Alvey - Molecular Biology Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

name the reagents required for PCR

A
template (DNA or cDNA) 
primers (need to know DNA seq for these)
enzyme (Taq polymerase)
dNTPs
Buffer - MgCl2
Appropriate temps - thermocycler
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2
Q

name the stages in a PCR reaction and the temps they occur at

A

starts at 25°C
DNA denaturation - 95°C
Primer annealing - 50°C
Primer extension - 72°C

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3
Q

how is it ensured that DNA doesn’t reanneal in a PCR reaction?

A

primers anneal to DNA as they’re added in excess - DNA doesn’t reanneal

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4
Q

name the 2 DNA polymerases that can be used in PCR

A

Taq polymerase - Thermo aquaticus

PFU - high fidelity and proofreading ability

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5
Q

how can PCR results be analysed (hint: we have done this in labs)

A

Run gels – look at band size (how much PCR product you have)/specificity (how many bands you have)

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6
Q

name 7 applications of PCR

A

Genetic screening – modify primers to pick out certain mutations
Pathogen detection – viral DNA in blood sample
DNA fingerprinting - genetic makeup of a organism
Gene expression analysis
Sequencing
Template generation for cloning
Gibson Assembly

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7
Q

what is RT-PCR? why is it used?

A
reverse transcription - PCR
used to find out:
how much a certain gene is being expressed
where the gene is being expressed
splice variants in a population
how much mRNA is being produced
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8
Q

what are the steps in RT-PCR?

A

mRNA + reverse transcriptase + primer = cDNA
RNAse removes RNA – (ss)cDNA left
Add primers and polymerase = dsDNA formed
DNA can now be amplified in PCR

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9
Q

what is q-PCR? why is it used?

A

Quantitative real-time PCR

Used to measure amount of template

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10
Q

describe the steps in qPCR

A

1) Denaturation step
2) Annealing step
3) Extension step + SYBR green (fluoresces when attached to dsDNA)

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11
Q

name a specific type of qPCR and explain how it works

A

Allele-specific PCR:
Specificity comes from primers
SYBR green is non-specific, binds to any dsDNA
Amount of fluorescence proportional to amount of dsDNA produced
At end of extension step is when fluorescence is measured
qPCR is measured in cycles using an arbitrary unit called cycle Threshold (cT)
Measure background level of fluorescence by not adding the template immediately (compare fluorescence readings to this value)
After each extension step the PCR machine measures fluorescence

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12
Q

what does a low cT number indicate in qPCR?

A

a low cT number = a higher copy number of template DNA (it takes fewer cycles of qPCR to overcome the threshold value of fluorescence)

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13
Q

what is site-directed mutagenesis?

A

In-vitro mutagenesis technique
Used to introduce specific changes into a DNA sequence (you have to know the original sequence for this) to find out whether an a/a or protein is particularly important in an organism you are studying

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14
Q

which amino acid is used to replace a suspected important a/a in site directed mutagenesis?

A

alanine - v boring a/a

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15
Q

describe the steps of site-directed mutagenesis

A

1) Design primers that work in both directions, with one deliberate mismatch in middle of the primer
2) PCR amplifies all around the plasmid
3) Dpn1 digestions of template (dsPlasmids are mainly made up of two newly synthesised strands, however ones that are made up of a new strand and an old strand are digested by endonucleases to remove the mismatched base pair)
4) Transformation of mutant plasmid (added to E. coli - this repairs the nicks in the DNA where the newly synthesised DNA meets the primer)

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16
Q

what is a methylation-dependent restriction enzyme? give and example of one and state why is it used in site-directed mutagenesis

A

a methylation-dependent restriction enzyme is a restriction enzyme that only digests methylated DNA.
example: DpnI
why is it used?: in a PCR reaction the DNA that is amplified isn’t methylated. Therefore the only methylated DNA present in a sample is the DNA that you started with (which doesn’t contain the mutation you have added with your primers). This means that the methylated DNA doesn’t contain your deliberate mutation, so you want it gone - DpnI degrades this DNA for you

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17
Q

what is sanger sequencing?

A

essentially a DNA synthesis reaction by the addition of ddNTPs to create fragments increasing in length
Allows DNA sequencing of 1000-1500 base pairs of good quality sequence
Still most accurate sequencing method

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18
Q

what 2 pieces of information do you have to know in order to carry out sanger sequencing?

A

the length of the fragment and the base at the last position

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19
Q

list the reagents required for sanger sequencing

A
Template DNA
Oligonucleotide primer
Buffer (including Mg)
dNTP
ddNTP (small amount)
DNA polymerase (Taq)
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20
Q

how do you analyse the results of sanger sequencing using a polyacrylamide gel?

A

you put each of your 4 tubes of sanger sequences (ddATP/ddDTP/ddCTP/ddGTP) into 4 separate wells at the top of the gel. at the 5’ end (furthest away from the wells) is your smallest fragment, and at the 3’ end (closest to the wells) is your largest fragment. as you have made a complementary strand to your template strand you have to use complementary-base pairing rules to work out your original sequence

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21
Q

describe an easier way of analysing sanger sequences than using polyacrylamide gels

A

Fluorescent detection
Each ddNTP is tagged with a fluorescent marker (4 different colours) which a machine picks up and analyses. The last base is determined by the colour of the marker.
Can run the reaction at the same time, instead of four separate reactions.

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22
Q

if in your fluorescent analysis of you sanger sequenced DNA there is a double peak in
a single base position what does this indicate about your DNA sequence?

A

If in a chromatogram there is a double peak at one base position, then:

  • The organism the template is from is a heterozygote
  • This means there were 2 templates present in the reaction mix (one from each chromosome)
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23
Q

name 2 limitations of sanger sequencing

A

Only sequence one template at a time

Need to have some knowledge of the sequence to design the primer

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24
Q

genomes and expression profiles are sequenced using NGS. what is NGS? what are the common features of it?

A

next generation sequencing
common features:
- Millions of reacts occur in parallel
- These reactions are spatially separated
- No sequence knowledge of the template is necessary (this is achieved by adding adapters to the template in which DNA is synthesised from)

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25
Q

describe the steps in traditional cloning

A
  • Chose restriction enzyme that cuts vector once
  • Digest insert and vector with same enzyme (or enzyme that creates complementary sticky ends)
  • Ligate insert into vector
  • Transform into E. coli to amplify and maintain the plasmid
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26
Q

name 3 limitations of traditional cloning

A

Restricted to single insertion per cloning cycle
Inefficient for large inserts
Plasmid design can be restricted by restriction site availability (ie enzyme may cut gene in middle)

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27
Q

what is gibson assembly?

A

a scar-less cloning method which relies upon recombination rather than restriction to join fragments

28
Q

give 4 benefits of using gibson assembly

A

Can assemble multiple components in a single reaction (eg ORF + purification tag + promoter + vector)
Can accommodate v long inserts
Can accommodate up to 4-6 fragments in a single step
Restriction digest (therefore restriction sites) aren’t necessary -results in seamless cloning

29
Q

describe the steps in gibson assembly

A

Imagine and design plasmid
Design primers – the primer has to amplify the inserts and be complementary to the next bit of insert/plasmid
PCR – amplifies the fragments. Cut the bands from the gel (post-PCR) and extract linear DNA fragments
Assemble – add Gibson enzyme mix to create plasmid
Transform into E. coli/PCR – stores or amplifies plasmid (plasmids are routinely sequenced after PCR to check for errors

30
Q

describe how the primers create scar-less cloning

A

overlapping DNA fragments are created with primers that are complementary to both the insert and the vector. 5’ –> 3’ exonuclease activity then creates single stranded 3’ overhangs allowing the fragments (with the complementary primers) to anneal
DNA pol extends the 3’ ends from after the primer and DNA ligase anneals them.

31
Q

give 4 advantages of golden gate assembly

A

No need to have repeat elements (doesn’t use homology unlike Gibson)
Seamless (restriction sites are lost during cloning)
Reaction can occur in a single step
Can assemble multiple fragments at once

32
Q

give 2 disadvantages of golden gate assembly

A

Have to avoid the recognition sequence within your insert DNA
Although there are theoretically 256 (NNNN) distinct sticky ends, sequences that differ by only one base may result in unintended ligation products

33
Q

explain the steps in goldengate assembly

A

GG assembly uses type IIS restriction enzymes which cleave away from their recognition site.
BsaI is a type of type IIS restriction enzyme - BsaI sites are introduced into the vector (2 in the vector) and insert DNA by primer design (flank the insert) and create 4 NTP overhangs (the sticky ends can be designed into any seq of 4NTPs therefore they can be a continuation of the insert fragment (leaves no scar)
as the vector contains 2 recognition sites the recognition sequence can be within the part of the vector that the inserted fragments replace (and are therefore lost = scarless)

34
Q

which analytical methods are used in analysing RNA expression and localisation

A
used for analysing gene expression at the level of transcription
RT-PCR
Northern blots
in situ hybridisation
microarrays
35
Q

which analytical methods are used in analysing protein expression and translation

A

western blots

reporter genes

36
Q

name 4 reporter genes

A

green fluorescent protein
luciferase
beta-glucoronidase
beta-galactosidase

37
Q

name 3 methods for analysing interactions between proteins and other molecules

A
Chromatin immunoprecipitation (DNA:Protein)
Pull down assay (protein:protein in vitro)
Yeast two-hybrid (protein:protein in vivo)
38
Q

describe northern blotting

A

RNA extracted and run on gel
then transferred to membrane and hybridised with a labelled DNA gene-specific probe
N blots reveal size and abundance of your specific gene
can reveal tissue-specific expressions if you extract the total RNA from different tissues/developmental stages
can reveal splice variants

39
Q

describe in situ hybridisation

A

binding labelled probe to thin slice fixed tissue

FISH can show specific mRNA accumulation patterns in a tissue/organ/organism

40
Q

describe microarray transcriptional profiling

A

2 different mRNAs mRNA —> cDNA
cDNA attached to label
mix 2 samples together and then hybridise to surface
DNA microarrays monitor expression 1000s genes simultaneously
describe expression profile of particular tissue/organ

41
Q

describe western blotting

A

proteins extracted and resolved by SDS PAGE (separates protein by size)
proteins transferred to mem
incubate with specific antibody (against target protein)
incubated with secondary antibody to visualise 1st antibody

42
Q

what are reporter genes

A

Reporter genes are used to analyse gene expression. They are known genes whose RNA or protein levels can be measured easily

43
Q

what is co-localisation?

A

the overlap of 2 images with different fluorescent markers - allows comparison between where genes are (both) expressed

44
Q

describe chromatin immunoprecipitation

A

study of DNA-protein interactions in vivo (within context living cell)
DNA-protein incubated with primary and secondary antibodies
the secondary antibody is prebound to a resin (which enters the pellet)
DNA-protein complexes are immunoprecipitated out of solution
unbound DNA remains in supernatant
Bound and unbound DNA are analysed and compared

45
Q

describe a pull-down assay

A

protein-protein interactions in vitro
uses GST-tagged protein ‘bait’ to identify new protein partners
the ‘prey’ protein can be from a cell lysate
proteins are eluted and visualised by SDS-PAGE (see which ‘prey’ proteins have bound the ‘bait’ and which have been eluted
new partners identified by w. blotting or mass spec

46
Q

describe yeast two-hybrid analysis

A

protein-protein interactions in vivo
‘bait’ fused to DNA binding domain
‘prey’ fused to an activating region
if the ‘bait’ and ‘prey’ bind together (and with their respective domains), a reporter gene is switched on

47
Q

what are DNA libraries?

A

collections of different overlapping fragments within the same vector
libraries are made from a specific source (eg yeast genomic or human hepatocyte cell expression library)

48
Q

describe in brief how DNA libraries are constructed

A

DNA fragments generated by restriction endonuclease activity
Fragments ligated into vector
Collection recombinant molecules transferred to host cells (eg E. coli) (one molecule per cell)
Library screened with molecular probe to identify the clone that contains the gene of interest (GoI)

49
Q

name 3 types of DNA library and explain them

A

Genomic libraries: whole genome (non-coding incl.) eg yeast
cDNA libraries: DNA copy of RNA; only the expressed genome (no introns) eg human
Sequencing libraries: libraries used to sequence genomes, used in HGP

50
Q

describe how genomic DNA is extracted when constructing a genomic library

A

Extract gDNA (genomic DNA) using restriction enzymes
Fragments must be appropriate size
Generation of compatible sticky ends using BamHI and Sau3A

51
Q

state the size of the recognition site in BamHI and Sau3A and explain why one will be favoured in cutting the plasmid

A

BamH1 (6 base recognition site)
Sau3A (4 base recognition site)
BamH1 used in plasmid vector as it has a 6 base recognition site therefore there is less of a chance of it being cut in multiple places

52
Q

describe how and why gDNA is partially digested when constructing a genomic library

A

Partially digest the gDNA:
Complete digestion: the restriction enzyme has cut every restriction site
Incomplete digestion: the restriction enzyme has cut some recognition sites
- This makes overlapping fragments

53
Q

what is loaded into a gel when constructing a genomic library? which fragment sizes are chosen?

A

the overlapping fragments produced by the partial digestion of gDNA by Sau3A are loaded into the gel
2-8kb fragments are chosen

54
Q

why are Sau3A and BamHI used in constructing a genomic library?

A

they generate complementary sticky ends

55
Q

why and when is a plasmid used as a vector? whats its max insert size?

A

uses multicopy plasmids
cDNA cloning and expression libraries
max insert size 10kb

56
Q

why and when is a M13 phage used as a vector? whats its max insert size?

A

double stranded replicative form of M13
genomic libraries and sequencing projects
max insert size: 20kb

57
Q

why and when is a yeast artificial chromosome used as a vector? whats its max insert size?

A

why use it:
contain telomeres, centromeres (to ensure segregation into daughter cells) and replicating sequence (ability to replicate)
max insert:
1000kb
used for:
analysis of large genomes - makes library more manageable

58
Q

what is the difference in the M13 genome and replicative form? how can inserts be sequenced in parallel?

A

M13 has a (+)ssDNA genome but is replicated as a dsDNA replicative form (RF) in E. coli
DNA can be cloned in the RF form and isolated as ssDNA from phage particles
M13 used in HGP
Inserts can be sequenced in parallel using a common universal primer
Primer is complementary to vector adjacent to insert

59
Q

describe how RNA is extracted when a cDNA library is being constructed (ie step 1)

A

rRNA is most common form of RNA, need to collect only mRNA
mRNA has 5’ m7G cap and polyA tail: use oligo (dT) affinity chromatography
Oligo dT is immobilised and recognises the polyA tail

60
Q

describe how mRNA

is collected from the RNA when a cDNA library is being constructed (ie step 2)

A

All RNA population from cell loaded in column containing oligo dT
mRNA with polyA tail bind to column. Other RNA washed off with NaCl
The mRNA can be eluted from the column by using a low [NaCl] buffer

61
Q

describe how cDNA is synthesized from mRNA when a cDNA library is being constructed (ie step 3)

A

Oligo dT acts as a primer (TTTTTT…)
Reverse transcriptase and dNTP’s added to extend the TTTT… tail
Cap trapping means the full length cDNA is copied (only synthesises things with m7G cap and tail)
RNAse I/heat or alkaline denaturation removes the ssRNA

62
Q

describe how the (ss)cDNA’s complementary strand is synthesised when a cDNA library is being constructed (ie step 4)

A

Single stranded cDNA has its 3’ end extended using a terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
This adds a series of G’s to the 3’ end (essentially acting as a known primer)
PCR amplifies from this primer as the tails are a series of G’s and T’s (ie there are primers to work from)

63
Q

describe how the dsDNA is transformed into its vector when a cDNA library is being constructed (ie step 5)

A

cDNA treated with methylase to protect it from the exonuclease activity
EcoR1 linker (restriction) sites ligated to the cDNA ends
Linkers are digested by EcoR1, cDNA protected by methyl groups
Product inserted into EcoR1-ligated vector

64
Q

name 3 methods of finding a clone with your gene of interest in it

A

synthesised oligonucleotides
random priming
screening a library by hybridisation

65
Q

describe how synthesised oligonucleotides are used to identify clones containing your gene of interest

A

MUST know peptide sequence for this
Use peptide sequence and codon tables to work out all the possible codon sequences
These added to mix where one will anneal

66
Q

describe how random printing is used to identify clones containing your gene of interest

A

Have sample of DNA but don’t know its sequence
Use a mixture of 4096 sequences (4(diff NTPs)^6)
Some will anneal
Add DNAP which has been labelled with 32P.
Denature, hybridise, use labelled probe as primer

67
Q

describe how screening a library by hybridisation is used to identify clones containing your gene of interest

A

For hybridisation assays DNA must be bound to a membrane surface
Colonies transferred from agar plate to membrane and are then lysed
After NaOH wash and baking the DNA is now fixed on a membrane
Radioactive probe is added and binds to complementary DNA
Autoradiography (x-ray) is used to highlight the clones with the correct sequence
- This is positive screening