AML Flashcards

1
Q

What

A

More common form of acute leukaemia in adults.
May be primary disease or follow a secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disease.
Maturational arrest of bone marrow (BM) cells (blood cell precursors) in first stages of development.
Mechanism: activation of abnormal genes through chr. translocations and other genetic abnormalities -> reduced number of normal blood cells. Failure of apoptosis leads to accumulation in various organs, esp liver and spleen.
Genetically heterogeneous disease - can be classified into subgroups based on molecular genetic defect
Most subtypes show >30% blasts of a myeloid lineage in blood, BM or both.

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2
Q

Classification - WHO

A

1) AML with characteristic genetic abnormalities - ([t(8;21)], inversions in chr 16, [t(15;17)]. Higher rate of remission and better prognosis
2) AML with multilineage dysplasia - prior myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or myeloproliferative disease that transforms into AML. More often in elderly patients, worse prognosis.
3) AML and MDS, therapy-related - prior chemo/radiation and subsequently develop AML or MDS. May have specific chr abnormalities, worse prognosis.
4) AML, not otherwise catergorised.

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3
Q

Classification - French-American-British (FAB)

A
M0 - undifferentiated
M1 - without maturation
M2 - with granuloctic maturation
M3 - acute promyelocytic
M4 - granulocytic and monocytic maturation
M5 - monocytic
M6 - erythroleukaemia
M7 - megakaryoblastic
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4
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3

A

associated with [t(15;17)]
Fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes
Presents younger than other types of AML (25yo)
Auer rods (seen with myeloperoxidase stain)
DIC or thrombocytopenia often at presentation
Good prognosis

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5
Q

Epidemiology/Risk factors

A

Most common acute leukaemia in adults
Incidence increases with age (median 67yo)

Most cases arise without apparent cause
Conditions that predispose include: MDSs, aplastic anaemia, myelofibrosis, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinurea, polycythaemia rubra vera
Most patients with CML eventually develop a blast phase indistinguishable from AML
Congenital disorders that predispose (usually develop in childhood): Bloom’s syndrome, Down’s syndrome, congenital neutropenia, Fanconi’s anaemia, neurofibromatosis

Benzene exposure (via aplastic anaemia)
Chemotherapy (via a myelodysplastic condition - 3-5 years; or 3-6 months, no myelodisplastic condition)

??irradiation - poor studies

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6
Q

Presentation - history

A

Symptoms may be due to bone marrow failure causing anaemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia or due to organ infiltration.

Children/young adults: acute symptoms over days to weeks.
Older people: fatigue over weeks or months; dizziness, SoBOE, angina/MI if CHD
Fever (WCC very high, neuts low), failure to respond to abx.
Bleeding (thrombocytopenia), coagulopathy (DIC), or both. Haemorrhage in lungs, GI and CNS can be fatal.
Fullness in LUQ and early satiety (splenomegaly)
Leukostasis -> respiratory distress and altered mental state (WCC extremely high (>100)). Medical emergency.
Bone pain

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7
Q

Presentation - signs

A

Pallor
Non-specific signs of infection, pneumonia
Most common sites of infiltration are liver, spleen and gums.
Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
Gingivitis (swollen, bleeding gums)
Thrombocytopenia -> petechial; DIC may aggravate and cause larger lesions
Infiltration of skin -> leukaemia cutis (uncommon)

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8
Q

Investigations - bloods

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia; WCC may be normal, high or low, sometimes extremely high, neutrophils are depleted and replaced with blast cells.
Clotting - DIC common (esp in M3), with prolonged PT, low levels of fibrinogen and fibrin degredation products present.
LDH: raised
Urate: may be raised due to rapid cell turnover
LFTs, U+Es: baseline before chemo; reduced K+, Ca2+ and Mg2+ in M4 and M5
If fever present, appropriate investigations and management of infection

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9
Q

Investigation - Specialist diagnostic tests

A

Bone marrow aspiration - DIAGNOSTIC
Must have >20% blasts in peripheral blood to diagnose AML.
If potentially suitable for BMT, HLA type them and family members, and do donor search
Cytochemical stains to classify M1 - M7 and flow cytometry to differentiate M0 and M7
Cytogenetic studies to subgroup - PROGNOSTIC INDICATOR - and differentiate t(15;17) (M3) - treated differently
Children: chromosomal analysis

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10
Q

Investigation - Imaging

A

ECG - chemo can be cardiotoxic
CXR - pneumonia or heart disease
Multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan - chemo cardiotoxic

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11
Q

Management - criteria for response

A

Blast clearance in bone marrow to <5% of all nucleated cells
Morphologically normal haematopoiesis
Return of peripheral blood cell counts to normal levels

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12
Q

Management - conservative

A

Education
MDT
Management is coordinated in specialist centres

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13
Q

Management - chemo

A

Treatment usually in two phases - induction (to induce remission) and post-remission consolidation (intensification)
Number of different chemo agents used

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14
Q

Management - SCT

A

Stem cell transplant has significant relapse free and overall survival benefit for intermediate and high risk AML but not low risk in first complete remission
If no family donor, search international registry for HLA-matched unrelated donor

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15
Q

Management - M3 - acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL)

A

All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) and arsenic trioxide (ATO)
Usually in combo with other chemo
Supportive management, esp managing DIC and avoiding invasive procedures as much as possible are important.

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16
Q

Management - other things

A

Blood product replacement
Antibiotics for infections
Allopurinol to reduce uric acid levels
Leukophoresis prior to chemo if excessive leukocytosis at presentation
Reverse barrier nursing when in neutropenic phases of treatment

17
Q

Prognosis - general

A

Dependent on age, cell type and disease burden
Poor prognostic factors: socio-economic deprivation; >20% blasts after first course of chemo; deletions of chr 5 or 7
About 13% of patient develop a secondary malignancy

18
Q

Prognosis - children

A

80% achieve remission following induction
SCT if suitable donor - 60-70% long term remission or cure
Survival is increasing (now around 70%)
Poor prognosis: age 0-2 years (but survival also improving)
Good prognosis: AML

19
Q

Prognosis - adults

A

Age: younger is best prognosis; >60 is worst prognosis (have ok remission but transient) - less favourable cytogenetic markers, increased resistance to chemo, poorer initial performance status and comorbidities -> limits intensive chemo
Cytogenetic analysis: t(8;21), t(15;17) or inversion 16 have best prognosis; normal cytogenetic have intermediate prognosis; complex karyotype abnormalities or chr monosomies have poorest prognosis.
Other poor prognostic factors: patients failing to respond to one or two induction cycles (refractory); AML resulting from myelodysplasia or previous chemo; pre-existing comorbidities.
M3/APL: prognosis good! Good remission rates but risk of haemorrhagic complications during induction is higher.