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Pharmacology > Altklausur > Flashcards

Altklausur Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
A) The toxic effects of drug A may be due to a drug interaction when co-administered drug B induces CYP3A4 that degrades drug A into its inactive metabolite
B) The toxic effects of drug A may be due to a drug interaction when co-administered drug B blocks CYP3A4 that degrades drug A into its inactive metabolite
C) Drug A may be ineffective due to a drug interaction when co-administered drug B induces CYP2D6 that degrades drug A into its inactive metabolite
D) CYP2D6 is a prominent example for a polymorphic CYP enzyme
E) Grapefruit juice can block CYP3A4

A

A) The toxic effects of drug A may be due to a drug interaction when co-administered drug B induces CYP3A4 that degrades drug A into its inactive metabolite

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2
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the bioavailability of a drug is false?
A) is the fraction of the administered dose reaching the systemic circulation
B) is calculated by the ratio of the area under the curves (AUC) following oral drug application and the maximal plasma concentration following intravenous drug application
C) is dependent of first pass metabolism
D) ranges from 0 to 100 % after oral application
E) indicates the concentration at the drug target (e.g. receptor, enzyme)

A

D) ranges from 0 to 100 % after oral application

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3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding drugs interacting with the RAAS is false?
A) Candesartan Cilexetil is a prodrug
B) Captopril is an inhibitor of ACE2
C) Renin can be inhibited by aliskiren
D) Sacubitril induces an increase of BNP
E) Icatibant is an antagonist at B2 receptors

A

A) Candesartan Cilexetil is a prodrug

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4
Q

Which of the following statements regarding telmisartan is true?
A) Compared to its affinity at AT2 receptor, the ki value of telmisartan at AT1 receptors is >10,000 fold higher
B) Cough is a typical side effect of temisartan
C) Telmisartan delays the onset of type 2 diabetes
D) Telmisartan lowers the ventricular ejection fraction
E) Telmisartan reduces the plasma levels of angiotensinII

A

A) Compared to its affinity at AT2 receptor, the ki value of telmisartan at AT1 receptors is >10,000 fold higher

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

The typical mechanisms of action of antiepileptic drugs include the
A) agonism at NMDA receptors
B) modulation of voltage dependent Ca2+ channels
C) permanent and irreversible setting of voltage gated Na+ channels to resting closed state
D) activation of GABA transaminase
E) inactivation of GABA decarboxylase

A

B) modulation of voltage dependent Ca2+ channels

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anti epileptic drugs is FALSE?

A) The alpha1-subunit of the GABAA receptor mediates the anti epileptic action of benzodiazepines
B) Up to now, no anti epileptic drug has been found to be effective in the prevention of epileptogenesis
C) Many anti epileptic drugs are effective by reducing GABA degradation
D) Benzodiazepines are regarded as the agents of first choice for anti epileptic treatment
E) Many anti epileptic drugs are blockers of voltage dependent Na+ channels

A

D) Benzodiazepines are regarded as the agents of first choice for anti epileptic treatment -> sedative side effects!!!

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The thyroid hormone receptors TRalpha and TRbeta are encoded by 2 different agents
B) The thyroid hormone receptors isoforms TRbeta1 and TRbeta2 are generated by alternative splicing
C) TR only increases but dies nit inhibit the expression of target genes
D) TRalpha1, TRbeta1 and TRbeta2 display extensive structural similarities, with the exception of an N-terminal extension, which is absent in TRalpha1
E) TRs act mainly as heterodimers with the retinoid acid nuclear receptor

A

C) TR only increases but does not inhibit the expression of target genes

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8
Q

Which of the filling statements concerning the main mode of action of methimazole is correct?

A) Inhibition of iodine uptake in the thyroid gland
B) Inhibition of TRH secretion
C) Inhibition of TRH secretion
D) Inhibition of thyroid peroxidase
E) Increase metabolism of T3

A

D) Inhibition of thyroid peroxidase

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Liraglutid

A) has more than 90 % homology to human GLP-1
B) typically increases the body weight
C) lowers cardiovascular mortality
D) enhances the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells
E) has an elimination half-life of approximately 24 h

A

B) typically increases the body weight

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10
Q

Which of the following statements addressing the mechanism on oral anti diabetic agents is FALSE?

A) Metformin inhibits the mitochondrion specific isoform of glycerophosphate dehydrogenase
B) Empagliflozin specifically blocks SGLT2
C) Sitagliptine inhibits DPP4
D) Acerbose is a glucosidase inhibitor
E) Pioglitazone is a PPAR gamma inhibitor

A

D) Acerbose is a glucosidase inhibitor

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) is
A) a thrombolytic agent
B) an antihypertensive agent
C) a lipid lowering drug
D) an anti diabetic drug
E) a platelet aggregation inhibitor

A

E) a platelet aggregation inhibitor

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12
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke is
A) the use of ACE inhibitors
B) cerebral amyloid antipathy
C) acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) use
D) tissue plasminogen activator treatment
E) old age

A

A) the use of ACE inhibitors

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Competitive antagonists increase the ED50 value of the corresponding agonist
B) Competitive antagonists do not alter the maximal effect of the corresponding agonist
C) non competitive antagonists bind allosterically to the corresponding receptor
D) non competitive antagonists lead to a right shift of the dose-response curve of the corresponding agonist
E) non competitive antagonists reduce the Emax of the corresponding agonist

A

D) non competitive antagonists lead to a right shift of the dose-response curve of the corresponding agonist

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The EC50 of different agonists at a given receptor can vary
B) The potency pD2 of an agonist is calculated from its EC50 value
C) The maximal response (Emax) of different agonists at a given receptor can vary
D) The intrinsic activity alpha of an agonist determines its Emax
E) The potency pD2 of an agonist is determined by its intrinsic activity alpha

A

E) The potency pD2 of an agonist is determined by its intrinsic activity alpha

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) FLIPR stands for “Fluorometric Imaging Plate Reader”
B) Receptor antagonists cannot be identified with the FLIPR technology
C) The FLIPR technology allows the measurement of intracellular Ca2+ concentrations
D) With FLIPR technology, it is not possible to observe Ca2+ concentrations in single cells (ca2+ imaging)
E) With FLIPR technology, new specific ligands of receptors can be identified

A

B) Receptor antagonists cannot be identified with the FLIPR technology

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Orexin are peptides for the potential treatment of narcolepsy
B) All orexin receptor antagonists are peptides
C) Orexin receptor antagonists are being developed for the treatment of sleep disorders
D) [Ala11, D-Leu15] Orexin-B is an orexin type 2 (OX2) receptor selective agonist
E) Orexins affect food intake and metabolism

A

B) All orexin receptor antagonists are peptides

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17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding benzodiazepines (BZDs) is FALSE?

A) the sedative effect of BZD relies crucially on the alpha1 subunit of the GABAA receptor
B) An active metabolite is produced and accumulates in the chronic administration of diazepam
C) BZDs as positive allosteric modulators of the GABAA receptor enhance the chloride conductance of the channel
D) A short action of a BZD dispute its possible long elimination half-life is explained by its redistribution from the gray matter into peripheral fat tissue
E) BZDs have a narrower therapeutic range than barbiturates

A

B) An active metabolite is produced and accumulates in the chronic administration of diazepam

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18
Q

Which of the following statements regarding viral vectors is FALSE?

A) Recombinant vectors based on Adeno-associated viruses (AAV) mostly persist as episcopal DNA
B) All approved in vivo gene therapy approaches utilize retroviral vectors
C) Retroviral vectors integrate into the genome
D) AAV can transduce hepatocytes and various other cell types
E) The capsid of AAV can be modified to redirect the tropism towards different target tissues

A

B) All approved in vivo gene therapy approaches utilize retroviral vectors

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19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding alipogene tiparvovec is true?

A) Alipogene tiparvovec has been approved for the treatment of severe combined immunodeficiency due ti adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA SCID)
B) Alipogene tiparvovec is based on a gammarettoviral vector
C) Alipogene tiparvovec has been approved already several years ago in the EU
D) An estimated half a million potential patients in the EU may benefit from a treatment with Alipogene tiparvovec
E) Alipogene tiparvovec is the only gene therapy to be administered orally

A

B) Alipogene tiparvovec is based on a gammarettoviral vector

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The effect of most drugs is mediated by a receptor
B) The number of receptors that are known to play a role in modern drug therapy come close to the number of human genes (about 22,000)
C) some of the drug receptors are found in microbial pathogens
D) G protein coupled receptors have been one of the most successful classes of drug targets
E) Pharmacologically used drugs can bind to more than one receptor

A

B) The number of receptors that are known to play a role in modern drug therapy come close to the number of human genes (about 22,000)

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Phytotherapy is still used nowadays
B) The use of morphine, which was discovered as an ingredient of Palaver somniferous (poppy), is an example of phytotherapy
C) Phytotherapy has led to the discovery of numerous pharmacologically active compounds that are still used in modern medicine
D) In phytotherapy, plant extracts are used instead of purified compounds
E) A key problem of phytotherapy is the standardization of drugs

A

B) The use of morphine, which was discovered as an ingredient of Palaver somniferous (poppy), is an example of phytotherapy

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22
Q

Which of the following physiological effects is caused by an increased release of substance P?

A) Analgesia
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Vasodilation
D) Substance P counteracts inflammation
E) None of the above

A

A) Analgesia

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23
Q

Naloxon and Naltrexone belong toe which of the following drug classes?

A) Mixed agonists/antagonists
B) Opioid receptor antagonists
C) Opioid receptor agonists
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

B) Opioid receptor antagonists

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

The blood-brain barrier restricts the blood-to-brain extravasation of

A) leukocytes
B) proteins
C) gaseous molecules, e.g. CO2
D) small hydrophilic molecules
E) pathogens

A

C) gaseous molecules, e.g. CO2

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25
Q

Which of the following properties or mechanisms leads to the permutation of L-DOPA into the brain?

L-DOPA
A) is transported by LAT1 (large amino acid transporter) into the brain
B) is highly lipophilic
C) is highly hydrophilic
D) is transported by P-gp (P-glycoprotein) into the brain
E) gets into the brain by transcytosis

A

A) is transported by LAT1 (large amino acid transporter) into the brain

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26
Q

Which of the following statements on hypnotics and sleep is FALSE?

A) Barbiturates can induce chloride currents within the GABAA channel without the presence of GABA
B) The hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines (BZDs) relies on facilitating the GABAergic inhibition of the ventrolateral prophetic area (VLPOA) on the arousal system(s) of the brain stem and forebrain
C) Zopiclon with an elimination half-life of about 5th facilitates sleep maintenance
D) Adenosine, which accumulates during wakefulness, is an endogenous sleep factor
E) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and zolpidem always increase the amount of time spent in slow-wave sleep

A

E) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and zolpidem always increase the amount of time spent in slow-wave sleep

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Patients with the Allan Herndon Dudley Syndrome are characterized by
A) a peripheral hyperthyroidism
B) a central hyperthyroidism
C) a deficit in the thyroid hormone transport by the monocarboxylate transporter 8
E) motor deficits

A

B) a central hyperthyroidism

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The thyroid hormone 3,3’5,5’ tetraiodothyronine (T4) is transported by specialised transporters (e.g. monocarboxylate transporter 8) into cells
B) 3,3’,5 triiodothyronine (T3) binds to a nuclear receptor
C) T4 is more potent than the metabolite T3
D) T3 is produced in the thyroid gland
E) T3 is inactivated by the typ-III deiodinase

A

C) T4 is more potent than the metabolite T3

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29
Q

Which of the following strategies could NOT be used to increase the availably of a drug in the brain?

A) inducing temporary damage to the blood-brain barrier
B) coupling of the drug to a transferrin receptor antibody
C) inhibition of P-glycoprotein
D) using a transportable drug precursor
E) increasing the hydrophilicity of the drug

A

E) increasing the hydrophilicity of the drug

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is true

Na+ channel blocker’s used for antiepileptic treatment (e.g. Carbamazepine, Valproate, Phenytoin are effective by

A) stabilizing the inactivated state of voltage-gated Na+ channels
B) allosteric binding to alpha-subunits of Na+ channels
C) permanently and irreversibly setting voltage-gated Na+ channels to resting (closed) state
D) changing direction of ion flux through the channel
E) permanently removing the activation gate of voltage-gated Na+ channels

A

A) stabilizing the inactivated state of voltage-gated Na+ channels

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31
Q

Which of the following statements as treatment for epilepsies is true?

Barbiturates
A) are regarded as agents of first choice for antiepileptic treatment, as side-effects are rare
B) are only used to treat focal seizures
C) have an effect by binding to the gamma1-binding site at the GABAB receptor
D) are only used to treat absence seizures
E) are effective by allosteric binding at the GABAA receptor

A

E) are effective by allosteric binding at the GABAA receptor

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32
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Z-hypnotics produce at most low or no pharmacologically active metabolites
B) Zaleplon with a half-life of 1 hour facilitates sleep onset and slow wave sleep
C) Z hypniotics possess a relative selectivity for GABAA receptors containing the alpha1 subunit
D) Addiction to Z-hypnotics does not occur
E) Z-hypnotics are less effective as muscle relaxants when compared to benzodiazepines

A

D) Addiction to Z-hypnotics does not occur

33
Q

Which of the following statements regarding GABAA receptors is false?

A) Clinically used benzodiazepines cannot differentiate between GABAA receptors composed of different alpha subunits
B) GABAA receptors which bind benzodiazepines are mostly intrasynaptic
C) GABAA receptors are metabotropic receptors
D) The distribution of GABAA receptors containing a specific alpha subunit is typically different between brain regions (e.g. in the cerebral cortex vs amygdala)
E) Benzodiazepines are allosteric modulators at GABAA receptors

A

C) GABAA receptors are metabotropic receptors

34
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The effect of most drugs is mediated by a receptor
B) The number of receptors that are known to play a role in modern drug therapy comes close to the number of human genes (about 30,000)
C) Some drug receptors are found in microbial pathogens
D) G protein coupled receptors have been one of the most successful classes of drug receptors
E) Pharmacologically used drugs can bind to more than one receptor

A

B) The number of receptors that are known to play a role in modern drug therapy comes close to the number of human genes (about 30,000)

35
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

Acetylsalicyclic acid (Aspirin)

A) inhibits platelet function
B) is able to prevent 1 out of 4 ischemic strokes
C) increases the risk for hemorrhagic strokes
D) is the main principle for thrombolysis in acute stroke therapy
E) is also used as a pain killer

A

D) is the main principle for thrombolysis in acute stroke therapy

36
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Competitive antagonists increase the ED50 value of the corresponding agonist.
B) Competitive antagonists do not alter the maximal effect of the corresponding agonist.
C) Non competitive antagonists bind allosterically to the corresponding receptor
D) non competitive antagonists lead to a right shift of the dose response curve of the corresponding agonist
E) non competitive antagonists reduce the Emax of the corresponding agonist

A

D) non competitive antagonists lead to a right shift of the dose response curve of the corresponding agonist

37
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

To treat patients suffering from Parkinson’s disease the following pharmacological principle is applied:

A) inhibition of dopamine metabolism in the central nervous system (CNS) by COMT-inhibitors
B) Inhibition of dopamine metabolism in the CNS by MAOB inhibitors
C) Stimulation of dopamine receptors in the CNS by dopamine receptor agonists
D) inhibition of muscarinerigic receptors in the CNS by muscarinergic receptor antagonists
E) Inhibition of levodopa metabolism in the CNS by levodopa decarboxylase inhibitors

A

E) Inhibition of levodopa metabolism in the CNS by levodopa decarboxylase inhibitors

38
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Levodopa is the most effective pharmacotherapy of Parkinson syndromes
B) Levodopa passively diffuses through the BBB into the CNS
C) Levodopa is metabolized in dopaminergic neurons into dopamine
D) Not given with any other medication, 95-99% of standard dosage of levodopa are peripherally metabolized into dopamine
E) Typical side effects of levodopa are nausea and vomiting

A

B) Levodopa passively diffuses through the BBB into the CNS

39
Q

Which of the following statements on the release form of a drug is true?

Compared to normal release forms, slow release forms show

A) a reduction in Cmax and a reduction in tmax
B) a reduction in Cmax and an increase in tmax
C) an increase in Cmax and an increase in tmax
D) no changes in Cmax and an increase in tmax
E) a reduction in Cmax and no change in tmax

A

B) a reduction in Cmax and an increase in tmax

40
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

Ramiprilat

A) is a metabolite of Ramipril
B) inhibits the metabolism of AngI to AngII
C) inhibits the metabolism of AngII to Ang(1-7)
D) inhibits the metabolism of bradykinin to inactive fragments
E) is a first line drug in the treatment of hypertension

A

C) inhibits the metabolism of AngII to Ang(1-7)

41
Q

Which of the following statements on Candesartan is false?

A) After binding, Candesartan dissociates very fast from the AT1 receptor
B) Candesartan is administered for treatment as a prodrug (Candesartan-cilexitil)
C) Candesartan is used for the treatment of hypertension
D) Candesartan is a non compeititve At1 receptor blocker
E) Candesartan induces - as a feedback reaction - a significant increase of plasma AngII

A

A) After binding, Candesartan dissociates very fast from the AT1 receptor

42
Q

Which oft he following statement is true?
(A) Gene therapy is only available for life-threatening disorders.
(B) First generation gammaretroviral vectors are associated with a lower risk of insertional
mutagenesis than AAV vectors
(C) Cancer treatment with rAD-p53 (Gendicine) is not associated with any adverse effects.
(D) Voretigene neparvovec-rzyl is used to treat patients with Leber’s congenital amaurosis.
(E) Currently,thereisnoapprovedexvivogenetherapyonthemarket.

A

(D) Voretigene neparvovec-rzyl is used to treat patients with Leber’s congenital amaurosis.

43
Q

Which oft he following statements regarding Strimvelis is false?
(A) Strimvelis is based on adeno-associated viral (AAV) vector.
(B) The majority of patients with severe combined immunodeficiency due to adenosine
deaminase deficiency (ADA SCID) respond very well to Strimvelis treatment and show no
further need of any additional therapy.
(C) During Strimvelis treatment, the human ADA gene is introduced into CD34+ stem cells.
(D) So far, Strimvelis has been shown tob e safe. The survival rate in clinical trials is 100%.
(E) BeforeapprovelofStrimvelis,ADASCIDcouldonlybetreatedby„conventional“stem
cell transplantation and/or enzyme replacement therapy.

A

(A) Strimvelis is based on adeno-associated viral (AAV) vector.

44
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
The following factor is a direct part oft he tight junction complex between adjacent brain endothelial cells:
(A) Occludin
(B) Claudin-3
(C) Junctional adhesion molecule-1 (JAM-1)
(D) P-glycoprotein
(E) Claudin-5

A

D) P-glycoprotein

45
Q

Which oft he following statements is false? P-glycoprotein
(A) Belongs to the family of ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters.
(B) Is exclusively located at the abluminal site of endothelial cells.
(C) Has a limited transport capacity which could be saturated.
(D) Mediates direct transport of various pharmacological substances.
(E) Can lead to drug resistance in tumor cells.

A

(B) Is exclusively located at the abluminal site of endothelial cells.

46
Q

Which statement regarding benzodiazepines (BZDs) is false?
(A) Pharmacological effects of BZDs depend crucially on 𝛼-subunits oft he GABAA-Receptor.
(B) BZDs can induce currents mediated by the GABAA receptor only in presence of GABA.
(C) When BZDs are degraded biologically long-acting metabolites may be produced.
(D) BZDs with short elimination half-lifes are used to treat anxiety.
(E) BZDsshowrelaxingeffectsonskeletalmuscles.

A

(D) BZDs with short elimination half-lifes are used to treat anxiety.

47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hypnotics and sleep is correct?
(A) Barbiturates act agonistically at the GABAA receptor 𝛼1 subunit.
(B) Dual orexin receptor antagonists (DORAs) decrease REM sleep.
(C) The chemical structure of Z-compounds can be derived from diazepam.
(D) Flumazenil has a sustained antagonistic action on sedative effects of barbiturates.
(E) Metatonin congeners mimic endogenous metatonin.

A

(E) Metatonin congeners mimic endogenous metatonin.

48
Q

Which oft he following drugs has not been identified as a plant ingredient?
(A) Morphine
(B) Diazepam
(C) Artemisine
(D) Tubucurarine
(E) Atropine

A

(B) Diazepam

49
Q

Which oft he following statements is false? In acute stroke, the penumbra
(A) Represents tissue that may die.
(B) Represents tissue that may be salvaged.
(C) Is a brain area in which neurological function is preserved.
(D) Has lower perfusion than normal brain tissue.
(E) Isofvariablesizedependingoncollateralbloodsupply.

A

(C) Is a brain area in which neurological function is preserved.

50
Q

Which oft he following statements is false? A risk factor for ischemic stroke is
(A) Old age.
(B) Hypertension.
(C) Atrial fibrillation.
(D) Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) use.
(E) Smoking.

A

(D) Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) use.

51
Q

Which oft he following statements is false? Ischemic brain injury is mediated by
(A) Apoptosis.
(B) Ketogenesis.
(C) Excitotoxicity.
(D) Peri-infarct depolarization.
(E) Inflammation.

A

(B) Ketogenesis.

52
Q

Which of t he following statements is false?
(A) Small structural changes of a specifically-acting substance greatly (?) influence its effect.
(B) Specifically-acting substances often show an effect at low oncentrations.
(C) Antagonists of G-protein-coupled receptors belong to specifically-acting substances.
(D) The effect of specifically-acting substances is not saturable.
(E) Specifically-actingsubstancesoperateaccordingtothe„key-lock-principle“.

A

(D) The effect of specifically-acting substances is not saturable.

53
Q

Which oft he following statements is false?
(A) The maximum effect (Emax) of an agonist depends on its intrinsic activity at the receptor.
(B) The ED50 value of an all-or-nothing reaction is determined in a collective.
(C) The ED50 values of various agonists do not differ as long as they are mediated via the
same receptor.
(D) The LD50 value is the dose at which 50% of a collective would die with a statistically
significant probability.
(E) The LDLo indicates the lowest dose of a substance that has been reported to have a lethal
effect.

A

(C) The ED50 values of various agonists do not differ as long as they are mediated via the
same receptor.

54
Q

Which oft he following statements is false?
(A) Orexin B binds to OX2 receptors with higher affinity than to OX1 receptors.
(B) The OX2 receptor selectivity of [Ala11,D-Leu15] orexin B is greater than that of orexin B.
(C) [Ala11, D-Leu15] orexin B is a selective OX2 blocker.
(D) All known orexin receptor agonists are peptides.
(E) Orexin peptide derived ligands with an altered affinity were identified by D-amino acid
substitutions.

A

(D) All known orexin receptor agonists are peptides.

55
Q

Which oft he following statements on electrical kindling is true?
(A) Electrical kindling is an invasive treatment option for epilepsy.
(B) Electrical kindling is used as an epilepsy model in genetically unmodified animals.
(C) Repeated electrical kindling in amygdala or hippocampus leads to an elevated convulsion
treshold.
(D) Electrical kindling is a therapeutic method to interrupt a status epilepticus in epilepsy
patients.
(E) Electrical kindling is an old-fashioned term for„generalized seizure“.

A

(B) Electrical kindling is used as an epilepsy model in genetically unmodified animals.

56
Q

Which of the following statements regarding antiepileptic drugs is false?
(A) Some antiepileptic drugs inhibit GABA-transaminase.
(B) Ethosuximide blocks T-type Ca2+-channels.
(C) Some antiepileptic drugs are effective by modulation of glutamate decarboxylase (GAD).
(D) Na+-channel blockers are only effective against generalized seizures.
(E) Barbiturates are effective by allosteric bindin at the GABAA receptor.

A

(D) Na+-channel blockers are only effective against generalized seizures.

57
Q

Which oft he following statements is true?
(A) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone positive neurons are exclusively located in the paraventricular nucleus.
(B) The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor is a nuclear receptor.
(C) TRH directly stimulates the release of T4 in the thyroid gland.
(D) TSH is released from cels located in the posterior pituitary.
(E) The…receptor is a seven transmembrane receptor which is G protein coupled.

A

(E) The…receptor is a seven transmembrane receptor which is G protein coupled.

58
Q

Which oft he following statements is false?
(A) The allan herndon dudley syndrome impairs speech and …. Communication abilities.
(B) The AHDS is inherited in an X-linked dominant manner.
(C) Thyroid hormone is extremely important for the brain development.
(D) Mice with a double knockout of MCT8 and Slco1c1 genes show symptoms of AHDS.
(E) Triodothyroacetic acid (TRIAC) enters the brain without using the MCT8 transporter and
reduces the central symptoms of AHDS.

A

(B) The AHDS is inherited in an X-linked dominant manner.

59
Q

Treatment of patients suffering from Parkinson’s disease with levodopa can cause unwanted side effects such as hypo- or hypertension, cardiac dysrhytmias, psychological disturbances, involuntary movements due to an increase in the release of catecholamines.
Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Hypotension is mainly caused by dopamine.
(B) Hypertension is mainly caused by noradrenaline and/or adrenaline.
(C) Cardiac dysrhytmias are mainly caused by noradrenaline and/or adrenaline.
(D) Psychological disturbances are mainly caused by dopamine.
(E) Involuntary movements are mainly caused by noradrenaline and/or adrenaline.

A

(C) Cardiac dysrhytmias are mainly caused by noradrenaline and/or adrenaline.

60
Q

Which of the following statements on empagliflozin is false?
(A) Specifically blocks SGLT1.
(B) Increases renal glucose elimination.
(C) Reduces blood pressure.
(D) Increases the risk for urinary tract infections.
(E) Increases the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis.

A

(A) Specifically blocks SGLT1.

61
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
Semaglutide
(A) Has more than 90% homology to human GLP-1.
(B) Is administered orally.
(C) Also lowers cardiovascular mortality.
(D) Inhibits release of insulin from pancreatic beta-cells.
(E) Has an elimination half-life of 1 week.

A

(D) Inhibits release of insulin from pancreatic beta-cells.

62
Q

Which of the following enzymes is involved in phase II metabolism of adrug?
(A) Monoamine oxidases
(B) Cytochrome P450 enzymes
(C) Glucuronyl transferases
(D) Alcohol dehydrogenases
(E) Flavin dependent monooxygenases

A

(C) Glucuronyl transferases

63
Q

Which of the following drugs may induce myopathy due to polymorphism of the SLCO1B1 transporter?
(A) Enalapril
(B) Telmisartan
(C) Simvastatin
(D) Empagliflozin
(E) Metformin

A

(C) Simvastatin

64
Q

Which of the following statements on telmisartan is true?
(A) Compared to ist affinity at AT2 receptors, the affinity at AT1 receptors is >10.000 fold higher.
(B) The pharmalogical activity depends on ist metabolism to EXP3174.
(C) Telmisartan triggers the onset of type 2 diabetes.
(D) Telmisartan lowers the vetricular ejection fraction.
(E) Telmisartan reduces plasma levels of angiotensinII.

A

(A) Compared to ist affinity at AT2 receptors, the affinity at AT1 receptors is >10.000 fold higher.

65
Q

Which of the following statements on angiotensins is false?
(A) Angiotensinogen is metabolized by renin to angiotensin II.
(B) Angiotensin I is metabolized by ACE to Angiotensin II.
(C) Angiotensin I is metabolized by chymase to Angiotensin II.
(D) Angiotensin II is metabolized by aminopeptdase A to Angiotensin III.
(E) Angiotensin II is metabolized by ACE2 to angiotensin(1-7).

A

(A) Angiotensinogen is metabolized by renin to angiotensin II.

66
Q

Naloxon belongs to which of the following drug classes?

A) Mixed agonists/antagonists
B) Opioid receptor antagonists
C) Opioid receptor agonists
D) Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
E) Local anesthetics

A

B) Opioid receptor antagonists

67
Q

Which of the following statements about acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is false?

A) The analgesic activity of ASA is based on the selective inhibition of Cyclooxygenase1 (COX1)
B) ASA haș antiinflammatory activity
C) ASA has antipyretic activity
D) ASA inhibits platelet aggregation via irreversible inhibition of COX1
E) COX1 inhibition by ASA can cause gastric adverse events

A

A) The analgesic activity of ASA is based on the selective inhibition of Cyclooxygenase1 (COX1)

68
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The thyroid hormone T4 is transported by specialised transporter (e.g. monocarboxylate transporter 8) into cells
B) T3 binds to a nuclear receptor
C) T4 is more potent than the metabolite T3
D) T3 is produced in the thyroid gland
E) T3 is inactivated by the type 3 deiodinase

A

C) T4 is more potent than the metabolite T3

69
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) positive neurons are exclusively located in the paraventricular nucleus
B) The thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor is a G protein coupled receptor
C) TRH directly stimulates the release of T4 in the thyroid gland
D) TRH is released into the blood in the posterior pituitary
E) TSH binds to a nuclear receptor

A

B) The thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor is a G protein coupled receptor

70
Q

Which of the following statements about brain endothelial cells is false?

Brain endothelial cells

A) are connected by tight junctions
B) are covered by astrocytic end feet
C) are covered by pericytes
D) have a high rate of transcytosis
E) transport glucose into the brain

A

D) have a high rate of transcytosis

71
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A potential strategy to overcome the blood-brain barrier is

A) using Aden-associated viruses (AAV) as vectors
B) inhibiting vesicle uptake
C) increasing hydrophilicity of a drug lead structure
D) activating P-glycoprotein
E) increasing the expression of Claudia 5

A

A) using Aden-associated viruses (AAV) as vectors

72
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gene therapy is false?

A) Currently approved gene therapies are based on CRISPR/Cas9
B) Some approved gene therapies lead to the substitution of missing or dysfunction proteins
C) In soe fors of gene therapy, patient cells are treated ex vivo with gene vectors
D) Gene Therapeutic vectors are used to enhance tumor immunity
E) Gene vectors can be immunogenic

A

E) Gene vectors can be immunogenic

73
Q

A controlled clinical trial should not involve

A) randomization
B) double blind study design
C) multiple centers
D) placebo control
E) post-hoc adaption of the statistical analysis to optimize the number of significant results

A

E) post-hoc adaption of the statistical analysis to optimize the number of significant results

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The potency pD2 of a substance with an EC50 of 100 nM is 7.
B) Adverse effects of a substance can be reduced by increasing the potency in each case
C) The potency pD2 of a substance depends on its intrinsic activity
D) The therapeutic index corresponds to the negative decade logarithm of the potency pD2 of a substance
E) A substance has a therapeutic quotient of 10 when its EC50 is 100 nM and its LD50 is 10 nM

A

A) The potency pD2 of a substance with an EC50 of 100 nM is 7.

75
Q

Which of the following statements addressing the mechanism of oral anti diabetic agents is true?

A) Metformin inhibits the lactate dehydrogenase
B) Empagliflozin specifically blocks SGLT1
C) Sitagliptine is a GLP1 analogon
D) Glibenclamid stimulates ATP-sensitive K+ channels
E) Pioglitazone is a PPAR gamma activator

A

E) Pioglitazone is a PPAR gamma activator

76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding plasma protein binding (PPB) of drugs is false?

A) Pharmacological effects depend on PPB
B) Drugs not bound to plasma proteins can be metabolized
C) Drugs not bound to plasma proteins can be eliminated by glomerular filtration
D) Drug interaction may occur when drug A displaces drug B out of its PPB
E) When a drug binds to plasma proteins, its affinity at the drug target is increased

A

E) When a drug binds to plasma proteins, its affinity at the drug target is increased

77
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

Enalapril

A) is the prodrug of enalaprilat
B) is indicated for the treatment of hypertension
C) may induce cough as a typical side effect
D) delays the onset of type 2 diabetes
E) is contraindicated for the treatment of heart failure

A

E) is contraindicated for the treatment of heart failure

78
Q

Which of the following statements of RAS dependent metabolism of peptides is true?

A) Plasma levels of angiotensin II decrease upon chronic telmisartan therapy
B) Plasma levels of angiotensin II decrease upon chronic aliskiren therapy
C) Plasma levels of bradykinin decrease upon chronic ramipril therapy
D) The prorenin receptor metabolizes prorenin to renin.
E) Angiotensin (1-7) is metabolized by ACE2 to angiotensin II

A

B) Plasma levels of angiotensin II decrease upon chronic aliskiren therapy

Pharmacology (22 decks)

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