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Altius Biology 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Nucleus

Found here
Composition

A

DNA found here

double bilayer membrane
one of the bilayers is continuous with the ER

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2
Q

When can DNA leave the nucleus?

A

It cannot but non-nuclear DNA is found in the mitochondria

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3
Q

Nucleolus

A

site of rRNA transcription and ribosome assembly

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4
Q

RER

A

where proteins are translated and actively translocated into the ER lumen, golgi, lysosomes, endosomes, plasma membrane

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5
Q

Proteins meant for the cytosol are transcribed where

A

on free floating ribosomes

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6
Q

What is post translation modification and where does it occur?

A

disulfide bonds, glycosolation

starts in RER and continues in Golgi

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7
Q

SER

A

lipid synthesis and modification

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8
Q

Where are lipids metabolized?

A

mitochondria

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9
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

post office of the cell where proteins are organized and distributed

post translation modification is continued here

also excrete vesicles bound for the plasma membrane, ER and cellular organelles

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10
Q

Mitochondria

A

have DNA passed down from maternal line

more circular DNA

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11
Q

Endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria evolved from aerobic prokaryotes that were engulfed by a larger host prokaryote.

the two bacteria formed a symbiotic relationship

this is where the double bilayer membrane developed

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12
Q

pH of mitochondrial matrix versus intermembrane space

A

intermembrane space is more acidic than the matrix because of the hydrogen ion gradient
across the inner mitochondrial membrane

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13
Q

If hydrogen ion channels were inserted in the inner mitochondrial membrane,

A

presents an alternate pathway for their passageway back into the matrix (down their
concentration and charge gradient) other than through the ATP synthase. This would decrease
the production of ATP.

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14
Q

If a proton channel were to be opened up in the outer

mitochondrial membrane this could

A

negatively impact ATP production due to loss of the

proton gradient as protons leak out into the cytosol.

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15
Q

Centrioles/ Centrosome

A

Centrosome is found in the cytosol near the nucleus
composed of proteins and nucleating factors

Centrosome consists of two centrioles

Function: organizes microtubules, flagella and cilia

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16
Q

Lysosomes

A

pH of 5 for digesting cell parts

can fuse with phagocytic vesicles

participates in apoptosis

form by budding from the Golgi

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17
Q

Peroxisomes

A

self replicate

detoxify chemicals

participate in lipid metabolism

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18
Q

A lab worker must inject a segment of DNA into the nucleus of a living cell. How many layers of lipid membrane are pierced?

A

6

2 from cell membrane
2 outer nuclear membrane
2 inner nuclear membrane

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19
Q

Tubulin

A

is a globular protein that polymerizes to form microtubules

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20
Q

Microtubules

A

are one of
three primary contributors to the cytoskeleton of the cell

Two types of tubulin, α-tubulin and β-tubulin, form
a heterodimer that is then assembled into long chains called protofilaments. Thirteen (13)
protofilaments surrounding a hollow core make up one microtubule. Some students confuse the
“9+2” arrangement by thinking that microtubules themselves follow this format. This is
incorrect. The 9+2 arrangement is found only in eukaryotic cilia and flagella. The “9” and “2”
refer to nine doublets (two microtubules each) surrounding a center doublet (2 microtubules) in
a wheel-like design. That would be a total of 20 microtubules—each one of those twenty
microtubules being the hollow tube of 13 protofilaments just described.

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21
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

scaffolding-like network of microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments that
provides structure to the cell and creates a highway of sorts for intracellular transport.

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22
Q

Spindle apparatus

A

is the array of microtubules that grows outward from the centrioles during
mitosis to bind with the centromere of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate. This assembly
effect division of a pair of sister chromatids into two separate chromosomes (i.e., disjunction).

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23
Q

Actin

A

is a protein monomer that polymerizes to form microfilaments. In addition to their role in
the cytoskeleton, microfilaments form the “thin filament” portion of the sarcomere. The thin
filaments act as tracks along which the thick filaments (which are made of myosin motor
proteins) move during contraction.

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24
Q

Intermediate filament

A

general class of several
proteins that polymerize to form filaments that are intermediate in diameter between
microfilaments (the smallest) and microtubules (the largest). We include this question about
myosin being a microfilament because we have seen a surprising number of students who
incorrectly think that actin and myosin are both examples of microfilaments.

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25
Q

Microfilament

A

made up of actin subunits.

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26
Q

Myosin

A

is a motor protein, not a microfilament.

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27
Q

Flagella versus Cilia

A

whip-like projections from the cell body used for locomotion. In humans, sperm
cells are the only cells that have flagella

protrusions found on the lumen-facing
side of many epithelial cells lining various cavities in the body. Cilia are NOT used for locomotion
of the cell itself. The cell is fixed in place and the cilia create a beating pattern that moves fluid
and or other extracellular materials past the cell. Examples include the ependymal cells that line
the ventricles of the brain and the hollow center of the spinal cord (move cerebrospinal fluid),
the epithelial cells that line the respiratory track (move mucus and debris), and the cells that line
the fallopian tubes (move the egg toward the uterus).

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28
Q

Eukaryotic cilia and flagella exhibit

A

9+2 arrangement of microtubules while prokaryotic flagella are polymers of the protein flagellin.

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29
Q

Location of cilia in humans

A

Respiratory system: lungs

NS: ependymal cells

Reproductive cells: uterine tubes

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30
Q

What problems would a disease that prevented microtubule production cause?

A

Unsuccessful mitosis and meiosis

all cells would have weakened cytoskeletons in which microtubules would have lost the ability to
function as pathways for intracellular transport of organelles and other materials.
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31
Q

Flagella differences in Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes

A

a whipping motion with microtubules made of tubulin

spinning/rotation motion with simple helices made of flagellin protein

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32
Q

Phospholipid

A

lipid

two non polar tail + glycerol + polar phosphate head

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33
Q

Integral proteins

A

protein with one or more segments embedded in the phospholipid bilayer

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34
Q

Transport proteins

A

integral protein type that spans the entire width of of the bilayer membrane i.e. transmembrane protein that creates tunnels for ion and protein passage through the hydrophobic core

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35
Q

Surface proteins

A

Peripheral proteins that do not enter the hydrophobic core

only present on the polar -philic surface of the membrane

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36
Q

Membrane receptors

A

protein that binds to a signaling molecule like a ligand to initiate a cellular response

location is dependent on the protein type
i.e. steroid hormone receptor is located inside the cell versus receptors for polar ligands are located on the external surface of the membrane

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37
Q

Cholesterol

A

amphipathic molecule with a steroid region and a polar region.

It is inserted between
phospholipids at very high concentrations in eukaryotic cells to add rigidity and fluidity to the membrane.

At higher temperatures, around normal
physiological conditions (37°C), the non-polar region of cholesterol interacts with the
hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids helping to hold them in place and thereby adding rigidity
to the membrane. The polar region of cholesterol also interacts with the polar phosphate heads.
However, at lower temperatures, when the interactions between the non-polar tails could cause
crystallization, the presence of the rigid steroid portion of cholesterol disrupts Van der Waals
forces between fatty acid tails maintaining a minimum level of fluidity.

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38
Q

Fluid mosaic model

A

dual-layer model of a phospholipid membrane

there are two opposite-facing leaflets with the polar tails of the
phospholipids directed toward the center of the bi-layer and the polar heads directed
outward—creating both a cytosolic and an extracellular face. The “fluid” term refers to the fact
that phospholipids are mobile—they can exchange positions with each other and move laterally
across their leaflet of the membrane.

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39
Q

Exocytosis

A

a vesicle on the inside
of the plasma membrane fuses with the plasma membrane, dumping its contents into the
extracellular environment.

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40
Q

Endocytosis

A

a cell takes up small particles by

invagination of the plasma membrane to form a vesicle called an endosome.

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41
Q

Phagocytosis

A

type of endocytosis specifically referring to the engulfing of very large particles, bacteria, etc.,
and only occurs in some cells.

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42
Q

Pinocytosis

A

e non-specific endocytosis of extracellular fluid
and very small particles and occurs it occurs in all cells. The key differentiator is that pinocytosis
is non-specific.

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43
Q

Simple diffusion

A

no ATP required

high to low concentration

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44
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

No ATP required

passive movement of molecules along their concentration gradient guided through an integral membrane forming a pore or channel

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45
Q

Osmosis is an example of what form of diffusion

A

facilitated diffusion

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46
Q

Hypertonic

A

solution is more concentrated than the cell therefore water leaves the cell and goes into the solution

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47
Q

Hypotonic

A

solution is less concentrated than a cell therefore water goes into the cell

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48
Q

Isotonic

A

equal concentration between solution and cell so no net movement of water in either direction

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49
Q

Primary Active transport

A

ATP required to move something against its concentration gradient or against an electrical potential

i.e. NA/K pump antiport in opposite directions

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50
Q

Secondary active transport

A

Energy required to move something against its concentration gradient or against an electrical potential

Utilizes energy in other forms other than ATP

Can come from electrochemical gradient pumping ions out of the cell

i.e. Na/Glucose symport so same direction

can also be antiport

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51
Q

Tight junction

A

water proof barrier

found in epidermis of skin, epithelium of bladder; blood brain barrier; distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

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52
Q

Gap junctions

A

directly connects adjacent cells by their cytoplasm allowing for ion and electrical impulse exchange

found between cardiac muscle cells or between smooth muscle cells allowing for rapid passage of electrical potential between cells

direct neuron-neuron coupling in brain and retina

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53
Q

Adherens

A

strong mechanical attachments

found in epithelium and between cardiac muscle cells.

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54
Q

Desmosomes

A

strongest of cellular junctions as they weld cells together to protect against stress

not water tight however

tissues subject to shear stress such as the epidermis. They are particularly common in stratified

epithelium. An autoimmune disease that produces antibodies against the desmosome protein
(desmoglein) leads to separation of skin layers and large, painful blisters.

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55
Q

Tissue types

A

epithelial
nervous
connective
muscle

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56
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

covers the body and lines its cavities

if it is lining a cavity or separating the body from the
external environment, you can consider it to be epithelial tissue.

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57
Q

Nervous tissue

A

neurons of CNS and PNS

includes glial cells (astrocytes, microglia, schwann cells, oligodendrocytes and ependymal cells)

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58
Q

Ependymal cells

A

both epithelial and nervous tissue

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59
Q

Connective tissue

A

bone, cartilage, blood, lymphatic tissue, fat

additional examples: dermis, blood, lymph, tendons, ligaments, adipose tissue, the nonepithelial
wrappings, coverings, and support tissue found around muscles and organs

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60
Q

Muscle tissue

A

skeletal, cardiac, or smooth

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61
Q

Endocrine

A

hormone signaling travels through blood then binds to receptors on cell surface for water soluble hormones or inside cell for lipid-soluble hormones

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62
Q

Second messenger system

A

molecules that relay signals received at receptors on the cell surface — such as the arrival of protein hormones, growth factors, etc. — to target molecules in the cytosol and/or nucleus.

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63
Q

G proteins

A

part of second messenger system

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64
Q

G protein response

A

First, a hormone or signal molecule binds to an integral protein
on one of its extracellular domains—this protein is called a G-protein-coupled receptor or GPCR.
This causes a conformational change that activates a cytosolic domain of that same integral
protein. Near the GPCR, or at least along the cytosolic face of the membrane, is a G protein
made up of an alpha, beta, and gamma subunit. The alpha subunit binds both GTP and GDP.
When GDP is bound, the protein is “off” and when GTP is bound it is “on.” Usually, but not
always, the activated receptor protein acts as a catalyst for the replacement of GDP by GTP,
activating the alpha subunit of the G protein. The activated alpha subunit then separates from
the beta and gamma subunits. The activated alpha subunit acts as an agonist for another
enzyme, often adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of
ATP to cAMP plus two molecules of inorganic phosphate (ATP  cAMP + 2Pi). Cyclic AMP just
happens to be an agonist for Protein Kinase A, which phosphorylates proteins—usually
enzymes. Many enzymes are turned on or off through being phosphorylated or
dephosphorylated. The cascade can be shut down in various ways. Often the beta and gamma
subunits re-bind with the alpha subunit, deactivating them. In other cases GPCR is
phosphorylated one or more times, which deactivates it.

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65
Q

Intracellular receptors

A

lipid soluble hormones or steroids do not require a plasma membrane surface receptor

able to dissolve through the membrane and bind targets in the cytosol

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66
Q

Paracrine

A

signal molecules secreted by one cell bind to receptors on other cells in the local area

NT acting on synaptic gap are an example

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67
Q

Autocrine

A

signal molecules secreted by a cell bind to receptors on that same cell

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68
Q

Intracrine

A

signal molecules like steroids bind to receptor inside the same cell that produces them and are never secreted outside of the cell

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69
Q

Juxtacrine

A

signaling requires direct contact between two cells

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70
Q

NS

A

NT bind to receptors on the post synaptic membrane which initiates a signaling cascade

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71
Q

Found at higher concentrations in cancer cells

A

Cancer cells lose ability to stop dividing

organelles like mitochondria and lysosomes would double before dividing.

microtubules are made during cell division to form the spindle apparatus so that would increase as well

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72
Q

What would not increase in concentration in cancer cells?

A

cancer cells divide uncontrollably so then chromosome number would not increase simply because a cell has 46 chromosomes before and after DNA replication

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73
Q

Before and after mitosis

A

chromosome number remains the same and daughter cells will be identical

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74
Q

Single file line of X (representing a replicated chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids)

A

lined along the metaphase plate in mitosis

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75
Q

If you have two X’s lined up next to each other at the metaphase plate

A

Meiosis I so the only time when two homologues pair side by side at the center of the plate

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76
Q

Mitosis anaphase looks the same as

A

meiosis anaphase II

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77
Q

Cells that line a body cavity

A

epithelial cells

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78
Q

Ependymal cells are

A

nervous and epithelial cells

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79
Q

Chromosomes contain a large amount of protein in their condensed form. Why is that true?

A

Chromosomes have histones which are proteins

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80
Q

When do chromosomes condense?

A

Prophase

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81
Q

In what state do chromosomes exist in the majority of a cell cycle?

A

unwound

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82
Q

Describe structure of nucleosome

A

set of four histones wound together

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83
Q

How many non-identical chromosomes are present?

A

46

why are they non-identical: homologues are not identical because they contain a random assortment of alleles

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84
Q

Number of chromosomes per human cell after:

Meiosis I
Meiosis II
Mitosis

A

23
23
46

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85
Q

Meiosis I

A

reductive division

chromosome number = 23

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86
Q

Meiosis II

A

non-reductive division therefore at the end of meiosis I in germ cells you have 23 chromosomes and at the end of meiosis II you will have 23 chromosomes

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87
Q

S phase

A

replication of DNA

mass of DNA doubles

chromosome number does not double however

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88
Q

Second messenger system

A

Hormone :: extracellular receptor on an integral protein GPCR (G protein coupled receptor)

Activates the cystolic domain of protein

G protein composed of alpha, beta and gamma subunity

alpha subunit binds GTP and GDP

When GDP is bound, protein is off

GTP is bound it is “on”

Alpha subunit separates from G protein and acts as an agonist for adenylyl cyclase

Adenylyl cyclase catalyzes conversion of ATP to cAMP and two Pi

Cyclic AMP agonist of protein kinase A

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89
Q

Cell cycle: G0

Quiescent state

A

fully differentiated neurons and cardiac muscles are frozen in G0 and do not divide

multinucleated skeletal muscle cells are also in this phase

means cells are stable, not changing and unlikely to change

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90
Q

chromosomes before replication

after replication

during interphase

before S phase

after S phase

A

46

46

46

46

46

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91
Q

chromosomes in human diploid cell

chromosomes in human haploid cell

A

46

23

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92
Q

Prior to S phase in diploid cell

A

46 unreplicated chromosomes

23 from father; 23 from mother

no sister chromosomes

mass of m

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93
Q

After replication

A

unreplicated chromosomes with mass of m

After replication, have dyad = two identical sister chromatids attached to the same centrosome

therefore during DNA synthesis the mass changes from m to 2m

chromosomes does not change

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94
Q

At metaphase plate during meiosis I

A

have tetrad so mass is 4m

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95
Q

Gamete is haploid and will have a mass of

A

0.5m

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96
Q

Apoptosis initiated by

A

extreme heat, radiation, viral infection, DNA damage

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97
Q

chromatin

A

DNA + protein

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98
Q

chromosomes are composed of

A

chromatin therefore DNA + protein

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99
Q

Prophase

A

nuclear membrane degenerates

c-some condenses

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100
Q

Metaphase

A

c-somes line up at metaphase plate

form spindle apparatus

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101
Q

Anaphase

A

c-somes separate toward opposite poles of cell

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102
Q

Telophase

A

nuclear membrane re-forms

c-some unwinds

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103
Q

Interphase

A

single cell with well defined nuclear membrane and uncoiled c-some

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104
Q

Mitosis versus Meiosis I

A

identical

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105
Q

Mitosis versus Meiosis II

A

Tetrads = two pairs of sisters
four chromatids forming a single unit crossing over
–> meiosis I

No tetrads in mitosis

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106
Q

Single file line up of dyads in

A

mitosis metaphase

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107
Q

metaphase of meiosis I

A

c-somes are lined up side by side as pairs of homologues or tetrads

108
Q

nondisjunction

A

when c-some fails to separate properly during anaphase

results in unequal number of c-somes in daughter cells

109
Q

monosomy

A

daughter cell has just one c-some

110
Q

trisomy

A

when daughter cell has an extra c-some

111
Q

Crossing over

A

occurs during prophase I of meiosis I

exchange segments of DNA when two genes are close to one another

112
Q

if no crossing over occurs,

A

genes on one chromosome are linked

113
Q

Meiosis

A

centromeres do not split during meiosis I but do split in meiosis II

114
Q

Deoxyribose

A

DNA

115
Q

Nucleotide component

A

triphosphate + sugar + base

phosphodiester bond between phosphate and 5’ C of ribose sugar

Third phosphate is bound to the 3 ‘ carbon of previous ribose sugar

116
Q

Other nucleotides:

A 
DNA nucleotide polymers
cAMP
NADH
FADH2
FMN
Coenzyme A
ATP
GTP
UTP
117
Q

Adenine :: Thymine

A

via two hydrogen bonds

118
Q

Guanine ::: Cytosine

A

via three hydrogen bonds

119
Q

Py

A

C, T, U

single-carbon nitrogen ring base

120
Q

Pu

A

A and G

two-carbon nitrogen ring bases

121
Q

Origin of replication

A

where replication begins in a c-some

122
Q

Bidirectional

A

replication proceeds in both directions simultaneously from the origin

123
Q

Semi-conservative

A

each of the newly formed daughter helices consists of original strand paired with one newly replicated strand

124
Q

Semi-discontinuous replication

A

leading strand is synthesized continuously

lagging strand is synthesized in okazaki fragments

125
Q

Helicase

A

unwinds double helix

126
Q

Single stranded binding proteins

A

attach to strands to prevent re-annealing when helicase unwinds the helix

127
Q

Both strands of helix are fed through

A

replication complex

128
Q

RNA polymerase aka primase

A

constructs short RNA primers to both strands so that DNA poly can build new complementary DNA strands by adding to existing 3’ OH group

129
Q

DNA poly

A

adds to existing 3’ OH group

kept on the strand by sliding clamp protein which moves along the protein in opposite direction

130
Q

DNA poly reads

A

3’ to 5’

131
Q

DNA poly synthesizes

A

5’ to 3’

132
Q

Leading strand requires

A

a single primer while lagging strand requires multiple primers one for each okazaki fragment

133
Q

RNase H

A

removes all RNA primers

134
Q

DNA poly

A

fills in the gaps after RNAse H removes all RNA primers

135
Q

DNA ligase

A

fills in the last nucleotide and creates the phosphodiester bond to complete the strand

136
Q

Every time a DNA strand is replicated, the new strand is always slightly shorter than the parent strand.

WHY?

A

telomeres are shortened by each round of cell division, they provide somewhat of a
“time clock” for cells. After the telomeres are gone, subsequent division will quickly damage important coding sections of the DNA. Presumably the cell could not survive very many
additional divisions without being directed into apoptosis. This would act to prevent the uncontrolled cell division found in tumors

137
Q

Telomeres

A

long section of repetitive DNA nucleotides found at both ends of each c-some and form a buffer region of non-coding DNA

138
Q

Telomerase

A

enzyme that adds length to the telomeres

139
Q

Telomerase is turned off

A

in somatic cells after after development because if were active then theoretically it would allow for unlimited cell division

140
Q

DNA damage

Spontaneous hydrolysis

A

DNA reacts in solution

EX: amine group on base reacts with water to form a carbonyl [C=O] in (R-(C=O)-R’)

via hydrolysis the entire base can be replaced by a hydroxyl group

141
Q

DNA damage

External chemicals or radiation

A

Py react with each other to form a covalent dimer

chemicals can cause alkylation of functional groups on DNA base

carcinogens are large polycyclic compounds taht bind to DNA and create bulky side groups

142
Q

DNA damage

Mismatched base pairs

A

errors during replication or methylation of guanine

methylated guanine pairs with thymine instead of cytosine

143
Q

DNA repair

Proofreading

A

DNA poly proofreads to catch and repair mismatched base pairs on the spot

144
Q

Mismatch repair system

A

enzymes scan newly copied DNA to locate, excise and replace mismatched base mairs by the proofreading of DNA poly

145
Q

Base excision

A

base portion is excised via DNA glycosylase

another enzyme will remove the sugar-phosphate backbone

DNA poly and ligase will replace the nucleotide

146
Q

Nucleotide excision

A

exise oligonucleotide including several bases on either side of the error

DNA poly and ligase replace the missing segment

147
Q

Restriction endonucleases

A

cut DNA at specific areas to create sticky ends

can be hybridized with vector DNA to form recombinant DNA for DNA cloning

148
Q

recognition sequence

A

nucleotide sequence that is recognized by endonuclease

149
Q

hybridization

A

endonucleases cut at only one sequence and any fragment cut by that same enzyme will be complementary to any other fragment and can join together to form a single strand

150
Q

vector

A

segment of DNA used to transfer a desired sequence into another cell using a plasmid (bacterial DNA sequence)

151
Q

phage

A

bacteriophage can be used as an alternate to a plasmid for cloning as the vector can be inserted into a bacteriophage

152
Q

gel electrophoresis

A

separates molecules by size

nucleotides are negatively charged from phosphate and move towards positive side of field called anode

153
Q

PCR

A

requires:

DNA template
Twp primers
nucleotides
DNA polymerase
reaction buffer
154
Q

PCR

A

must know the segment of DNA you want to amplify

create primers that will anneal to the DNA on either side of the target sequence

two primers: one complimentary to 3’ end of sense strand; other complimentary to 3’ end of antisense strand

Steps:
• Denature: helix at 95 degrees C
• Add primers and DNA poly
• Anneal: Primers anneal when cooled to 50-65 degrees C
• Elongation: Increase temperature to 72 degrees C for polymerase to work and create new strands of DNA

155
Q

Southern Blot

A

DNA

also indicates relative size of restriction fragments

156
Q

Northern Blot

A

RNA

157
Q

Western Blot

A

on protein segments using radiolabeled antibodies

158
Q

Eastern Blot

A

verifies post-translational modification binding to lipids, carbohydrates and phosphates

159
Q

DNA versus RNA

A 
RNA= 2' OH
DNA = 2' H

RNA single stranded
contains Uracil

RNA exits nucleus into cytoplasm
DNA always stays in the nucleus

160
Q

rRNA

A

RNA component of ribosome.

161
Q

ribosomes are assembled in

A

nucleolus

162
Q

tRNA

A

mRNA –> protein

has anti-codon complementary to codon

163
Q

mRNA

A

complementary RNA copied from DNA template strand

has poly A tail and 5’ cap

164
Q

pre-mRNA

A

has non-coding introns

no polyA tail or 5’ cap

165
Q

coding strand

template strand

A

parent strand or sense strand= strand that is not transcribed

aka as antisense strand= strand that is transcribed so is discontinuous

166
Q

coding strand or sense strand

A

exact match to pre-mRNA formed except instead of T has U

167
Q

Transcription

A

RNA poly binds to promoter region assisted by transcription factors

Helicase unwinds DNA

Form transcription bubble

RNA polymerase reads template strand 3’ to 5’; Creates pre-mRNA transcript matching coding strand with U instead of T

Termination factors release mRNA transcript

Post transcriptional processing, large sections of non-coding sequences or introns are spliced out

only exons are left

mature mRNA strand contains poly A tail is added to 3’ end and 5’ cap is added

mature mRNA is translated at a ribosome

168
Q

template strand aka

A

anti-coding strand
anti-sense strand

refer to DNA strand that is transcribed

complimentary but not an exact copy when transcription happens

169
Q

coding strand aka

A

sense strand

strand that is not transcribed

170
Q

Lac operon

A

regulates the expression and translation of lactase in bacteria

171
Q

Lac operon

if glucose is present
no lactose

A

no transcription therefore inhibitor is bound

172
Q

Lac operon

if lactose is present
no glucose

A

lactase gene will be transcribed

173
Q

Lac operon

no glucose
no lactose

A

no transcription

174
Q

Lac operon

lactose and glucose present

A

no transcription or very little

inhibitor is not bound
cAMP levels = activator will be low when glucose is present

175
Q

Genetic regulation

methylation

A

decreases transcription

176
Q

Start codon

A

AUG = methionine

177
Q

Stop codons

A

UGA
UAA
UAG

178
Q

Genetic code is:

Degenerative
&
Unambiguous

A

cannot determine which codon codes for a specific AA since there are multiple codes
– redundancy

Multiple codons may code for the same AA but none of the individual codons will ever code for a different AA

179
Q

Translation

A

small ribosomal subunit attaches to mRNA at 5’ end

Initiation: scans 5’ to 3’ until reaches start codon

first tRNA carries Methionine and binds to start codon with the large ribosomal subunit

H bonding between anticodon of tRNA and codon on mRNA strand at A site

peptide bond forms between amino acid on the new tRNA and AA on previous tRNA sitting P site

the new tRNA shifts over into the P site and the previous tRNA enters the E site. dissociates from protein and exits the ribosome

another tRNA enters the A site

note: polypeptide chain is growin in the P site

180
Q

Translation occurs where?

A

cytoplasm of free floating ribosomes on the RER

181
Q

Point mutation

A

single base pair substitution

182
Q

Missense mutation

A

single nucleotide change creates a mutation where the codon codes for a different amino acid

may have no effect or make the protein nonfunctional

183
Q

Neutral mutation

A

mutation does not negatively impact the fitness

184
Q

Silent mutation

A

mutation does not alter the amino acid sequence

basically codes for the same amino acid

185
Q

Frameshift mutation

A

mutation that changes the reading frame

186
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

mutation changed to stop codon

187
Q

Post translation modification occurs

A

at the ER and golgi includes addition of polysaccharides, lipids or phosphates

188
Q

Mutations in germ cells versus somatic cells

A

germ cells are the only cells passed on to offspring so mutations in germ cells are heritable

mutations in somatic cells may cause harm to that particular cell during its lifetime

189
Q

C-some mutation:

duplication

A

form on nondisjunction

repetition of a segment of a c-some arm

190
Q

c-some mutation:

deletion

A

form of nondisjunction

loss of a part of one c-some arm

191
Q

c-some mutation:

translocation

A

when part of a c-some mixes with another

192
Q

c-some mutation:

inversion

A

invert a part of the c-some

paracentric inversion: if the centromere is outside of the inversion
ex. a b (centromere) c d e f
a b (centromere) c e d f

pericentric inversion: if the inversion spans the centromere
ex. a b (centromere) c d e f
a d c (centromere) b e f

193
Q

Cancer:

malignant

A

cancerous tumor exhibiting uncontrolled growth and likely to metastasize

194
Q

Cancer:

benign

A

slow growing and not invading other tissues

may become cancerous

195
Q

Cancer:

metastasis

A

spread cancer

196
Q

Cancer:

proto-oncogenes

A

good or normal genes that can become oncogenes or cancer causing genes if mutated

normal function: regulate cell division, cell cycle, cell growth, apoptosis

197
Q

Cancer:

tumor suppressor genes

A

help protect cell from uncontrolled growth

if mutation or has a loss of function, the cell is easily able to become cancerous

require two recessive alleles to lose function

198
Q

Oncogenes

A

gain of function alleles and if have one bad copy can result in undesired cancer promoting protein

199
Q

Two hit versus multiple hit hypothesis of cancer

A

multiple mutations must accumulate before the cell becomes cancerous

200
Q

Allele

A

one of various alternative forms of the same gene

201
Q

Locus

A

specified physical location of a gene on a c-some

202
Q

Law of Segregation

A

alleles segregate independently of one another when forming gametes

203
Q

Law of Independent Assortment

A

genes located on different c-somes assort independently

204
Q

Probabilities:

both (and)

A

if both events must occur simultaneously, multiply the probabilities of each event occurring individually

205
Q

Probabilities:

either (or)

A

if either event occurring fulfills the requirement, add the probabilities of each event occuring individually

206
Q

BbHh x BbHh

A

9:3:3:1 ratio always

207
Q

Homozygous dominant

A

BB

208
Q

Heterozygous

A

if an individual is a carrier for a recessive allele

Bb

209
Q

Homozygous recessive

A

affected by recessive allele

bb

210
Q

If asked to predict the genotype of offspring when only given information on one of the parents

A

assume the other parent is NOT affected and is NOT a carrier by convention

211
Q

Wild type

A

normal or typical phenotype

212
Q

Sex linked inheritance

A

genes located on sex chromosomes X and Y

213
Q

X linked recessive

A

transmitted from female carriers to sons

more likely in males than females

males transmit their Y c-some to their sons meaning their sons will not inherit an X linked recessive condition from their father

214
Q

X linked recessive disorder

i.e. hemophilia

A

more common in males because X linked recessive genetic disorders are easier for males to contract.

Males only need to receive a single bad X c-some to be affected since they have a Y c-some rather than another X c-some

no such thing for a male carrier for an X linked condition

215
Q

What fraction of an affected father’s male children will have hemophilia?

What fraction of his daughters will be carriers?

A

No information given for mother so assume she is unaffected

X linked condition passed from carrier mother to sons

Since mother is normal and only father is affected, all male children will be normal.

All daughters will be carriers however

216
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

phenotypes of dominant and recessive alleles appear to be mixed or blended in the phenotype of a heterozygote

i.e. RR red flowers
rr white flowers
Rr pink flowers

pink flowers rather than in normal dominant-recessive pattern were Rr would produce red flowers

217
Q

Complete dominance

A

both phenotypes are fully expressed at the same time in a heterozygote

i.e. RR red flowers
rr white flowers
Rr red and white striped flowers

218
Q

Incomplete penetrance

A

occurs when various individuals all have identical genotypes and yet some have the disease phenotype and others do not

219
Q

Limited expressivity

A

various individuals all have identical genotypes and all of them have the disease phenotype (i.e. 100% penetrance) but individuals are impacted in varying degrees

220
Q

Polygenic

A

many genes contribute to one phenotypic trait

221
Q

Pleiotriopy

A

one single gene contributes to multiple phenotypic traits

222
Q

Mosaicism

A

case in which different cells within the same individual contain non-identical genotypes

not different alleles for the same gene but different genotypes

Normally all cells have the same genotype: Tt, Rr, etc. In this case, one cell line may be TT and other Tt

223
Q

Genetic Imprinting

A

results when on specific gene is expressed differently depending on which parent it originated from

224
Q

Epigenetic

A

any heritable phenotype resulting from any process other than a change in the DNA sequence itself

any genetic influence that is outside of the DNA sequence itself

225
Q

Linkage

A

when two genes are very, very close to one another on the same c-some because at certain proximity it becomes unlikely that a crossing over event will occur exactly between them

Any variance from expected ratios (9:3:3:1 for dihybrid or 3:1 for monohybrid cross), think linkage so a non-Mendelian factor could be at play

226
Q

Gene pool

A

set of genes and alleles in a population

227
Q

Evolution

A

any change in the allelic frequency within a given gene pool across generations

228
Q

Polymorphisms

A

random variations in genetic sequence among individuals

are random, usually due to mutation

may or may not be increasingly represented in future generations depending on whether or not that particular genetic variation provides an evolutionary fitness advantage

229
Q

natural selection

A

process by which individuals with genetic traits that provide them with a fitness advantage produce more offspring and therefore those advantageous traits become more prevalent in subsequent generations

in order to occur:
1) one individual must have a polymorphism that provides an evolutionary fitness advantage

2) that advantage must result in the individual with the favored polymorphism differentially producing more offspring

230
Q

Speciation

A

formation of new species from existing ones

231
Q

Adaptive radiation

A

rapid formation of a variety of species from one ancestral species

232
Q

Evolutionary bottleneck

A

sudden decrease in the number of individuals in a population

no fitness advantage

233
Q

Genetic drift

A

change in the allele frequency within a population due to random, nongentic, nonselective factors

234
Q

Carrying capacity

A

maximum number of individuals an ecosystem or environment can sustain

235
Q

convergent evolution

A

two species arrive at a point where they have similar functional forms, but they have developed those similar forms via different evolutionary pathways

i.e. bat and bird wings

236
Q

divergent evolution

A

process by which species develop diferent forms and thereby form new species all radiating from that common ancesort

237
Q

H-W Equilibrium assumptions

A 
large population
no mutation
no immigration or emigration
random mating
no natural selection
238
Q

H-W equations

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p + q = 1

239
Q

p and q

A

refer to the % of each allele present as a fraction of all of the alleles in the population

240
Q

p^2

A

fraction of individuals who have the homozygous dominant genotype i.e. TT

241
Q

q^2

A

fraction of individuals who have the homozygous recessive genotype i.e. tt

242
Q

2pq

A

fraction of individuals who have the heterozygous genotype i.e. TT

243
Q

Taxonomy classification system

A 
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus 
Species

“dear king philip came over for good soup”

244
Q

Fungi

A

mushrooms, yeast, molds

heterotrophs

saprophytic (live off of dead, decaying matter)

245
Q

Mutalistic

A

symbiotic relationship with living host where both participants benefit equally

246
Q

chemotroph

A

oxidize organic or inorganic cmpds to harvest energy

247
Q

phototrophs

A

capture their own energy directly from the sun via photosynthesis

248
Q

autotrophs

A

capable of fixing CO2 and use this as their carbon source for synthesizing organic molecules

249
Q

heterotrophs

A

cannot fix CO2

must ingest organic molecules such as carbohydrates as their carbon source

250
Q

fungi have cell walls made of

A

chitin

251
Q

fungal reproduction

A

haploid
grow via hyphae branches
mass of hyphae called mycelium

reproduce both sexually and asexually

sexually when life is hard (stress, limited food, harsh env)
asexually when life is good

252
Q

Commensalism

A

symbiosis where one benefits and the other is neutral

253
Q

Parasitism

A

symbiosis where one benefits at the others expense

254
Q

Virus

A

acellular

cannot survive, grow or reproduce without a host

255
Q

Lytic cycle

A

period during which viral genes are actively transcribed and new viruses are assembled

infected cells will eventually burst when new viruses are releases

256
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

dormant cycle where viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome

257
Q

vaccine

A

inactive virus or portion of a virus

258
Q

bacteria = prok

A

peptidoglycan cell wall
plasma membrane
no membrane bound organelles
single circular DNA c-some

259
Q

bacteria reproduction

A

binary fission

no mitosis or meiosis

260
Q

genetic variability methods in bacteria

conjugation:

A

one bacteria will have a F plasmid (F+) containing the gene for a sex pilus
recipient is F-

261
Q

genetic variability methods in bacteria

transformation

A

bacteria pick up DNA from env

262
Q

genetic variability methods in bacteria

transduction

A

viruses accidently incorporate host genetic material into their NA

263
Q

binary fission

A

circular DNA is copied and attached to the membrane

cell splits pulling the two copies apart

each daughter cell gets one copy of the c-some

prok have extra c-somal DNA like circular plasmids which do not segregate so each daughter cell may or may not get certain plasmids

264
Q

Prok vs Euk

A

Prok have no nuclei, membrane bound organelles, histones, c-some structure

have circular DNA and 70S (30S and 50S) ribosomes

265
Q

gram positive

A

purple
thick cell wall
form endospores
single cell membrane

266
Q

gram negative

A

pink
thin cell wall
no endospores
contain 2 cell membranes:one inside the cell wall and the other outside the cell wall

altius biology 1 (1 decks)

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