AMT Imm Quick Flashcards

1
Q

Two primary lymphoid organs…

3 secondary lymphoid organs…makes lymphs and plasmas…

both T and B cells are made in the…
T cells diff/are…dependent
B cells matuure in the…

Immunity
T cells are…
B cells are part of…

A

primary: Bone marrow, thymus

secondary: lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils

T/B cells made in Bone marrow
-T cells diff in thymus, B in bone marrow

T cells are cell mediated, intracellular
-give off small polypeptides called lymphokines to regulate phaogcytic cells
-Tcyto kill specific
-Thelper help B make ab

B cells are humor, extracellular

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2
Q

T cell markers…

B cell markers…

NK cell markers…

A

T cell: 2,3,4,8,25
-TH CD4: MHC2
-TCyto CD8: MHC1

Bcells surface immunoglobulin: 19,20,21

NK:16,56

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3
Q

MHC: genes control expression of HLA ag
Class 1:

Class 2:

involved in 3 things…

A

Class 1: HLA A,B,C
-present ag inside cell

Class 2: HLA-D M,O,P,Q,R
-present ag outside cell

involved in histocompatibility, genetic suspectibility…
-organ transplant
-paternity testing
-autoimmune disease associations

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4
Q

Most concentration of Ig, least concentration of Ig…
most to least/decreasing order…

best precipitin…
best agglutinin…

A

most is IgG, least if IgE
G>A>M>D>E

precipitin: IgG
incomplete

agglutinin: IgM
complete

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5
Q

Ig…

1 pentamer
1 dimer
3 monomers

which two with j chains

which one has 4 subclases, which has 2 subclasses

A

igM pentamer
igA dimer
igG,D,E monomers

igM and igA have Jchains and 2 subclasses

IgG has 1,2,3,4
-increases in convalescence phase

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6
Q

which Ig is an antigenic receptor on B cells

A

IgM

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7
Q

Region of antigen binding…

Region with disulfide bridge…

antibody class is determined by the antigenic variation in what region….

Hinge region is between…

Which chain is Fc region…

A

Region of antigen binding…variable region

Region with disulfide bridge…constant region

antibody class is determined by the antigenic variation in what region….constant region of heavy chain

Hinge region is between…CH1, CH2

Which chain is Fc region…heavy chain

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8
Q

Papain:
How many fragments…
which one is the antigen binding fragment…
which one is the crystallizable fragment…

Pepsin creates…

A

Papain:
How many fragments…3, 2 Fab, 1Fc

which one is the antigen binding fragment…Fab

which one is the crystallizable fragment…Fc

Pepsin creates…F(ab)2

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9
Q

complement is heat…

Classical pathway factors:
-recognition phase, order

Alternate pathway factors:

MB Lectin binds…

most abundant in both…

chemotactic factor/anaphylatoxin…

all lead to this complex…
ultimately…

A

heat labile

Classical: C1q(recognition), C4, C2, C3
-also C1r/s

Alternate: B, D, properdin

MB Lectin binds mannose on pathogens
MBL, MASP

chemotactic/anaphylatoxin..C5a

lead to MAC complex 56789, lysis

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10
Q

Precipitation versus Agglutination

A

Precipitation:
soluble ag plus soluble ab creat insolube complex/visible precipitate

agglutination: clumping/visible agg due to ag/ab; partigular ag aggregates form large complexes when ab present

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11
Q

Principle when RBCs agglutinated by a virus is not allowed to agglutinate because ab in serum inhibit the agglutination by neutralizing the virus

A

hemagglutination
inhibition

(Hemagglutination is inhibited by viral neutralization)

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12
Q

Make monoclononal ab with hybridoma which is

A

B lymphs fused to plasma myeloma cell

(from immunized animal)

only react with one epitope, don’t cross like/form precipitates/not good in precipitation hemmaglutination assays, can’t fix complement

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13
Q

Double radial diffusion also called…or…

non identity have lines of…

identity have lines of….

parital identity have lines of…

A

Double radial diffusion also called…
Ouchterlony or double immunodiffusion

non identity have lines of…intersection

identity have lines of….fusion

parital identity have lines of…partial identity

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14
Q

Another name for electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion

A

immuno-electrophoresis

answer has full word electrophoresis at end

I believe CIE is a form of this…
-ab/ag diffuse thru agar

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15
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis is a combination of…
Immunoelectrophoresis is not…

used to id proteins in both…
urine proteins called….

procedure to id monoclonal ig…

A

electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion
-not electroimmunodiffusion(single)

both serum/urine
-urine bence jones

immunofixation: light chains lamda,kappa

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16
Q

protein electrophoresis + immunodiffusion

-electrophorese proteins
-antiserum fixed to plate using strips agrarose
-bands of precipitation
-monoclonal gammapathies/light/heavy chains

A

immunofixation

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17
Q

CIE, counter current electrophoresis can show this pattern

-2 columns of wells in gel, ag to one, ab to other; current applied and they migrate towards each other, precipitate forms

A

gull wing:

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18
Q

electroimmunodiffusion has two other names

directed mvt on

A

rocket electrophoresis

1D single electroimmunodiffusion

semisolid media
-gel has ab, add STD/CTRLS to other wells, electric current, cone shaped precipitate/rocket

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19
Q

Flurochrome with minimal false readings…

Fluorochrome thats red at 580…

Flurochrome for tissue…

Energy source for fluouresent microscope…

A

Flurochrome with minimal false readings…FITC fluorescein isothicynate

Fluorochrome thats red at 580…TR-ITC tetra-methyl-rhodamine isothicyanate

Flurochrome for tissue…biotin avidin

Energy source for fluouresent microscope…mercury vapor lamp
-very bright light

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20
Q

Sandwich immunoassay is …and….

ELISA
what can be attached to solid phase
what is enzyme and what is enzyme linked to

A

noncompetitive, activity ab direclty proportional to ag
heterogeous
-requires wash step

solid phase well ELISA plates or beads and ag or ab

-ag/ab to well
-PT serum/incubate
-enzyme(horseradish peroxidase linked to AHG
-wash

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21
Q

Complement fixation consists of test and indicatior, what is indicator…

Controls to check anticomplementary factors/neg ctrls will show…

Pos control will show…

Thus PT with ab fixed complement will show….

A

Complement fixation consists of test and indicatior, what is indicator…
SRBCs sensitized with antisheep hemolysin

Controls to check anticomplementary factors/neg ctrls will show…hemolysis

Pos control will show…no hemolysis

Thus PT with ab fixed complement will show inhibition of hemolysis(complement can’t be used to lyze indicator SRBCs)

*must heat inactivate PT serum, only detects IgG

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22
Q

PT with syphillus:
develope antibody… to the nontreponemal ag…

VDRL/RPR are what kind of tests…

A

ab: reagin
ag: cardiolipn

nontreponemal flocculation tests

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23
Q

VDRL:

ag…

serum: ag…
drops of ag…
drops of saline…
check daily

what heat at, how long…
if not tested w/in 4hrs, how long heat…
why heat…

weakly reactive…

can also use this specimen to test…

A

VDRL:

ag…cardiolipin, lecithin

serum: ag…3:1
drops of ag…60
drops of saline…100

-30 drops/0.5ml, 60drops/1ml
-what heat at, how long…56C, 30min
-if not tested w/in 4hrs, how long heat…56C,10min
-heat inactivates complement

-QL: weak reactive is small clumps with many free particles, do quantitative/titer if reactive or weak
-QUANT: highest dilution giving a reative result(not weakly)

can also use this specimen to test…CSF

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24
Q

RPR:
no heat, less specific
uses plastic coated cells

ag…
drops of ag…

rpm/min

reactive=

Testing needle for accuracy…

A

cardiolipin, charcoal
60 drops ag

100rpm/8min

reactive=black clumps

Testing needle for accurary: fill with antigen, hold vertically, count drops in 0.5mL, 30 + or - 1 in 0.5ml is good

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25
Q

Treponemal test:

TPI uses…

FTA-ABS:
ids..in serum..
which treponemal is most sensitive..
sorbant is called…
flourescence label is…and helps…

Microhemmagglutination Test that isn’t likely to be reactive in primary/early secondary…

TP test that uses dilute serum and TP sensitized gelatin particles w/TP ag

A

TPI immobilizes/uses alive TP to PT serum

FTA-ABS
-ids treponemal ab in serum
-most senstive is FTA,ABS
-sorbant is Reiters, removes nonspecific ab, R=removes=reiter
-fluorescent label is flurescein isothiocyanate
with AHG and helps make ag-ab visible

MHA-TP:
-not as senstive in primary/secondary
-PT serum+ SRBC sensitized with TP, agg

TP particle agglutination:
-dilute Pt serum plus TP sensitized gelatin particles w/TP ag
-ab=agg, smooth mat on well

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26
Q

5 Streptococcal antigens

Antigen test: GAS grp A strep ag
LFA/molecular

A

5 Strep antigens:
-streptolysin O (O=oxygen labile)
-streptokinase(dissolves fibrin)

-DNase B, NADase
-hyaluronidase

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27
Q

Strep A tests:
Tests for antibody:
Type of cells used…

Two tests deal with agglutination, agg=ab..

A

Antibody detection:
1.)Agglutination:

-anti-streptolysin O slide test:
tests for antibody to streptolysin O
SRBC, PT ab=agg

-streptozyme: slide agg for all 5 ab
SRBC+ab=agg
-PT antibody detected with antigen coated to SRBC

-

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28
Q

Strep A tests:
tests for antibody

2 tests are neutralizations…ab=no hemolysis or no change

A

2.)Neutralizations:

antistreptolysin O tube test:
-hemolysis inhibition,
-streptolysin O antibody in serum keeps strepO from lysing reagent grpO cells
-no hemolysis, Todds units

-anti-DNase B, pos ab=green stays/isn’t hydrolyzed, it is neutralized
-glomerulonephritis

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29
Q

Principle of ASO tube test…

titer measured in…

A

hemolysis inhibition

Todd/IU
-dilution of last tube no hemolysis

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30
Q

Rapid slide test:

Heterophil antibody test positive is and is reported as…

Paul Bunnel is a rapid diff slide test that uses…rbc as an indicator
-IM will agglutinate what kind of rbc
-Forsmann ab will be…by what kind of rbc

Test that diff between the 3 types of heterophile ab….and uses these two rbcs

A

Stimulated by one antigen, react with unrelated antigen, 1:56 IgM reacts with horse,ox, sheep rbc

Rapid Mono slide test, monspot: heterophile ag, latex agglutination, guinea pig adsorption and horse rbc to detect IM

Positive is agglutination and reported as highest dilution with agglutination

-uses SRBC as indicator
-IM PTs will agglutinate kidney
-but Forsmann ab will be absorbed by the guinea pig kidney

Davidsohn diff test: uses sheep, horse rbcs

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31
Q

Widal and Weil felix detect…

Widal elevated O titer indicates…

Weil Felix detects ab to…
-uses OX19/O2 ag which are..strains

A

Widal and Weil felix detect febrile agglutinins

Widal increased O titer indicates increased agglutinins to S.typhi

Weil Felix detecs ab to rickettsia using proteus strains OX19/2

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32
Q

Confirm EBV with…

IgM antiVCA, antiEA, IgG antiVCA
w/out antiEBNA indicate…

anti EBNA, IgG antiVCA, with out IgM antiVCA indicates…

A

IIFA

Confirm EBV with…

IgM antiVCA, antiEA, IgG antiVCA
w/out antiEBNA indicate…current
*IgM=current, no EBNA=not past

anti EBNA, IgG antiVCA, with out IgM antiVCA indicates…past
*EBNA only in past, no IgM=not current

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33
Q

HSV: goes latent

HSV1: oral, can be urogenital
HSV2: more genital, urogenital, 90% genital, sex, mom baby

HSV3: VZV, chicken pox, ELISA
-Shingles: latent herpes zoster

HSV4: EBV
HSV5:CMV

A
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34
Q

ab to Brucella abortus will cross react with Franciella tularensis

aspergillosis titer of 1:512 is diagnostic

A

.

35
Q

Cryptococcal antigen latex is replacing..
but interference from..

RF has….ab against the Fc portion of…

In the latex slide, PT serum is added to latex coated with…

Can also use…as a source of ab for RF latex

confirm RF with…

A

Cryptococcal antigen latex is replacing india ink; although antigen latex is interfered with RF

RF has IgM ab against the Fc portion of IgG
-RA type 3 hypersensitivity

In the latex slide, PT serum is added to latex coated with AHG
-agglutination not hema
-antibody is IgM

Can also use…as a source of ab for RF latex

confirm with antiCCP cycliccitrullinated peptide

36
Q

mixed connective tissue ab

limited sclerosist/CREST ab

A

RNP

centromere/CREST

37
Q

SLE ab…
pattern…

Scleroderma ab…

sjogrens syndrome ab…
-associated with what lymphoma

A

SLE: dsDNA, Sm
homogenous,diffuse
malar rash

Scleroderma: SCL

sjogrens syndrome ab: SS-A/B
-B cell lymphoma

38
Q

Graves autoab…

Hashimotos ab…

A

Graves: autoab to TSH receptor
-TRab,TSHR, TSI

Hashimoto: auto ab against autoag thryroglobulin

39
Q

Both chronic granulomatus disease and Chediak Higashi have issues with

A

neutrophils

CGD: ineffective phagocytosis=bacterial infections

Chediak: impaired segs

40
Q

T cell def, no thymus

can be enumerated by flow

A

Digeorges

41
Q

Complete/marked def of both T/B…

Partial combined immunodef/thrombocytopenia at birth…

sexlinked/males, absense of plasma cells/no ab
<100 CD19 B cells

A

SCID severe combined immun def
Complete/marked def of both T/B…

Partial combined immunodef/thrombocytopenia at birth…Wiskott Aldrich

Brutons agammaglobemia:
sexlinked/males, absense of plasma cells/no ab
<100 CD19 B cells

42
Q

Serotype HSV..

Assay to type HSV to high specificity…

A

serotype…DFA

high specificyt: ELISA

43
Q

VZV serological type..

rubella testing…and screen for immunity…

T.gondii serological testing…

A

VZV serological type..ELISA

rubella testing…ELISA
-screen for immunity IgG
-respiratory,cross placenta
-german measles, MMR

T.gondii serological testing…ELISA

44
Q

CMV serological test…

false pos with what test…

A

CMV serological test…IgM/IgG antibody
-active: IgM, IgG 4 fold increase
-inactive: no IgM, IgG

false pos with indirect immunofluoresnce

45
Q

Hypersensivity:

Type1:

Type2:

Type 3:

Type 4:

A

Hypersensivity:

Type1: immediate/anaphylactic, IgE
-asthma, bee (wheel, rash)

Type2: ab-ag complex
-transfusion, goodpasture(IgG,IgM)

Type 3: immune complexes
-RA, SLE

Type 4: delayed, dermatiditis
-TB skin test, Mantoux skin
-Poison ivy, GVHD

46
Q

PCR: 3 steps to make copies

A

Denature, Anneal, Extend

47
Q

RIA
competitive, inversely related to concen
RIST: IgE RAST: IgE to specific allergen

A
48
Q

EMIT
enzyme multiplied
small molecules/hormones, color=pos

A
49
Q

Immunoflurecense: ANA, FTA-ABS
-direct: fluorescein labeled ab to PT tissue
-indirect:PT serum to reagent, wash, flurescein labed AHG, wash

-Uses mercury vapor lamp-very bright
-FITC: fluorecein isothiocyanate
-TRITC: red 580nm, tetra-rhodamine-iso-thi-cyanate
-Tissue/culture=biotin=avidin

A
50
Q

FPIA
Flourescence polarization IA
-ag reduces light
-ab +flurescent tagged ag, pos is decreased polarization

A
51
Q

Rheumatoid arthristis tests:
chronic inflammation in joints/tissues

RF: serum or synovial fluid, soluble immune complexes; RF antiglobulins bind Fc fragment of IgG

What reaction is based between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human gamma globulin (IgG)?

RF Slide: RA
-drop of serum on card plus latex reagent with AHG, mix, tilt/rotate for 2min, agglutination means RF present

Latex reagents consist of a stabilized latex suspension coated with albumin and chemically bonded with denatured human gamma globulin. This reagent serves as an antigen in the procedure. If rheumatoid factors (RFs) are present in the serum, macroscopic agglutination will be visible when the latex is mixed with the serum.

A

Rheumatoid arthristis tests:
chronic inflammation in joints/tissues

ESR: inflammation

CRP: protein made by immune system to inflammation

Anti-CCP:
-autoantibody cyclic citrullinated peptide

ANA: antinuclear antibody test
-autoantibody

52
Q

5 Steps of phagocytosis

A

chemotaxis
adherence
engulf
phagosome
digest/destroy

53
Q

Antibody response to antigenic/foreight, immune response phases

A

lag: no ab
log: titer increase log
plateau: titer stabilizes
decline: ag broken down

54
Q

Two steps in agglutination

1.)Sensitiation: physical attachment dependent on
-ph 7.0
-temp: IgM 4-22, IgG 37
-incubation time 15-60min

2.)lattice: crosslinks between sensitized particles and antibodies

A
55
Q

What three reactions have clear supernatants

A

2,3,4+

2+ medium, some free
3+large, some free
4+ one solid

56
Q

What reactions have reddish supernatant

A

MF: most free
weak: barely visible, turbid
1+: small aggregates, free, turbid

57
Q

PCR: amplify

Blots:

DNA:
RNA:
specific proteins:

A

DNA: southern
RNA: northern
specific proteins: Western, HIV

58
Q

ELISA beta HCG
-chromatographic immunoassay
-antibody detects hcg

-beta HCG ab bound to solid medium
-any beta HCG will bind to it

-2nd monoclonal beta HCG +ALP will sandwich and make a bound ab-beta hcg-enzyme labeled ab

-incubation, washed
-chromagenic substrate added, color

A

Beta HCG maintains corpus luteum, stimulates progesterone

detectable amounts 2-3 days after implantation, 8-10 days after conception, 12 days after missed period

peak 2-3 months

SG 1.015 for urine

59
Q

Infectious mononucleosis, EBV

actually increased reactive lymphs

can cause burkitts

DNA herpesvirus

A

Heterophil antibodies:
stimulated by one antigen and react with unrelated antigen

Sig nig titer 1:56

IgM reacts with horse, ox, sheep (horse best)

adsorbed by beef,
NOT ADSORBED by guinea pig kidney

Rapid slide:
agglutionation for detection of IM heterophile ab
-uses suspension of guinea pig kidney to adsorp and horse rbc to react
-1 min mix, agglutination is positive

60
Q

Treponema pallidum:
spirochete, sex

darkfield for people with symptoms

primary: painless chancre

secondary: most contagious, highest amt, rash

latent: no symptoms, abortion

tertiary: 3-10yrs after primary, cardiac, degeneration of neurons

A

NONTREPONEMAL.Reagin:

Reagin: nontreponemal antibodies; against their own or other

Delivery needles:
-fill with antigenj, vertically count drops in 0.5ml; 30 plus or minus 1 drops in 0.5ml ok

RPR/rapid plasma reagin: screen
-agglutionation or floculation with soluble antigen particles
-RPR reagin card: charcoal particle cardiolipin antigen on card; floculation as black clumps on white background

VDRL:
veneral disease research labs
-serum and CSF
-serum heated 56C for 30min inactivate complement
-cardiolipin/lechithin on particles of cholesterol

….

TREPONEMAL tests:
-ab against antigen to confirm positive nontreponemal
-PT serum adsorbed with nonT.pall, fuorecein-conjugated AHG specific for anti-treponemal antibodies

FTA-ABS:
Fluroscent treponemal antibody-adsorption
-heat inactivated adsorbed with Reiter strain/Treponema
-fluorescent labeled AHG

TP-HA:
Treponemal-hemagglutination
-rbcs w/T.pall ag; gel particles

TP-PA:
Treponemal particle agglutination
-serum with colored gelatin particles with treponemal ag in microtiter plates, formation of mat is posisitve

MHA-TP: micro-hem-agglutination
-detects antibodies in serum/edta; fixed chix RBC or sheep rbc with T.pall, antibodies agglutinate the rbc

EIA:
-Competitive: T.pall ag in well, patient ab competes w/enzyme labeled anti-treponemal ab
-Immune capture: wells with IgM/G, serum, enzyme labeled T.pall ag added
-Sandwich: Patient ab bind to T.pall coated wells, enzymed labeled ab/ag added

61
Q

Hep A: not chronic, no reinfection due to antibody protective for life; IgM to HAV

Hep B: DNA, IgM with EIA
-Acute: surface Ag, antiHBc, IgM
-high infectivity: e antigen
-window: anti-HBc
-recovered/immune/vaccination: anti-HBs
-past: anti-HBc IgG

Hep C: RNA, no vaccine, blood trans/needles
-EIA antiHCV

Hep D: RNA, needs B , superinfection, percutaneous

A

Order of appearance:

HBsAg, HBeAg
antiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs

62
Q

EBV: IM, Burkitt, from salivary

-Monospot: serum, sheep/horse RBC, agglutination is postive
-Mono diff test: 2 heterophile ab: Forssman, non; serum with 2 antigen suspensions guinea pig and beef rbc, tested with horse rbc;
*IM agglutinates with guinea pig kidney

EBV antigen specific serologic tests;
-acute: anti-VCA but no ebna
-convalesent/past: IgG antiVCA, antiEBNA

A
63
Q

HIV

ELISA
-screen
-if pos, do 2nd/3rd tests and then confirm with western blot

Rapid screen:
-lateral flow

A
64
Q

CMV: remains latent
-viral culture: shell vial, rapid centrifugation
-PCR
-EIA

A
65
Q

MMR all RNA

Measles: respiratory, EIA for immune status

Mumps: respiratory, fomites, viral culture

Rubella(german measles): pregant
-viral culture, viral protein IFA/EIA, reverse transcripttase PCR
-ab hemagglutination inhibition, latex agg, EIA

A
66
Q

Heterophile agg tests:
antibody will react to unrelated species with common antigen

Mono: IM, EBV, develop antibodies, react to surface antigens on RBCs of different mammalian species
-Monospot: qualitative, solid phase, heterophile ab captured by antigen band of bovine RBC in membrane, dye conjugated AHG IgM in pad

Paul Bunnell: hetero ab agglutinate sheep rbc, dilutions of heat inactivated serum, agglutination, titer

Weil Felix: typhus, Rickettsiae, Proteus OX

A
67
Q

Febrile agglutinins:
ab from infections will induce fever

Febrile antigens slide/tube test: use serum to detect antibodies to these; mechanical rotator 1 min at 80-100rpm; agglutination
Antigens in test kit:
-Rickettsia, typhus
-Brucella
-Salmonella
-Proteus

Widal test:
-detect febrile agglutinins to Salmonella, O and H antigens are affixed to particles and adsorbed to colored latex particles
-2-4 fold rise in titer

A
68
Q

CRP Slide test:
-slide agglutination: CRP protein/antigen in serum agglutinates with latex particles coated in anti-CRP
-inflammation, rheumatic fever, RA
-Dispense one drop of serum vertically, add latex reagent, mix in circular mannuar, tilt/rotate for 2min, agglutionation is positive

A
69
Q

ASO: antistreptolysin screen/titer

Slide: one drop serum, latex dropper, mix tilt/rotate 2min, agglutination

Titer:

A
70
Q

Autoimmunity is the presence of antibodies (which are made by B lymphocytes) and T lymphocytes directed against normal components of a person (autoantigens).

A
71
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis:
autoimmune, circulating immune complexes

Rapid slide test for antinucleoprotein:
-SLE latex test: suspension of polystyrene latex particles coated with DNP (deoxy-nucleoprotein)
-latex reagent is mixed with the serum with ANA
-the DNP coated latex particles bind to the ANAs in the serum

ANA: anitnuclear antibodies
-immunoglobulins that react with nucleus or nuclear components in the tissue of the host
-cannot confirm disease, screens
-indirect immunoflurescent test uses fluorescein-conjugated AHG which binds to ANA antibodies in serum
-HEp2 cells
-Fluorescence used in UV light

A

ANA Patterns:

Homogenous or peripheral:
-suggests SLE is titer high

Speckled:
SLE

Nucleolar:
-RNA
-scleroderma

Centromere:
-CREST

72
Q

WNV: rna, birds via mosquitos, IgM ab in serum/CSF

Influeza:
-RNA respiratory
-A,B,C surface proteins: A,B seasonal
-rapid flu tests antigens

COVID19-SARS-COV2: viral tests, RTPCR viral test

A
73
Q

TORCH panel:
ab illness to pregnant, birth

ToxOplasma
Rubella
CMV
HSV

A
74
Q

TB: mycobacterium tuberculosis
-inhaled, inside macrophages

Interferon-gamma release assay:
IFN release by Tcells
-QuantiFERON-TB Gold in Tube: ELISA whole blood
-T-SPOT.TB: ELISA IFN-y T cells

Mantoux:
-screen exposed to; PPD solube antigen from tb cell wall
-PPD injected intradermally: 48-72hrs later for induration from cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity type4

A
75
Q

Thyroid autoantibodies

Hashimoto thyroidistis
-most common, woman
-rubbery goiter
-antiTPO (thyroperoxidase)

Graves:
-woman, firm goiter
-TRAb ab

A
76
Q

MHA-TP is another serological test for syphilis. What does MHA represent in methodology?
Question 123Answer

a.
Micro Hemagglutination Assay

b.
Micro Hemostatic Array

c.
Microbiological Human Antibodies

d.
Multi-hemagglutinins Assay

A

Micro Hemagglutination Assay is one of the serological tests for syphilis. It is used to confirm that a positive nontreponemal test result has been caused by syphilis.

77
Q

What are immunogens?
Question 124Answer

a.
Antigens that can induce antibody production

b.
Platelets that function during an immune response

c.
Proteins that are important for proper immune system function

d.
Reagents used in sophisticated blood bank testing

A

Antigens that can induce antibody production

Immunogens are antigens that can induce antibody production. Immunoassays utilize antigen-antibody reactions. Antigens and antibodies are used as very specific reagents.

78
Q

What is the PCRs action when there are selected sections of DNA or RNA?
Question 125Answer

a.
Denature (unfold)

b.
Isolate (remove)

c.
Reproduce (amplify)

d.
Stain (incubated)

A

Reproduce (amplify)

To reproduce, or amplify—previously, amplification of DNA involved cloning of the segments and took weeks, however, PCR methodology takes only a few hours.

79
Q

What antibodies are heterogeneous and lack the specificity of mAbs?
Question 126Answer

a.
Agglutination

b.
Polyclonal antibodies

c.
Precipitation

d.
Sensitization

A

Polyclonal antibodies

These antibodies are heterogeneous and lack the specificity of monoclonal antibodies.

80
Q

What test provides a suspension of polystyrene latex particles coated with deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNP)?
Question 127Answer

a.
Optical immunoassays (OIA)

b.
SLE Latex Test

c.
Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)

d.
Western blot

A

The SLE Latex Test (Thermo Scientific, Waltham, MA) provides a suspension of polystyrene latex particles coated with deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNP). When the latex reagent is mixed with serum containing the ANAs, binding to the DNP-coated latex particles produces macroscopic agglutination. The procedure is positive in SLE and systemic rheumatic disease such as rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and Sjogren’s syndrome.

81
Q

What kind of condition does an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) detect?
Question 128Answer

a.
Decreased muscle strength

b.
Genetic mutations

c.
Immune responses

d.
Radioactivity observations

A

Immune responses

ELISA uses components of the immune system and chemicals to detect immune responses in the body.

82
Q

What reaction is based between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human gamma globulin (IgG)?
Question 129Answer

a.
Fecal occult (Guaiac) blood test

b.
Infectious mononucleosis (mono) test

c.
Rapid slide agglutination tests

d.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) agglutination test

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) agglutination test

Latex reagents consist of a stabilized latex suspension coated with albumin and chemically bonded with denatured human gamma globulin. This reagent serves as an antigen in the procedure. If rheumatoid factors (RFs) are present in the serum, macroscopic agglutination will be visible when the latex is mixed with the serum.

83
Q

What system uses an antibody directed toward the agent being assayed as being fixed firmly to a solid matrix, such as the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or the inside of a reaction well?
Question 130Answer

a.
Chemiluminescent immunoassay (CLIA)

b.
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

c.
Optical immunoassays (OIA)

d.
Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)

A

Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)

A modification of SPIA uses a disposable plastic cassette consisting of the antibody-bound membrane and a small chamber to which the specimen can be added. An absorbent material is placed below the membrane to wick the liquid reactants through the membrane.

84
Q

Testing
Acute, 2 weeks convalescent

A

Titer: reciprocal of highest dilution gives reaction

4 fold increase is current