ellipsodial) Joint

179
Q

Flex and extend, abduct and adduct, circumduction; biaxial

A

Same with Condyloid but with greater range of motion

Saddle

180
Q

Rotate, circumduction, flex, extend, abduct, adduct multiaxial (Greatest range of motion)

A

Ball and Socket

181
Q

Muscle that surround a body opening/orifice; constricted

A

Circular muscle

182
Q

Wide based other end of the muscle converges to a singular tendon

A

Triangular/convergent muscle

183
Q

Muscle with parallel fibers often with an aponeurosis

A

Flat/Parallel muscle

184
Q

Spindle shaped muscle with wide belly and presence of tendons on both ends

A

Fusiform muscles

most limb muscles are this shape

185
Q

more than one head of attachment or more than one contractile belly

A

Multiheaded/multibellied

186
Q

Feather-like in the arrangement of their fascicles

A

Pennate

187
Q

Four equal sides of the muscle

A

Quadrate

188
Q

Maintained muscle contraction without relaxation

A

Tonic muscle contraction

189
Q

Brief periods of contraction in response to a stimulus

A

Phasic Muscle Contractions

e.g. Stomach

190
Q

An involuntary skeletal muscle contraction in response to a stimulus

A

Muscle Reflex

191
Q

Muscle attachment proximal to the end of the muscle which remains fixed during contraction

A

Origin

192
Q

Usually the distal end of the muscle; movable

A

Insertion

193
Q

Attaches the muscle to the bone; mainly an organized bundle of collagen

A

Tendon

194
Q

Flat sheets that anchor the muscle to the skeleton and/or deep fascia , or to the same part of another muscle

A

Apneurosis

195
Q

What are the functions of muscles?

A

Prime mover (Agonist), Fixator, synergist (compplements), atagonist

196
Q

How do we name muscles?

A

Direction of mucle fibers, relative size, location, number of origins, location of origin and insertion, shape, andaction of muscle

197
Q

In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face?

a. Anteriorly
b. Posteriorly
c. Laterally

A

A

198
Q

The axial skeleton ___

a. Includes all bones of the trunk and limbs
b. Forms the vertical axis of the body
c. Consist of 126 bones
d. Includes only the bones of the lower limbs

A

B

199
Q

A circular movement that involves sequential flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction?

a. Circumflexion
b. Circumduction
c. Circumvolution

A

B

200
Q

This type of joint connect bones with collagen fibers

a. Hyaline
b. Cartilaginous
c. Fibrous
d. Fibrocartilage

A

B

201
Q

Only part of the appendicular skeleton that attaches as a joint to the axial skeleton

A

Sternoclavicular joint

202
Q

What type of bone marking is a prominent rounded large area found at the humerus?

a. Head
b. Epicondyle
c. Trochanter

A

C

203
Q

Only part of the appendicular skeleton that attaches as a joint to the axial skeleton

A

Sternoclavicular joint

204
Q

This joint is a saddle type but functions as a ball-socket joint

A

Sternoclavicular joint

205
Q

Clavicle + Scapula

A

Pectoral Girdle

206
Q

connects the sternum and medial head of clavicle

A

Sternoclavicular joint

207
Q

Cancellous bones (porous)

A

Short bones

208
Q

What are the parts of the shoulder?

A

Clavicle and scapula

209
Q

A long bone that connects the upper limb to the trunk

A

Clavicle

210
Q

Flat triangular bone that lies on the posterolateral aspect of the thorax; overlies 2nd and 7th ribs

A

Scapula

211
Q

Connects shoulder and elbow

A

Humerus

212
Q

Humerus articulates with

A

scapula and glenohumeral joint

213
Q

What passes through the ulnar tunnel/tunnel of guyon

A

Ulnar nerve and arteries

214
Q

What are the parts of the carpals?

A

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Cant Handle

Scaphoid, Lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

215
Q

What distinguishes the 3rd metacarpal?

A

a lateral styloid

216
Q

What are the parts of the phalanges?

A

Proximal, middles and distal phalanx

217
Q

fibrous, gliding joint but functions as a ball and socket joint. It is the bone to bone attachment between the upper limbs and the axial skeleton

A

Sternoclavicular joint

218
Q

The joint between the shoulder and humerus

A

Glenohumeral joint

219
Q

What is the part od the glenohumeral joint that gets easily dislocated?

A

Inferior part of the capsule

220
Q

between acromion if he scapula and clavicle; plane joint

A

acromioclavicular joint

221
Q

Hinge joint of the arm and forearm

A

Humeroradial and humeroulnar joints

222
Q

Pivot joint in between ulna and radius which allows for supination and pronation

A

Proximal radioulnar joint

223
Q

What kind of joint are these joints: Distal radioulnar joint, radiocarpal joint, and midcarpal joint

A

Pivot joint, condyloid joint and saddle joint

224
Q

What kind of joint are these joints: carpometacarpal joint, intercarpal joint, intermetacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joints, and interphalangeal joints

A

saddle joint, plane joint, plane joint, condyloid joint and hinge joint

225
Q

What are the functions of the fascia?

A

wrapping, packing and insulating materials of deeper structures, protect tissues underneath, inhibit spread of disease

226
Q

What composes of the superficial fascia?

A

connective tissues and adipose tissues

227
Q

What are the layers of superficial fascia?

A

Camper’s fascia - fatty layer

Scarpa’s fascia - membranous fascia

228
Q

What is the membrane found in between the radius and ulna?

A

Interosseous membrane

229
Q

What is the shape of the pectorialis major and what is it’s action?

A

Triangle, adducts and medially rotates the humerus

draws the scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

It’s clavicular head flexes the humerus and it’s sternocostal head extends humerus from flexed position

230
Q

What is the shape of the pectorialis minor and what is it’s action?

A

triangle/convergent, it stabilizes the scapula by drawing it inferiorly and anteriorly against the thoracic wall

231
Q

What is the shape of the subclavious and what is it’s action?

A

round (?), anchors and depresses clavicle

232
Q

What is the shape of the serratus anterior and what is it’s action?

A

multipennate, protracts scapula and holds against the thoracic wall; rotates scapula

**It is also called the boxers muscle and it is the only muscle that attaches to the middle portion of the scapula

233
Q

What happend if the long thoracic nerve gets damaged?

A

The serratus anterior will fail to stabilize scapula

234
Q

What is the shape of the trapezius and what is it’s action?

A

Triangle, stabilizes the scapula in junction to the serratus anterior

Descending fibers elevates scapula,
ascending fibers depressed scapula
middle fibers retract the scapula

235
Q

What is the shape of the latissimus dorsi and what is it’s action?

A

convergent muscle, the extends and adducts and medially rotates humerus

It also raises body towards arms during climbing

236
Q

What is the shape of the levator scapulae and what is it’s action?

A

?, elevated scapula and tilts the glenoid cavity inferiorly by rotating scapula

237
Q

What is the shape of the rhomboid and what is it’s action?

A

Flat, retract scapula and rotate it to depress glenoid cavity

Fixes scapula to the thoracic wall

238
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

A

SITS

Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, and Supraspinatus

239
Q

What is the shape of the Deltoid, what are its parts and what are the actions associuated with them?

A

Unipennate,

Clavicular: flexes and medially flexes arm

Acromial: abducts arm

Spinal: extends and laterally rotates arm

240
Q

What is the shape of the Teres major and what is it’s action?

A

?, Adducts and medially rotates arm

241
Q

All muscles in the rotator cuff are rotators of the humerus except?

A

Supraspinatus

242
Q

What is the shape of the supraspinatus and what is it’s action?

A

initiates and assists deltoid in abduction of arm

243
Q

What is the shape of the Infraspinatus and what is it’s action?

A

powerful lateral rotator of the arm

244
Q

What is the shape of the Teres Minor and what is it’s action?

A

Laterally rotates arm

245
Q

What is the shape of the subcapularis and what is it’s action?

A

thick triangular muscle, medial rotator of the humerus

246
Q

What vein is found in the deltopectoral grove?

A

Cephalic vein

247
Q

What covers the pectoralis minor and the subclavious muscle?

A

Clavipectoral fascia

248
Q

What important structures does the clavipectoral fascia give way to?

A

Cephalic vein, thoracoacromial artery and lateral pectoral nerve

249
Q

What spacie is found inferior to the glenohumeral joint and superior to the axillary fascia?

A

Pyramidal space

250
Q

What fills the pyramidal space and what are its functions?

A

loose connective tissues and adipose tissue

devoid of any structures so it allows blood flow to and from distal part

It adds cushion to important structures

251
Q

What are the 3 subfascial spaces?

A

Quadrangular, Upper triangle and lower triangle spaces

252
Q

What is anterior, inferior, lateral, and medial to the quadrangualr space and what are its contents?

A

Superior: Teres minor
Inferior: Teres Major
Lateral: Humerus
Medial: Long head of the triceps brachii

Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery

253
Q

What is anterior, inferior, and lateral to the upper triangular space and what are its contents?

A

Superior: Teres minor
Inferior: Teres Major
Lateral: Long head of brachii

circumflex scapular artery

254
Q

What is anterior, inferior, and lateral to the lower triangular space and what are its contents?

A

Superior: Teres major
Inferior: Teres Major
Lateral: Long head of the triceps brachii
Medial: Shaft of Humerus

Radial nerve, Profunda brachii/deep brachial artery

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