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AMT Micro > AMT MICRO > Flashcards

AMT MICRO Flashcards

1
Q

TSA w/sheep blood, diff w/hemolysis, most nonfastidious bacteria

A

SBA Sheep blood agar

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2
Q

Isolation of Haemophilus and Neisseria, factors X &V, incubated at increased CO2

But best for…
Neisseria gonnerhea better on…

A

CHOC, chocolate agar

Better for Haemophilus

Best for gonnerhea and meningitis is modified thayer martin

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3
Q

CHOC supplies which factors and is incubated with increased what?

A

X, V, increased CO2

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4
Q

colistin-nalidixic acid agar, CNA

isolates…
suppresses…

A

isolates GP
suppresses GN

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5
Q

PEA

isolates for … and …
inhibits

A

isolates GPC and anaerobic GNR

inhibits enteric GNR

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6
Q

PEA

A

Phenyl ethyl alcohol agar

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7
Q

CNA

A

colistin-nalidixic acid agar

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8
Q

EMB

A

eosin methylene blue

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9
Q

EMB,
isolates…
inhibits….

LF are … To …

E.coli what kind of color…

A

isolates enteric GNR
inhibits GP

LF are green-black to purple

E.coli have a green metallic sheen

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10
Q

MAC

isolates…
inhibits…

LF color…

A

isolates enteric GNR
inhibits GP

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11
Q

bile salts and crystal violet that inhibit most GP are in what medium

A

MAC

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12
Q

SMAC
sorbitol MacConkey isolates…

…doesn’t ferment sorbitol and are colorless

A

E.coli 0157:H7

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13
Q

4 medias for isolation of salmonella and shigella

A

SS, HE, XLD, GN

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14
Q

Hektoen enteric (HE)

isolates these two
inhibits

A

Salmonella and shigella

inhibits normal GI flora

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15
Q

XLD

A

xylose lysine deoxycholate

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16
Q

Cold loving, optimum temp 15C

A

psychrophiles

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17
Q

moderate temp, 37C most pathogenic organisms

A

mesophiles

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18
Q

heat loving, 50-60C

A

thermophiles

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19
Q

obligate anaerobes are harmed by

A

O2

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20
Q

Facultative anaerobes can grow…

A

with or w/out O2

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21
Q

microaerophiles prefer

A

lower O2

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22
Q

capnophiles prefer

A

higher CO2

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23
Q

Aerotolerant

A

do not need O2, and not hurt by it

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24
Q

Typical incubation CO2%

temp/name of ideal temp

humidity

A

5-10% CO2
35-37C/98.6F/optiumum
50-70% humidity

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25
Q

Autoclave lbs, mins, temp

A

15lbs, 15min, 121C

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26
Q

QC for wet sterilization/autoclave

A

Bacillus
stearothermophilus

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27
Q

Two halogens that are disinfectants

A

idoine and chlorine

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28
Q

Process that inactivates or inhibits microbes (not spores)

and example

A

disinfection

Bleach (1:10)

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29
Q

Process that kills all microbes including spores
and examples

A

sterilization
autoclaves

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30
Q

Penicillin

A

beta lactam

inhibits cell wells

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31
Q

Gram neg anaerobe resistant to peniciilin

A

B.fragilis

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32
Q

Two antibiotics best indicators for poor disk storage

A

penicilin and methicillin

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33
Q

Vancomycin is drug of choice for these two microbes

A

C.difficile and MRSA

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34
Q

Vancomycin is a

A

glycopoeptide

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35
Q

Kirby-Bauer Method uses what agar

A

MH
Mueller-Hinton

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36
Q

McFarland is what concentration and how many organisms

A

0.5
10*8

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37
Q

MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

lowest concentration that prevents growth

first dilution w/no growth

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38
Q

MBC

A

minimum bacteristatic concentration

lowest concentration results in >99.9% killing

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39
Q

E-test

A

MIC on a stick

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40
Q

Modified Thayer-Martin good for these two

A

N.gonorrhea and N.meningitis

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41
Q

Thayer Martin media is what kind of agar

A

enriched chocolate

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42
Q

Difference between TM and Modified and what does modified inhibit

A

MTM has trimethroprim lactate which inhibits swarming of Proteus

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43
Q

Middlebrook 7H10 and Lowenstein-Jenson good for

Which one best for observing microscopically

A

Mycobacterium

Middlebrook 7H11

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44
Q

Species for QC of dry heat oven

A

B.subtilis

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45
Q

BBE

good for

A

B.fragilis

Bacteroides Bile Esculin

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46
Q

CCFA
Cycloserine-Cefoxitin
for

A

C.difficile

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47
Q

Regan-Lowe and
Bordet-Gengou
for…
which one preferred…

A

B.pertussis

Regan-Lowe preferred

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48
Q

BCYE
buffered charcoal yeast extract for

A

Legionella

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49
Q

Cystine-Tellurite, Tinsdale and Loefflers Medium

A

C.diphtheriae

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50
Q

Never refridgerate these 3

A

CSF, anaerobic and GC

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51
Q

Blood culture preped with…
draw before…
dilution/ml

A

prep with alcohol, iodine
draw before fever spike
1:10 dilution, 10mL

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52
Q

2 Stains for acid fast/mycobacteria

best of the two…

A

Kinyoun and Ziehl-Nielson

Kinyoun

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53
Q

Calcofluor white stains…
KOH is used to…

A

stains yeast/fungi
KOH breaks down debris and mucous

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54
Q

Gram stain
primary stain, decolorizer, mordant and counterstain

A

Crystal violet
acohol/acetone
iodine
safranin

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55
Q

JEMBEC plates used to

A

transport and grow N.gonorrhoeae

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56
Q

Modified Thayer-Martin, Martin Lewis
NYC, GC-LECT,
JEMBEC isolate

A

N.gonorrhoeae and meningitidis

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57
Q

3 species of enterobacteriaceae that are nonmotile

A

shigella and klebsiella
Yesenia at 35C

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58
Q

Species of enterobacteriaceae that is both motile and nonmotile at diff temps

A

Yersinia motile at 25/RT, not at 35

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59
Q

Two genuses that form spore

A

Bacillus and clostridium

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60
Q

Disinfectant for walls/floors that doesn’t kill spores/myco/noneveloped

A

quarternary ammoniums

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61
Q

Phenol

A

disinfectant, doesn’t kill spores

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62
Q

2% aqueous glutaraldehyde

A

used when items can’t be sterlized by heat

cold sterlization

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63
Q

Sodium polyanethod sulfonate (SPS)

A

used to grow bacteria by preventing clotting, phagocytosis and bactericial effects

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64
Q

Urethral contamination of urine is greather than Squamous epis/hpf

A

10

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65
Q

Resistance to penicillin should be tested for

A

beta lactamase production

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66
Q

beta-lactamase test that uses nitrocefin and there is hydrolysis of the beta lactim ring resulting in red color

A

Chromogenic cephalosporin metod

or Nitrocefin test

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67
Q

Tests beta lactamase w/penicillin-pheno red substrate leading to color change from red to yellow to penicilloic acid

A

Acidimetric method

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68
Q

Test for beta lactamase where betalactamse hydroyze penicillin G and reduce iodine, resulting in fading of blue to colorless

A

Iodometric method

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69
Q

Potassium tellurite used to id

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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70
Q

Potassium tellurite inhibits…

color of C.diph

A

gp/gn nornal flora

gray black

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71
Q

Loeffler serum agar enhances these two things for C.diph

A

pleomorphism and metachromatic granules

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72
Q

Elek test detects toxin for

A

C.diph

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73
Q

TCBS

thiosulfate citrate bile salts
used for

A

Vibrio

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74
Q

2 kinds of alpha heme

A

s.pneumo
viridians

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75
Q

3 kinds of beta heme

A

Group A, B
L.mono

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76
Q

1 gamma heme

A

enterococci

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77
Q

GPC resistant to bacitracin

A

Staph

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78
Q

Cause of toxic shock and food poisoning

A

S.aureus

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79
Q

Staph that is nonheme and common cause of hospital aquired UTI

A

S.epi

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80
Q

staph that is mostly novobiocin sensitive

A

CNS

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81
Q

Antibiotic disk that diff between CNS and S.sapro

S.Sapro versus CNS susceptibility

A

Novobiocin

All CNS suspectible to Novobiocin
except S.sapro is resistant

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82
Q

Strain of CNS that is resistant to novobiocin

A

S.sapro

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83
Q

Pigmented, high domed large GPC

A

micrococcus

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84
Q

Test that diff staph versus strep

A

catalase

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85
Q

Mannitol salt agar, MSA selects for

A

S.aureus, pos

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86
Q

90% of strep, cause of rheumatic fever, scarlet fever

A

Group A Strep
S.pyogenes

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87
Q

Strep that is sensitive to Bacitracin

How many units on disks

A

Group A strep
S.pyogenes

0.02-0.04

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88
Q

Strep NF of female genital and cause of neonatal issues

A

Group B strep
S.agalactiaae

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89
Q

Diff Group A from B with what antibiotic…

which one is which

A

Bacitracin

Group A is sensitive
Group B is resistant

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90
Q

Strep that is hippurate poss and CAMP pos (shows arrowhead)

A

group B strep
S.agalactiae

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91
Q

beta Strep that is PYR pos

A

Grp A strep

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92
Q

Non heme strep that causes nosocomial UTI and hydrolyzes esculin

A

Group D Strep
nonenterococci

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93
Q

two examples of Group D strep

A

S.bovis, S.gallolyticus

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94
Q

Used to be called strep, alpha/non heme, hydrolyzes esculin and grows in NaCL

A

enteroccouccus

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95
Q

Two oval GPC organisms that can cause nosocomial UTI, is in GI, and hydrolyze esculin

A

Group D and enterocccocci

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96
Q

What diff Group D and enterococci

A

Enterococcus grows in NaCl

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97
Q

GPC lancet shaped, alpha heme, encapsulated normal in uppper respiratory

A

S.pneumo

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98
Q

Strep that is sensitive to Optochin

A

S.pneumo

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99
Q

P disk is called

A

Optochin

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100
Q

Strep that is sensitive to optochin and is bile soluble

A

S.pneumo

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101
Q

2 Tests that diff S.pneumo from viridians

Which one is pos for both

A

optochin and bile solubility

S.pneumo pos
viridians neg

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102
Q

Group F

A

microaerophillic
S.milleri

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103
Q

GPC that has butterscotch odor

A

microaerophillic
s.milleri

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104
Q

Large GPC that are nonpatho, in environment/skin, pigmented and microdase pos

A

micrococcus

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105
Q

Antibiotic that will kill MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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106
Q

Two genera with GN dipplococci and oxidase pos

A

Neisseria, Moraxella

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107
Q

GNDC coffee bean shaped, oxidase pos,

A

Neisseria

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108
Q

GNDC that ferments glucose only

A

N.gonn

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109
Q

GNDC that is uppe respir, ferments both glucose and maltose

A

N.meningitidis

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110
Q

GNDC of upper respiratory in kids, ferments all glucose, maltose and lactose

A

N.lactamica

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111
Q

Organism that causes upper respiratory, otitis media, hockey puck colonies

A

M.cattarhalis

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112
Q

GNDC that is neg for sugars, DNase pos, butyrate esterase pos

A

M.catarrhalis

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113
Q

2 oxidase pos GNDC genera

A

N.mening,gonn
M.catt

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114
Q

GNDC needs Co2, 48hrs to grow, ferments glucose only

A

N.gonn

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115
Q

N.mening transmitted by…
seen mostly in…
ferments these two sugars…

A

respiratory drops
kids

glucose, maltose

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116
Q

These two test diff M.cat from Neisseria

A

DNase pos
butyrate esterase pos

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117
Q

M.cat seen in…

A

resp infections

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118
Q

spore forming GP rods

A

bacillus

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119
Q

4 nonspore forming GP rods aerobic

A

CLEN

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Erysipelothrix
Nocardia

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120
Q

CLEN acronym for nonspore forming GP rods aerobic

A

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Erysipelothrix
Nocardia

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121
Q

Gram variable/pos with clue cells, bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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122
Q

GPR that appears as chinese letters and has metachromatic granules

A

Corynebacerium
diphtheriae

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123
Q

Which medium will help enhance metachromic granules in C.diphtheriae

A

Loefflers

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124
Q

Which GPR has metachromatic granules on Loefflers

A

C. diphtheriae

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125
Q

Elek test tests for…
in what organism

A

toxin production
C.diphtheriae

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126
Q

Ingrient in Tinsdale agar and color change due to its hydrolysis

organism diff on this

A

tellurite
black

C.diphtheriae

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127
Q

GPR with tumbling motility/umbrella motility at RT

A

L.monocytogenes

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128
Q

GPR with test tube brush growth in gelatin and cause of occupational infections for fisherman etc

A

Erysipelothrix
rhuiopathiae

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129
Q

GPR spores, ground glass

A

Bacillus

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130
Q

Bamboo shoots, medusa head

A

B.anthracis

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131
Q

Bacillus that causes food poisoning due to fried rice toxin

A

B.cereus

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132
Q

Most Bacillus are motile except for

A

B.anthracis

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133
Q

GPR on skin/mucous, club shaped

A

Corynebacterium

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134
Q

GPR grows on Loeffler, has metachromic granules, has TOX gene

A

Corynebacterium
diphtheriae

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135
Q

GPR that is hospital acquired, most commonly isolated diphtheroid

A

C.jeikeium

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136
Q

GPR that can cause issues in newborns and food poisoning

A

L.mono

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137
Q

GPR causing skin/lung infections and has sulfur granules

A

Nocardia

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138
Q

Nocardia that causes skin infectionsq

A

N.brasiliensis

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139
Q

Nocardia that causes lung infections

A

N.asteroides

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140
Q

What2 things diff L.mono fron diptheroids/corynebacterium

A

motility, salicin

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141
Q

Another name for metachromatic granules

A

Babes-Ernst granules

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142
Q

Potassium tellurite inhibits…

A

normal flora so that C..diph can grow

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143
Q

GP to Gvariable cocco bacillius that can be grown in cold enrichment

A

L.mono

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144
Q

Diptheroid that is NF in throat

A

C.pseudo-diphtheriticum

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145
Q

Two tests to diff L.mono from Corynebacterium

which one pos/neg

A

motility and salicin

L.mono: motile, salicin +
Cory: nonmotile, salicin -

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146
Q

What stain does mycobacteria use

A

acid fast, Kinyoun

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147
Q

NALC and NaOH do what for mycobacteria

A

NALC liquefy
NaOH digest/decontaminate

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148
Q

Mycobacteria need to be incubated with…at…

A

with 5% CO2, at 35C

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149
Q

Two mediums for mycobacteria, which one clear and can examine microscopically

A

Middlebrook 7H11: clear plate

Lowenstein-Jensen: green slant

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150
Q

Tween 80 test diff and is pos in

pos turns…
neg is…

A

Myco kansasii

pink/red

amber

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151
Q

What can distinguish M.tb from others

A

Nitrate and niacin

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152
Q

Niacin and nitrate can differentiate these two mycobacteria

A

M.tb
M.bovis

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153
Q

M.tb is nicacin/nitate…
M.bovis is niacin/nitrate…

A

tb is pos
bovis is neg

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154
Q

Arylsulfatase test diff what genus

Arylsulfatase is an enzyme that splits free phenolphthalein from the tripotassium salt of phenolphthalein disulfite. The test for the identification of …. species is performed in a tube containing a substrate of phenolphthalein.

A

mycobacterium

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155
Q

3 stains for acid fast

A

Kinyoun
Ziehl-Neelsen
Fluorochrome

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156
Q

Primary stain, decolorizer, and counterstain in Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen stains

A

Primary: carbolfuchsin
Decolorizer: acid alcohol
Counter: Methylene blue

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157
Q

Primary stain, decolorizer, and counterstain in Fluorochrome stain for acid fast

A

Primary: Auramine-rhodamine
decolorizer: acid alcohol
Counter: potassium permanganate

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158
Q

Color of AFB on Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen

A

red rods, blue backgroud

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159
Q

Which acid fast stain requires heat

A

Ziehl-Neelson

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160
Q

Which acid fast stain requires cold

A

Kinyoun

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161
Q

Diagnostic test and source for M.leprae

A

acid fast tissue

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162
Q

Hansens disease is also called

A

Leprosy

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163
Q

Macrophages w/acid fast bacilli

A

lepra cells

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164
Q

Lumpy jaw cause

A

A.israelii

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165
Q

Actinomyces israeli is ana or aero

A

anaerobic

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166
Q

GNR not NF, swimmers ear, Motile, grape like odor

Oxidase pos, cat pos

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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167
Q

GNR bacterial diarrhea, seagulls, darting corkskrew motility

A

Campybacter
jejuni

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168
Q

GNR ulcers, urea breath test

A

Helicobacter pylori

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169
Q

GNR TCBS, rice water stools, motile, comma shaped

A

Vibrio cholerae

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170
Q

GNCB upper respiratory, CHOC, can have capsules

A

H.influenze

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171
Q

Haemophilus pink eye

A

aegyptius

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172
Q

Haemophilus STD,chancroid, bipolar, schools of fish

A

ducreyi

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173
Q

Haemophilus that require both X and V

A

influenze, aegyptius

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174
Q

Haemophilus that requires only X (hemin)

A

ducreyi

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175
Q

H.parahaemolyticus and parainfluenzae requires which factor

A

V

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176
Q

GNR cause of trench fever, cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella

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177
Q

GNCB obligate intracellular parasite

inhalation; with undulant fever, unpasterized milk, animals, bioterrism

A

Brucella

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178
Q

GNCB tularemia/rabbit fever, level 3 pathogen

A

Francisella

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179
Q

GNR from air conditioners, Pontiact fever, BCYE (needs cytsteine)

A

Legionella

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180
Q

GNCB Pasterurella that is caused by bite/scratch, musty odor

A

multocida

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181
Q

Legionella that is brown on Feeley-Gorman iron cysteine agar

A

L.pneumophila

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182
Q

String test, positive result looks like

A

If the result is positive, the bacterial cells will be lysed by the sodium deoxycholate or Sodium taurocholate, the suspension will lose turbidity, and DNA will be released from the lysed cells causing the mixture to become viscous. A mucoid “string” is formed when an inoculating loop is drawn slowly away from the suspension.

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183
Q

String test diff these three genuses and also diff these two species

A

Vibrio spp. from Aeromonas spp. and Plesiomonas shigelloides.

Vibrio cholerae (string test positive) from other Vibrio spp. (string test negative).

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184
Q

Vibrio that is yellow on TCBS, string test pos

A

Vibrio cholerae

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185
Q

Vibrios that are green on TCBS and cause bacteremia

A

parahemolyticus, vulnificus

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186
Q

The only Brucella that doesn’t grow on basic fuchin, grows on thionin

A

suis (pigs)

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187
Q

The only Brucella that needs CO2, also thionin neg

A

abortus (cow)

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188
Q

The only Brucella that doesn’t produce H2S

A

melentensis (goat)

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189
Q

Bordetella that is urease positive, oxidase positive

A

bronchiseptica

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190
Q

GN bipolar, plague, fleas/rats, safety pin

A

Yersenia pestis

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191
Q

HACEK

all HACEK members are fastidious Gram-negative bacteria associated with infective endocarditis.

Most HACEK are capnophilic, mouth flora, pathogenic in immunocompromised

A

Haemophilus
Actinobacillus/Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium hominis
Eikenella corodens
Kingella kingae

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192
Q

Campylobacter is best in what atmospheric condition

A

obligate microaerophillic

likes chickens, 42C

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193
Q

obligate microaerophillic
curved GN rod
gull winged
likes monstly N

A

Campy

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194
Q

Campy gas mixture %
O, CO2, N

A

85% N2
10% CO2
5% O2

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195
Q

curved GNR nonferment, microaerophillic, nitrate pos

A

C.jejuni

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196
Q

How to stain myco-plasma and urea-plasma

A

Dienes stain

Mycoplasma colonies can be identified by observing typical fried egg colonies on culture medium. Visualization is facilitated by application of Diene’s stain directly to the agar surface. Diene’s stain is a nonspecific stain that imparts a contrasting appearance to Mycoplasma colonies on agar. It allows easy visualization of colony morphology and characteristics.

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197
Q

Two genus of bacteria that are the smallest free living and have no cell wall

A

Myco-plasma and Urea-plasma

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198
Q

Cause of primary atypical pneumonia, walking pneumonia

A

M.pneumoniae

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199
Q

Which free living microbe has fried egg appearance

A

M.pneumoniea

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200
Q

How to stain and how to visiualize T.pallidum

A

silver
darkfield

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201
Q

Cause of syphilis

A

Treponoma pallidum

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202
Q

How is leptospira passed to humans

A

via animal urine

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203
Q

Borrelia that causes relapsing fever

A

B.reccurentis

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204
Q

Cause of Lyme disease

transmitted by/vector

A

B.burgdorferi

Ixodes ticks

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205
Q

Chlamydiaceae, Rickettsia, Coxiella, and Ehrlichia all are

A

obligate intracellular parasites

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206
Q

Chlamydiaceae have no…in their cell wall

and are stained with…

A

peptidoglycan

Giesma

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207
Q

Chlamydia species STD

A

trachomatis

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208
Q

Chlamydia with parrot fever

A

psittaci

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209
Q

Chlamydia ass. w/Guillian Barre and grown on HELA cells

A

pneumoniae

210
Q

Test that uses Proteus OX antigens to detech rickettsial antibody

A

Weil Felix

211
Q

5 Rickettsiae conditions

A

Rickettsial pox
Rocky Mt. Spotted Fever
Q and murine fever
Typhus fever

212
Q

Q Fever is actually caused by this rickettsiael organism

A

Coxiella burnetti

213
Q

PRAS

A

pre reduced anaerobically sterilized
media

214
Q

Classic principle of anaerobic culture

A

Jar tech, palladium pellets
H2/CO2 w/water
indicators

215
Q

GPR with double zone of beta, box car, gas gangrene, food

A

Clostridium perfringens

216
Q

Clostridium that doesn’t usually have spores

A

C.perfringens

217
Q

Naegler test on egg yolk agar used for

A

C.perfringens
pos/has lecithinase activity

218
Q

Molar tooth, lumpy jaw GPR anarobe

A

Actinomyces israelii

219
Q

Acceptable Anaerobic specimens

A

BF, Blood, Bile, BM

asipirate, wound

Biopsy, tissue

220
Q

Unacceptable anaerobic specimens

A

swabs

sputum, washings, gastric

voided, catheterized urine
feces

221
Q

Anaerobe that forms black, dark halos on BBE due to esculin hydrolysis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

222
Q

Ideal atmosphere for anaerobes

A

80-90% N
10% CO2
5%H

223
Q

QC for anaerobes

A

O2 is color, white colorless no O2

224
Q

1 GPC anaerobe
1GNC anaerobe

A

GPC: Pep-
GNC: Veillonella

225
Q

Finegoldia magna, Peptostreptococcus, Peptoniphilus all are what kind of microbes

A

anaerobic GPC

226
Q

4 GPR anaerobic

A

Clostridium
Lactobacillus
Actinomyces
Propionibacterium

227
Q

Anaerobic GPR with molar tooth, affects brain/facw

A

Actinomyces

228
Q

2 clostridium that have oval subterminal spores, 1 that may have

A

botulinum
difficile

(perfringens may hay subterminal)

229
Q

2 Clostridium with round terminal spore

A

tetani, ramosum

230
Q

Anaerobic GPR antibiotic ass. diarrhea

A

C.difficile

231
Q

Anaerobic GPR NF skin, acne

A

Propioni-bacterium

232
Q

Anaerobic GPR NF mouth/female genital, lactic acid/pH

A

Lactobacillus

233
Q

Anaerobic GNC
NF upper, red flouresnce

A

Veillonella

234
Q

Anaerobic GNR lung infection, tapered, fluoresence chartreuse/green yellow

A

Fusobacterium

235
Q

Anaerobic GNR head,neck flurousence brick red

A

Prevotella

236
Q

4 nonmotile

A

Shigella, Klebsiella (Enterobacteria)

B.antracis (rest bacillus are motile)

Yesenia nonmotile at 35

237
Q

Tuft of flagela at polar end

A

Lophitrichous

238
Q

Uniform flagella over body

A

Petitrichous

239
Q

Amphitrichous

A

Tuft of flagella at both poles

240
Q

5 Have capsules:
Most are respiratory

A

Crypto neo

Kleb pneumo
S.pneumo

H.influ
N.memin

241
Q

3 stains for metachromatic granules, best one

MAN

A

Methylene blue best
Albert
Neisser

242
Q

Forms of sterilization

A

Autoclave 121, 15, 15
Filtration

Boiling
Fractionalization
Dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas

243
Q

Gram stain ingredients

A

Crystal violet
Iodine
Ethyl alcohol
Safranin

244
Q

Ziel/kinyoun stain ingredients

A

Carbol fushin/phenol
HCl/alcohol
Methylene blue

245
Q

Naso swabs used for these two

A

H.influ
N.mening

246
Q

Urine culture
Process time…
Loop size, multiply by…
Sig CFU…

A

1hr, 24hr fridge
0.001ml, x1000
>100,000 sig

247
Q

Sputum stain, best sample req

A

Gram
<10 epi, >25 PMN/lpf

248
Q

Chromagar
Oxacillin, Cefoxitin used for

A

MRSA

249
Q

Diff microccous from Strep

A

Catalase

Micrococcus cat pos

250
Q

Staph epi from s.sapro

A

Novobiocin susceptible

251
Q

Bacitracin susceptible
PYR pos

A

GAS

252
Q

Oxiase positive PVNM-CH

A

Pseudomonas
Vibrio ch

Neisseria
M.catt

Campy
Heli,Haemo

253
Q

Genital culture
Transport with these 2, At
Culture w/in, on

A

Transport modified Stuart’s or Amies charcoal at RT

Culture with in 12hrs on JEMBEC

254
Q

Agar melts at, solidify at

A

Melts 100
Solidify 45-50

255
Q

Four ingredients in modified TM

VCN, TL

A

Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin

Trimethoprim Lactate

256
Q

Nitrocefin is a…
Used to detect…
Turns..

A

Chromogenic cephalosporin
Detect cleavage of beta lactam ring

Red

257
Q

X factor
V factor

A

X Hemin
V NAD

258
Q

Needs X,V
satelitte phenom
kids
meningitis,epiglotitis

A

H.influe

259
Q

Diff L.mono from GrpB strep

A

L.mono is motile and catalase pos

260
Q

Two microbes that are CAMP and hippyrate pos

A

GrpB
L.mono

261
Q

Salicin used to diff these two.. which one pos

A

L.mono from Corynebacterium
L.mono salicin pos

262
Q

GPR partially acid fast, beaded, branching, filamentous. Urease positive

A

Nocardia

263
Q

Curved Gram negative rod, sea-gull winged

Microaerophillic
Needs increased Nitrogen

42C

A

Campylobacter

264
Q

Campy req
Atmosphere, temp

A

Microaerophillic
85 N
10 Co2
5 O

42C

265
Q

Aspects of enteriobacteriace

A

GNR

Oxidase negative
Catalase pos

Nitrate to nitrite
Motile except for kleb,shig,yer

Ferments glucose, acid

266
Q

Selective media for S&S with bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin as indicators

A

HE

267
Q

GPR, spores, nonmotile
String of pearls w/penicillin, Medusa

A

B.anthracis

268
Q

Urease +
PUNCH

A

Proteus
Urea-plasma
Nocardia
Crytoneo,Corynebac
Helipylori

269
Q

Media where Mercury droplets can be seen in B.pertussis

A

Bordet gengou

270
Q

E.Coli IMViC

A

++–

271
Q

Kleb IMViC

A

–++

272
Q

Most common cause of UTI females

A

Ecoli

273
Q

Selects with Crystal violet, bile salts….diff with lactose

A

MAC

274
Q

Selects with eosin Y, methylene blue…diff w/sucrose and lactose

A

EMB

275
Q

Selects with bile salts, diff lactose/sucrose/salicin and has H2S indicator

A

HE

276
Q

What are clear and colorless on HE? What is clear with black dot?

A

Shigella clear
salmonella clear w/black dot

277
Q

What color are NF from the intestine on HE

A

orange/pink

278
Q

What is the H2S indicator in He, SS, and XLD

A

Sodium thiosulfate

not the same one in TSI agar (ferric ammonium sulfate/citrate)

279
Q

selects with brilliant green, biles salts and diff with lactose and H2S

A

SS

280
Q

Selects witih bile salts, diff with lactose/surcrose/xylose and H2S

A

XLD

281
Q

Two enterobact that produce H2S

A

Salmonella and proteus

282
Q

Enterobactero DNase pos and red

A

Serratia

283
Q

Deaminate…
Enzymes that catalyse this reaction are called…

A

deaminases

Deamination is the removal of an amino group from a molecule.

Deamination occurs in the presence of the deaminase enzyme that catalyzes the breaking of the bond that binds the amino group to the rest of the amino acid.

284
Q

Deaminase/Rapid urease pos: acronym

A

Deaminase/Urease: PPM
Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

285
Q

PPM are all pos/have these two enzymes

Proteus
Providencia
Moroganella

A

deaminase, urease

286
Q

Typhoid fever caused by

A

Salmonella typhi

287
Q

Positive nitrate test is…
confirm with…

A

Pink
zinc powder

if the medium turns red after the addition of the nitrate reagents, it is considered a positive result for nitrate reduction because it was reduced to nitrite.

If it’s clear either nitrate is present or it reduced past nitrite.
Confirm with zinc.

After zinc if it turns red, it’s a true negative, nitrate didn’t reduce.

If it’s clear after zinc, then nitrite was reduced further and is positive.

288
Q

TSI yellow butt

A

glucose

289
Q

Yellow slant

A

lactose or sucrose

290
Q

A/A which sugars

A

slant: lactose and/or sucrose
butt: glucose

291
Q

K/A

A

butt: glucose only

292
Q

K/K

A

none

293
Q

black butt

A

H2S

294
Q

Which test needs trytophan and is called Kovacs reagent

A

Indole

295
Q

Citrate tests for microbes that

A

use citrate for their sole source of carbon

296
Q

Kleb is citrate…

A

pos

IMViC
–++

297
Q

E.coli is citrate

A

neg
IMViC
++–

298
Q

Indicator that tests the ability of microbes to make glucose and drop the pH

A

methyl red

299
Q

EMB selects and diff these group of microbes

A

enterobactericae

300
Q

EMB has lactose to diff, what color is E.coli

color of NLF

A

green, LF

clear

301
Q

Test that tests microbes ability to make acetone from glucose

A

Voges Proskauer

302
Q

Voges Proskauer
2 pos: K/E
2 Neg: E/Y

A

Pos: Kleb, Enterobac

Neg: E.coli, Yer

303
Q

In PPA, phenylalanine is deaminated to…

three PPA pos…PPM

A

phenylpyruvid acid

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

304
Q

Enzyme that breaks down aminos to amines (alkaline) w/limited glucose

first ph turns yellow

when decarboxylized alkaline amine turns purple

A

Decarboxylase

Decarboxylation occurs in the presence of a decarboxylase enzyme that catalyzes the breaking of the bond that binds the carboxylic group to the rest of the amino acid.

305
Q

Aminos used in decarboxylase test

A

Lysine
Arginine
Orthinine

306
Q

Positive nitrate reduction test changes what color and inidicates…

A

positive changes red, indicates has only nitrate reductase

307
Q

Initial no color in negative nitrate reduction test indicates

A

No color may mean microbe has both or neither enzymes nitrate/nitrite reductase

308
Q

How to confirm no color reaction in nitrate reduction test….

red..
no color..

A

add powered zinc, will catalyze nitrate to nitrite

red…has neither enzyme
clear…has both nitrite/nitrate

309
Q

To ferment lactose need these two enzymes

A

permease:
brings into cell

B-galactosidase:
breaks down lactose

310
Q

What are microbes called that lack permease but have B-galactosidase

A

slow lactose fermenters

311
Q

Which test detects B-galactosidase

What does pos look like

A

ONPG

it resembles lactose

pos=yellow

312
Q

Sodium deoxycholate is used in

A

String test for vibrio choloera

313
Q

Test/medium that uses low peptone to allow visible acid production by oxidizers

A

OF
oxidition fermentation medium

314
Q

With OF medium, what color is fermenters…

where is the color for oxidizers…

A

acid, yellow

oxidziers only on top due to needing oxygen

315
Q

What is the indicator in OF media

A

bromthymol blue

316
Q

Clostridium spores:

oval/sub:
round:

A

Clostridium spores:

oval/subterminal: bot,diff, sometimes perf
round terminal: tetani, ram

317
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite w/anthropod vector

GNCB that resemble bacteria

Weil-Felix (proteus ag)
PCR lab titer

A

Rickettsia

318
Q

Coxiella Burretii

A

obligate intracellular parasite
Q fever
aerosol from birth of infected
bioterrism

319
Q

Two genus that have intracellular morulae in cells/WBC and transmitted by ticks

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis:
mono/neu

Anaplasma phagocytophilum:
grans

320
Q

Lyme disease, bulls eye rash
Ixodes dammini
serological

A

Borelia burgedorferi

321
Q

obligate intra parasite
STD:
parrots:
PCR

A

Chlamydia

trachomatis
psittaci

322
Q

D test

A

double diffusion

D appearance due to flattened zone of inhibition, resistant to clindamycin

323
Q

Disk diffusion req

A

agar 4.0mm
MH 150mm
no more than 12 disks
no CO2
pH 7.2-7.4
Ca/Mg

324
Q

Ingredient in McFarland

A

Barium Chloride

325
Q

K/Vi antigen

A

Capsular antigen
Vi is K, made by S.typhi

Polysaccharide, heat labile, prevents phago

326
Q

H antigen

A

Flagellar
Serotype Salmonella

Protein, heat labile

327
Q

O antigen

A

sOmatic
Salmonella and Shigella

Lipopolysaccharide
Heat stable

328
Q

Opportunistic enterobacteriacea in reptiles, fresh water fish, H2S, indoor, motile

++–

A

Edwardsiella tarda

329
Q

3 enterobac with ++–

A

P.vulgaris
E.coli
Edwardsiella

330
Q

3 enterobac with –++

A

Kleb pneu
Enterobacter
Serratia marcesens

331
Q

Enterobacteriaciae that swarms

A

Proteus

332
Q

SPEC is H2S

A

Salmonella
Proteus
Edwardsiella
Citro

333
Q

3 Nonmotile entero at 35C

A

Shigella
Kleb
Yersenia

334
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter,
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
are all

A

Nonfermenting gram negative rods

335
Q

Which one is NF
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter,
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

Acinetobacter of skin, pharynx

336
Q

Two GNR, cause gastroenteritis, doesn’t grow on TCBS, oxidase pos, motile

A

Aeromonas
Plesiomonas shigelloides

337
Q

Ornithine pos selects for

A

Enterobacter

338
Q

TSI:
SEEK A/A

A

Serratia
Eschericha
Enterobacter
Kleb

339
Q

K/K

A

Pseudomonas

340
Q

Fastidious, Capnophlic, GNCB
Oral flora

A

HACEK

341
Q

HAECK, GNCB, pits agar, bleach odor

A

Eikinella corrodens

342
Q

3 GNR Enterobacteriaceae with IMViC –++

A

Kleb pneumo
Enterobacter
Serratia

343
Q

3 GNR Enterobacteriaceae with IMViC ++–

A

Proteus
E.coli
Edwardsella

344
Q

Kleb versus Serratia

Motility, lactose

A

Kleb nonmotile, LF
Serratia motile, NLF
-most entero are motile

345
Q

Of these 3 no fermenting GNR, which one is oxidase pos
Pseudo aero
Acinebacter
Stenotro

A

Pseudo

346
Q

2 Enterobacteriaceae that produce H2S

A

Salmonella
Proteus

347
Q

3 Enterobacteriaceae that has deaminase/PPA pos and urease pos

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

348
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that is DNase pos

A

Serratia

349
Q

3 Enterobacteriaceae that are
- -++/VP pos

A

Kleb
Enterobacter
Serratia

350
Q

Test that diff GPC from GNDC, reactions

A

Oxidase

GPC(staph, strep): oxidase neg
GNDC(neisseria): oxidase pos

351
Q

Of the species of mycobacterium which two aren’t rapid growers

A

gordonae, tb

352
Q

Lactose fermenting enterobacteraciea, acrynom/organisms

A

CEEK (seek w/a C)

Citrobacter
Enterobacter

E.coli
Kleb

353
Q

M.gordonae is slow

A

M.gordonae is slow

354
Q

4 GPR anaerobic acrynom, names

A

Clostridium
Lactobacillus
Actinomyces
Propionibacterium

355
Q

Only GN cocci anaerobic

A

Veillonella

356
Q

4 GPR nonspore aerobic
1 GPR spore aerobic

A

Corneybacterium
Listeria mono
Erysipelothrix
Nocardia

spore…
Bacillus

357
Q

Campy
Heli
Vibrio are all

A

GNR

358
Q

Hemophilus is what shape/color

A

GNCB

359
Q

Bartonella and Legionella gram stain

A

GNR

360
Q

Brucella, Franciella, and Pasterurella gram stain

A

GNCB

361
Q

Clostridium, Actinomyces,
Propionibacterium,
Lactobacillus all are …., gram stain

A

GPR anaaerobic

362
Q

Two organisms that are most common causes pelvic inflammatory diseases

A

N.gonn
Chlamydia trachomatis

363
Q

Small, nonmotile
Coccobacillus
Grows in egg yolk sac

A

Rickettsia

364
Q

2 organism have Bacterial type cell wall

A

Chlamydia: no peptidoglycan
Rickettsia

365
Q

Naglar agar selects for

A

Clostridium

366
Q

GNR, fastidious, Air conditioner

Best medium for legionella..
L.pneumo forms brown pigment on…

A

BCYE: buffered charcoal yeast extract has cysteine

L.pneumo: feeley gorman iron cysteine

367
Q

Bordetella that is urease, oxidase pos

A

Bronchiseptica

368
Q

4 ways to id mycobacteria and optimal atmosphere/% and temp

A

Growth rate
Pigment
Biochem
Temp

CO2, 5%
35C

369
Q

Rhodococcus equi is GPC and takes…to go from coccoid to rod

A

24hrs

370
Q

Blood cysteine glucose agar used for

A

Fran. tularensis

371
Q

β-Lactamases are enzymes that degrade the β-lactam ring. They can be encoded chromosomally or on extrachromosomal elements.

This process of testing for enzyme by subculturing is called…

A

Plasmid coding

372
Q

Name of test where DNA is hydrolyzed and what positive looks like

A

DNase
Medium is colorless around organism

373
Q

In chromogenic cephalosporin test for betalactamase, the intact beta lactam ring is…

If organism cleaves ring it turns ..

A

Clear/yellow=intact
Red=cleaved

374
Q

Sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite called

A

ECM
Erythema chronicum migrans

375
Q

Disease that causes raised, red, itchy rash (larva currens), often between your butt cheeks, on your thighs or on your wrists.

A

strongyloidiasis

376
Q

larva currens is also called

A

strongyloidiasis

377
Q

A red rash that usually begins on the face or neck, later spreading to the chest, trunk, arms and legs is called and caused by

A

Scarlet fever
GrpA step

378
Q

Bulls eye is also called…
Seen in what disease…

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

Lyme

379
Q

Mycosel is…with..and…

It is a highly selective media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from materials having a large flora of other fungi and bacteria. It is not general purpose media for the isolation of all fungi (including molds and saprophytic yeasts).

A

Sabouraud Agar with Chloramphenicol and Cycloheximide

380
Q

Trichophyton that is urease-pos and penetrates hair shaft

A

Mentagrophytes

381
Q

Tuberculate macroconidia seen in what phase..
Of what organism…

A

Mycelial phase
H.capsulatum

382
Q

Broad based budding yeast seen in… Phase of ..

A

Tissue phase
Blasto dermatitis

383
Q

Alternating barrel shaped arthroconidia seen in this phase… Of…

A

Mycelial
C.immitis

384
Q

Round, thick walled spherule with endospores seen is what phase and organism

A

Yeast
C.immitis

385
Q

Mariners wheel buds seen in what phase and organism

A

Yeast
Para brasiliensis

386
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans, creeping eruption caused by

A

Ancyclostoma braziliense

387
Q

Creeping eruption called… By….

A

Cutaneous larva migrans
Ancyclostoma braziliense

388
Q

Capillariasis

A

The nematode (roundworm) Capillaria (=Paracapillaria) philippinensis causes human intestinal capillariasis.

Unlike C. hepatica, humans are most likely the main definitive host. Transmission occurs primarily through eating undercooked fish.

389
Q

eosinophilic meningitis, eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, or EM.

A

A. cantonensis:
People can get infected by eating raw or undercooked snails or slugs or contaminated produce.

B. procyonis: People get infected by accidentally ingesting infectious parasite eggs. These eggs can be found in raccoon feces and environments (such as dirt) contaminated with raccoon feces.

G. spinigerum: People can get infected by eating raw or undercooked freshwater fish or eels, frogs, poultry, or snakes

390
Q

In hookworm and strongly they infect by … … With what form

A

Skin penetration
Filariform

391
Q

best way to id mycoplasma

A

inhibition of growth by specific antisera

The growth inhibition test stems from the fact that high titre antiserum added into mycoplasma growth medium will inhibit the growth of the homologous mycoplasma species against which the antiserum was produced.

A method of mycoplasma species identification is described, based upon inhibition of the PPLO growth on solid media around antiserum-impregnated filter paper disks.

392
Q

Name for bacteria that ferment lactose into acid, turn media pink

GN bacteria are defined as rod-shaped gram-negative nonendospore forming bacteria that ferment lactose with the production of acid and gas at 35–37°C.

A

Coliform

393
Q

CLEN versus CLAP

Each letter…

A

CLEN: GPR aerobic
Corney, Listo, Eryt, Nocardia

CLAP: GPR anaerobic
Clostridium, Lacto, Acinto, Propio

394
Q

phase where growth ceases due to nutrients exhausting and toxic metabolites build up

A

stationary

395
Q

phase with litte/no multiplication but active enzymes, still maturing

A

lag

396
Q

phase where theres a logarithmic, doubling of growth/binary fision

A

exponential

397
Q

phase where waste builds up, nutrients depleted and cells stop metabolic functions and dye

A

death, declining

398
Q

Most effective form of sterilization, high pressure, high temp

A

autoclave
15lbs, 15min, 121C

399
Q

sterlization that uses moist heat-fractional alternate heating,
heat, sit, heat, sit

A

fractionalization

399
Q

sterlization for proteineous things that can’t be heated

A

filtration

399
Q

sterlization at 100C, 15-30min, doesn’t kill all spores viruses

A

boiling

400
Q

Dry heat/flame and ethylene oxide gas are two forms of

A

sterlization

401
Q

process that removes, kills, deactivates all life

A

sterilization

402
Q

Dry versus moist QC species,
Both are genus…
Species…

A

Bacillus

Dry: subtilis

Moist: stearo-thermophilus
longer word, longer species

403
Q

Process that inactivates bacteria on nonliving surfaces

A

disinfectant

404
Q

Method using chemicals/antiseptics to destroy germs that cause infections on living tissues

A

antisepsis

405
Q

In acid fast, what is red, what is blue

A

red=acid fast bacteria
blue=nonacid fast, background

406
Q

Part of gram stain that makes dye less soluble to help dye adhere to cell wall

A

iodine

407
Q

sodium polyanethol sulfonate
SPS used to…

A

grow bacteria

408
Q

Pathogenic alpha strep in upper respiratory

A

Strep pneumo

408
Q

SPS grows bacteria by preventing these three

A

prevents clotting, phagocytosis and bacterialcidal affect of human serum

409
Q

Most abundant NF in throat

A

alpha heme strep (virridans)

410
Q

Group A beta strep best collected with

A

throat swab

410
Q

H.influen, N.mening, B.pertusus best collect with

A

nasopharyngeal swabs

upper respiratory

411
Q

Most common pathogen in throat

A

beta strep
S.pyogenes

412
Q

Positive coagulase test is

A

clotting of plasma

coagulase reacts with plasma/fibrinogen

412
Q

Sensitive and faster way to test CSF for bacterial antigen

A

latex agg

413
Q

2 GPC that are catalase positive

A

staph, micrococcus

414
Q

2 GPC that are catalases neg

A

Strep, entero

415
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis differentiates…
Hippurate hydrolysis postive in these two…

A

Diff: Group B from Group A
Pos: Group B and L.mono

416
Q

GPC
Nonhemolytic
Catalase pos, coag neg
susceptible to novobiocin

A

Staph epi

417
Q

GPC
beta hemolytic
Bacitracin sensitive
PYR +
necrotizing fascitis

A

Grp A
Strep pyogenes

418
Q

GPC
beta hemolysis
Hippurate+/CAMP+
Neonatal meningitis/sepsis

A

GrpB
Strep agalactiae

419
Q

GPC
CNS that is resistant to novobiocin…
CNS that is sensitive to novobiocin…

A

resist: sapro
sensitive: epi

420
Q

GPC
CNS
catalase +
Novobiocin resistant
UTI young woman

A

Staph sapro

421
Q

GPC and GNDC can be separated by this test

A

oxidase

422
Q

Neissera/Moraxella: GNDC, oxidase…
Staph/Strep: GPC, oxidase…

A

Neissera/Moraxella: oxidase pos
Staph/Strep: oxidase neg

423
Q

GPC, lancet,capsule
alpha heme
sensitive to optochin, bile soluble

A

Strep pneumo

424
Q

3 Group D streps

A

Strep bovis, gallo
Enteroccocus

425
Q

of the 3 strep, which one likes NaCL

All are….pos

A

enterococcus loves salt

bile esculin pos

426
Q

Neissera morph…
Haemophilis morph…

A

Neisseria is GN cocci
Haemophilis is GN rod

427
Q

GNDC with adjacent flat sides what genus

A

Neisseria

428
Q

Both Thaymer martin and modified TM have these 4 things

A

Colistin, nystatin, vanco
in chocolate agar

429
Q

What does Modified TM have that TM doesn’t

A

trimethoprim lactate

inhibits swarming of proteus

430
Q

Neisseria species all degrade…
But can differentiate speicies with these two sugars…

A

all degrade glucose

differentiate with maltose and lactorse

431
Q

N.gonn degrades…
N.men degrades…
N.lac degrades…

A

gonn: glucose
men: glucose, maltose
lac: glucose, maltose, lactose

432
Q

GNDC
oxidase positive
DNase,Butyrate +
middle ear

A

Morexalla catarrhalis

433
Q

Corneybacterium diphtheriae morph, motility, salicin,

A

GPR
non motile
Salicin neg

434
Q

GPR
nonmotile
BabesErnst
gray black on tellurite
grows on Loeffler

A

Corney diph

435
Q

Tellurite in K-tellurite inhibits…
selects…

A

inhibits NF, gp/gn
selects C.diph

436
Q

Medium that enhances pleomorphism, granules for Corney diph…

Medium where corney diph is gray-black…

A

Loeffler serum again

K-tellurite

437
Q

E-test…
Elek test..

A

E-test: antimicrobial test
Elek: detect Corn diph toxin

438
Q

Gram positive aerobic, rest aerobic are GN
-Cocci
-Rod

A

Cocci:
-staph, strep, micrococcus
-entero, group D(bovis,gallo)

Rod: BCLEN
-Bacillus
-Corny, Listeria, Erysi, Nocardia

439
Q

Gram positive anaerobic, rest are GN
-Cocci:
-Rods:

A

cocci: peptococcus

Rods: CLAP
-Clostri,Lacto, Acinto,Propi

440
Q

Most common GNR anaerobic

A

Bacter fragilis

441
Q

Diphtheroids are corneybacterium that are NF in throat, which species is NF in throat

A

C.pseudo-diphtheriticum

442
Q

GPCB
coccocus to rod in 24hrs

A

R.equi

equivalent with coccus and rod

443
Q

GP to gram variable CB
cold/icecream, motile at 25
catase +,CAMP+,hipp+

A

Listo. mono

444
Q

Two genus diff by motilty and salicin

A

Listeria and Corney

445
Q

motile and salicin pos…

nonmotile and salicin neg…

A

pos: L.mono
neg: Corney

446
Q

Strict anaerobes that are acid fast and need 5% CO2

A

myco-bacterium

not myco-plasma (no cell wall)

447
Q

Middlebrook 7H11 used for…
color…
Lowenstein-Jensen used for..
color…

A

Middle: mycobacteria, clear
LJ: mycobacteria, green

448
Q

Tween 80 diff…
pos..
neg…

A

diff Mycobacterium kansasii
pos: pink/red
neg: amber

449
Q

Niacin/nitrate diff these two mycobacterium

A

M.tb from M.bovis

450
Q

Mycobaterium tb naicin/nitrate…
M.bovis niacin/nitrate…

A

M.tb pos
Mbovis neg

451
Q

Anaerobic organism that causes lumpy jaw

A

A.israelii

452
Q

Urease +
PUNCH has urease in it

A

Proteus
Urea-plasma, duh!
Nocardia
Crypto neo/Corny
Heli

453
Q

GPR
part of BCLEN(gram positive aerobic rod)
will not grow with antibiotics
partially acid fast
beaded, branching, filamentous
urease, catalase pos

A

Nocardia

454
Q

GNR from nasopharengeal swab
-fastidious, small
-filamentious

A

H.influe

455
Q

Haemophilus genus needs…
-influ needs…
-para needs…
-ducreyi needs…

A

enriched choc agar

influ: X,V
para: V
ducreyi:X

456
Q

Haemophilus will satellite on BAP with Staph streak because

A

Staph supplies the V and then hemolysis will suppply the X

457
Q

GNR
fastidious
animal bite

A

P.multo

458
Q

Cause of:
-whopping cough…
-meningitis, flu, epiglottis..
-Pontiac…

A

-whopping cough: B.pertusis
-meningitis, flu, epiglottis: H,influ
-Pontiac: Legionella pneumo

459
Q

Bordetella that is urease/oxidase pos

A

bronchiseptica

460
Q

Brucella that doesn’t make H2S

A

melitensis doesn’t make H2S

461
Q

Brucella that is inhibited by thionin

A

arbortus inhibited by thionin

462
Q

GNR
fastidious
brown on feely-gorman iron cysteine

A

Legionella pneumo

needs cysteine

463
Q

BCYE used for

A

Legionella

464
Q

GNR fastidious
rabbits, bites, bioterrism

A

Franciella
tularensis

465
Q

GNR fastidious in ACs

A

Legionella pneumo

466
Q

Campylobacter is…

Needs…%….%….%

A

micro-aerophillic

85% N
10% CO2
5% O (least amt)

467
Q

GNR curved
gull winged appearance, motile
microaerophillic, needs increased N at 42C

also nitrate pos and nonfermentative but who the hell is going to remember that

A

Campy jejuni

468
Q

Campy jejuni uses what medium if enteritis

A

campy blood agar duh!

469
Q

Ass with peptic ulcer
urea pos

A

Helicobacter pylori

470
Q

Epi cell with gram variable bacteria

A

clue cell

471
Q

Pleomorphilic, gram variable
NF vagina, clue cells, sniff test

A

Gardenella vaginalis

472
Q

SS 4 media

A

XLD
SS
HE
GN broth

473
Q

SS media ingredients

XLD:
SS:
HE:
GN broth:

A

XLD: xylose, lysine, deoxycholate

SS: brilliant green, lactose

HE: bromtyhmol blue, acid fuchsin
-lactose/sucrose

GN broth: deoxcholate, citrate

474
Q

Color of S/S on HE

A

clear, clear w/dot

475
Q

Two H2S indicators in triple sugar agar…

A

ferric ammonium citrate and sulfate

476
Q

IMViC

A

Indole, methyl red, VP, citrate

477
Q

IMViC:
E.coli…
Kleb…

A

Ecoli: ++–
Kleb:–++

478
Q

IMViC
3 that are ++–

3 that are –++

A

++– PEE: proteus, E.coli, Ed

–++ KES: Kleb, Enter, Ser

479
Q

In PPA, phenalalaine is ….to phenylpyruvid acid

A

deaminated

480
Q

acrynon: Organisms that are PPA pos, deaminate phenylalanine

A

PPM

P:proteus
P:providen
M:morganella

481
Q

3 aminos used in decarboxylase test that breaks down aminos to amines

A

LAO
lysine, arginine, ornithine

482
Q

positive DNase is…

two DNase pos genera…

A

clearing around colony

M.catt, Serr

483
Q

Nitrate reduction:
-change color immediately=
-no changed color imm, and clear w/zinc…
-clear imm, color after zinc…

A

-change color imm=pos
-clear, clear w/zinc=pos for both
-clear imm, color w/zinc=neg

484
Q

Lactose fermenters needs these two enzymes to ferment lactose

A

Beta-galactosidase
Permease

485
Q

Test that detects slow LF that lack permease but have Betagalastosidase

A

ONPG

486
Q

Oxidation fermentation media has … … to allow visibility of acid production by oxidizers

A

low peptone

487
Q

tubes used in OF…
One…w/…
one…

A

2
one with oil
one open

OF need oxygen and will grow on top/yellow

488
Q

Most isolated nonfermenter
oxidase pos

green, grape smell
swimmers ear

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

489
Q

GN nonfermentative NF of skin

A

acinetobacter calcoa

490
Q

Nagler agar selects for

A

Clostridium perfringens

491
Q

Bacteroides fragilis is resistant to

A

penicillin

492
Q

Acronymn for anaerobic GPR/bacilli

A

CLAP
C=clostridium
L=Lacto
A=Acinto
P=Propioni

493
Q

The only GPC anaerobe…
The only GNC anaerobe..

A

GPC: Peptococcus
GNC: Veillonella

494
Q

Anaerobic GPR/bacilli that makes double zone of hemolysis

A

C.perfringens

495
Q

Two Clostridium with round terminal spores

A

ramosum
tetani (tennis racket)

496
Q

Two clostridium with oval subterminal spores; the other two that are important

A

botulinum
difficile

497
Q

GNC
anaerobic
red flourescence

A

Veillonella

498
Q

GPC
anaerobic

A

Peptococcus

499
Q

Green zone, partial lysis
Strep pneumo, virridians

A

Alpha heme

500
Q

Clear zone, complete lysis
GrpA ,GrB

A

Beta

501
Q

Staph aureus resistant to…
Staph sapro resistant to…

Strep B resistant to….
GrpD virridians resistant to…

A

Staph aureus resistant to: penicillin

Staph sapro resistant to: novobiocin
-diff CNS from Sapro

Strep B resistant to: bacitracin
-diff A from B

Virridians resistant to: optochin
-diff pneumo from virridians

502
Q

Acceptable anaerobic culture

A

B’s: Blood, BM, BF, Bile
-not bronch washings

Aspirates

Tissue, wound

503
Q

Oral flora, can cause endocarditis
Fastidious GNCB
Capnophillic

Acronym…

A

Haemophilis
Actino/Aggre
Cardio
Eikinella
Kingella

504
Q

Most common anaerobic
GPR…
GNR..

A

GPR: Propioni-bacterium
-acne

GNR: Bacteroides fragilis
-BBE brown

505
Q

Most common sexually transmitted BACTERIAL infection

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

506
Q

Smallest free living cells with no cell wall

A

Myco-plasma and Urea-plasma

507
Q

2 obligate intracellular parasits that have a bacterial type cell wall

A

chlamydia and rickettsia

508
Q

GNCB that can grow in egg yolk sacs

A

Rickettsisa likes to sleep in yolk

509
Q

Rickettsia transmitted by

A

arthropod vector, tick/louse

510
Q

2 organisms that cause pelvic inflammatory disease

A

N.gonn
Chlamydia trach

gonnorhea and chlamydia

511
Q

Two tick borne organisms with morulae in WBC

A

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma

512
Q

bulls eye rash called…
seen in lyme disease at site of tick bite

A

ECM
erhythema chronicum
migrans

513
Q

KB what is used to adjust turbidity of inoculum…

what is concentration…

made of…

A

McFarland std
0.5

barium chloride

514
Q

After inoculating MH plates, dry for at least…to no more than…mins

A

3?5?, 30mins

515
Q

In D test, double diffusion, there is a flattended “D” due to resistance to…

A

clindamycin

516
Q

Lowenstein-Jenson good for…

Regan Lowe good for…

Loefflers Medium…

A

Lowenstein-Jenson good for… mycobacteria

Regan Lowe good for…
Bordetella pertussis

Loefflers Medium…
Cory diph

517
Q

The growth inhibition test,
inhibition of growth by specific antisera
Used for…

A

Mycoplasma

AMT Micro (1 decks)

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