Alternative Investments and Derivatives Flashcards

1
Q

What is a future?

A

An exchange-traded contract to buy (or sell) an asset at a specified future date for a certain price. The price is determined at the time the contract is agreed, and the contract imposes an open-ended obligation on the holder until expiry or closing out. Future’s are binding and their is an obligation to sell/buy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a swap?

A

An agreement between two parties to exchange a series of cash flows over a period of time. The most common type is an interest rate swap, where one party swaps floating rates of interest for fixed rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a long position refer to and why may someone take a long position?

A

Refers to the buyer of the future who is ‘long’ of the contract and is committed to buying the underlying asset at the pre-agreed price on the specified future date.

Longs traders make money in a rising market and is hoping that the price of the underlying asset will rise.

There is a difference between trading futures and being the actual buyer of a future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a short position refer to and why may someone take a long position?

A

Refers to the seller of the future who is committed to delivering the underlying asset in exchange for the pre-agreed price on the specified future date.

Shorts make money in a falling market, by fixing the price before hand i.e. they can sell an asset at a price which is higher than the future market price.

If someone holds gold in their portfolio and believes the value of gold will fall in the short-term, they may wish to take a short position - enter into a short futures contract.

If the price of gold falls, they have an obligation to deliver the item at a set time and price and they will receive the pre-agreed price for their gold, which is higher than the market price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a forward?

A

a direct deal between two parties, not sold on the exchange as futures contracts are. So, very similar to futures contract, just not sold on the exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is counterparty risk?

A

The risk that the obligation from either side will not be met. For derivatives traded on an exchange this risk is removed by the LCH Clearnet - which does not exist for forwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why might an investment manager choose to hedge portfolios against adverse market movements?

A

The portfolio manager’s mandate may require equities to be held within the portfolio, regardless of market conditions.

Selling a large portfolio would move the price of the shares against the portfolio manager, taking time and resulting in significant dealing costs.

Futures markets, being more liquid than securities markets, would not move the price of the transaction against the portfolio manager and would be completed more swiftly.

Futures incur lower dealing costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the hedging ratio?

A

The number of contracts required to hedge a portfolio is known as the hedging ratio, and the future is priced in index points with a tick value of £10 per index point.

A tick is the smallest price movement and is expressed in terms of money or an index. Tick
value is the profit or loss that arises when prices move by one tick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How could an investment manager use futures to hedge his holding in the FTSE 100.

A

The FTSE 100 index future can be used to hedge a portfolio position. they would short the future by selling a certain number of contracts.

The FTSE 100 index future contract is a standardised, with each valued at £10 per index point.

If the FTSE index future is 7,275, each contract is worth £10 × 7,275 = £72,750.

To know how many contracts to sell = value of the portfolio you want to hedge / the value of the futures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An investment manager has a portfolio of major UK equities valued at £1 million and believes that the FTSE will fall and wants to hedge their position. Assuming the FTSE 100 is priced at 7,200 and the future priced at 7,275, how would the fund manager calculate how many to sell if they wanted to cover their entire FTSE position.

If the FTSE fell to 6900, taking the futures price to 6975, what loss would be incurred by the portfolio and what gain would be made by the futures?

A

£1,000,000 / 7,275x £10 = 13.7, rounded up to 14 contracts

Loss to portfolio = £1,000,000 x (6900 / 7200) = £958,333 = loss of £41,667

Gain on the future:

The future has fallen by 300 points at £10 per index point = £3,000 per contract

Investment manager has sold 14 contracts, so the profit on the future is £42,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Margin and how is it calculated?

If the initial margin charge is 5% and the price of a three-month gold future contract is £1,380 per troy ounce, calculate, showing all your workings, the cost of hedging 100 troy ounces of gold, using a three months futures contract.

A

An amount that futures exchanges require from the trader as its clearing houses will guarantee settlement of each contract and initial margin provides some assurance that any obligations can be fulfilled. The initial margin is returnable once the position is closed and varies according to the market conditions for the underlying asset –the more price volatility, the higher the margin.

100 x £1,380 = £138,000
£138,000 x 5% = £6,900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain briefly why a three month’s futures contract might not be the best way to hedge a position.

A
  • Margin calls if market moves against him.
  • Volatility of underlying commodity.
  • Need for constant monitoring.
  • Usually limited to professional/institutional investors.
  • Complex investment/special broker test before dealing.
  • Possibility of unlimited loss.
  • Underlying must be delivered.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an option?

A

Give the buyer (holder) the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell an underlying asset at a fixed price (strike price) on, or before, a given date in the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Difference between the role of a buyer and seller with regards to an option?

A

Only the seller of an option has an obligation, while the buyer has a choice. With a future, both the buyer and the seller have an obligation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the buyer pay a seller with regards to an option?

A

The buyer of an option pays a premium (price paid for the option) to the seller. There is no premium involved when buying futures, but there is when trading options.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a call option with regards to the seller (writer) and buyer (holder) position

A

A call option gives the buyer of the option the RIGHT to buy the underlying asset.

The seller of a call option has an OBLIGATION to sell the underlying asset to the option holder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a put option with regards to the seller (writer) and buyer (holder) position

A

A put option gives the buyer of the option the RIGHT to sell the underlying asset.

The seller of a put option has an OBLIGATION to buy the underlying asset from the option holder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a strike price?

A

price at which the option specifies the underlying asset may be bought or sold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The choices open to the holder of an option are to.

A
  • exercise the option;
  • sell the option before expiry; or
  • let the option expire worthless.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Calculating the profit on a call option if sold:

ABC shares are trading at 400p per share and you believe that the share price is going to rise. You buy a call option to speculate on this potential movement.

The call option gives you the right to buy 1,000 shares at 400p each and you pay a premium of 20p per share for the right to do so. Let’s assume you are correct and the share price rises to 500p after ABC announces surprisingly good results. The price of the call option will rise (as you have the right to buy the shares at 400p) to, say, 110p.

What is the profit made if you sell the call option?

A

premium = 200p x 1000 shares = £200

Call option = 110p x 1000 shares = £1,100

£1,100 - £200 = £900 profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an American option

A

options that may be exercised at anytime during the term, up to and including the expiry date.

A = anytime = American

22
Q

What is a European option

A

Options that may be exercised on their expiry date

E = expiry = European.

23
Q

The value of an option has two components, what are these?

A

Intrinsic and time value

24
Q

State the factors that determine the price of an option

A
  • Market value of the underlying asset/spot price.
  • Strike price/in or out of the money.
  • Expiry date/time to expiry.
  • Expected volatility.
  • Type of option American or European.
  • Fees
  • Commission
25
Q

What is intrinsic value

A

A call option will have intrinsic value if the current price of the underlying asset is above the option’s strike price.

A put option will have intrinsic value if the current price of the underlying asset is below the option’s strike price.

26
Q

What is time value

A

The amount an investor is prepared to pay for an option, above its intrinsic value, in the hope that its value will increase before it expires because of a favourable change in the price of the underlying asset.

Directly related to how much time an option has until expiry: it erodes throughout the option’s life

27
Q

What is a Long Call position?

A

Buyer of an call option takes the long call position.

Buyer pays a premium to the seller and is granted the RIGHT to buy.

Buyer makes money in a rising market.

They have the right to buy at a low price, when the market price is high.

The potential reward for the long call position (buyer) is a theoretically unlimited maximum profit.

The potential risk for the long call position is that the maximum loss for the buyer is limited to the premium paid, as they can simply abandon the option.

28
Q

What is a Short Call position?

A

Seller of a call option takes the Short call position.

Opposite of a Long Call position and is from the perspective of the seller of the option.

The seller of the option receives the premium from the buyer and has an OBLIGATION to buy the asset at expiry.

They are hoping that the underlying share price will not rise, so the holder will not exercise the option and instead abandon it, leaving the writer with the premium.

The maximum profit for the seller is the premium paid.

The maximum loss for the seller is theoretically unlimited as the higher the price which the underlying asset rises, the greater the loss will be for the seller of the option.

29
Q

What is a Long Put position?

A

The buyer of a put option (the holder) takes a long put position.

The buyer of the put option pays a premium for the RIGHT to sell the underlying asset on expiry if they wish.

Buyer makes money in falling market.

The buyer of a long put (holder) takes a position to benefit from the fall in the price of the underlying asset. The more the price of the underlying asset falls, the greater the profit will be for the buyer.

The maximum profit is the strike price less the premium paid, while the maximum loss is limited to the premium paid as the buyer can simply abandon the option.

The more the price of the underlying asset falls, the greater the profit will be for the buyer.

30
Q

What is a Short Put position?

A

seller of a put option takes the short put position.

The writer (seller) of the put option will receive the premium but takes on the OBLIGATION to buy the underlying asset at expiry.

The writer is hoping that the share price will not fall as expected, so the buyer will abandon the option, leaving the writer with the premium.

The maximum profit for the seller is the premium.

The maximum loss is the strike price less the premium.

31
Q

How can a fund manager use put options to hedge his downside risk?

E.g.

Portfolio of shares worth £50m, FTSE index is at 6800 points, FTSE put option has a strike price of 6600.

A

Fund manage can buy put options to hedge the FTSE 100 dropping in value and thus his portfolio decreasing in value.

How many should he buy?

£50m/(6600 x £10) = 757.57 = 758 put contracts

If the market rises, the puts are abandoned and the fund will rise in value. If the market falls below 6600 then his put contracts begin to have an intrinsic value.

32
Q

What are the ways an investment position / position in general can be hedged?

e.g.

“State five other types of derivative or instrument that could be used to hedge Atique’s gold sovereign exposure”

A

Futures
Contracts for Difference
Inverse ETFs
Options
Swaps
Spread Betting
Covered Warrant

33
Q

What are the common features of hedge funds?

A

Hedge funds generally do not adopt a ‘long only’ strategy, i.e. holding a portfolio of equities and/or bonds in the singular expectation that they will rise in value over time. The funds aim for an absolute return with limited volatility, rather than performance relative to an index benchmark.

The various investment methods employed by hedge funds frequently lead to limited or even negative correlation with the markets in which they operate.

Hedge funds typically use a wide range of investment instruments.

Some, but not all, hedge funds use gearing or leverage to provide a potential boost to
investment returns.

Hedge funds charge significantly higher fees than traditional investment funds.

34
Q

what are the four broad categories of hedge fund strategy.

A

Long/short funds invest in equity and/or bond instruments, and combine long investments with short sales of individual securities and derivatives to reduce market exposure.

Relative value funds are often said to adopt ‘market neutral’ strategies, because there is no market-related element in their returns.

Event-driven funds use the price movements arising from anticipated corporate events to achieve their returns.

Tactical trading funds are a relatively small part of the hedge fund universe. They trade in currencies, bonds, equities and/or commodities. In each asset class they may use the same long/short approach as equity hedge funds.

35
Q

Risks associated with hedge funds?

A

Investment risk: An understanding of the investment strategy employed by the fund is essential.

Gearing: Hedge funds typically deploy gearing or leverage to produce greater returns.

Manager risk: Hedge funds are by their nature opaque and the investor is essentially relying on the skills of the investment manager to produce above-average returns.

Liquidity risk: Hedge fund portfolios are exposed to the same liquidity risks of any other portfolio, but the types of instrument in which hedge funds invest can exacerbate this.

Encashment risk: Investors in hedge funds are exposed to an additional risk in the potential delay that can arise between a decision to liquidate an investment and when that liquidation takes place.

Regulatory risk: Hedge funds are typically established in offshore financial centres that have ‘light touch’ regimes, so the regulatory oversight may not provide investors with the level of protection
they might otherwise expect.

36
Q

Advantages of hedge funds?

A

Diversification: Hedge funds can offer investors access to markets and trading methods that are not available in traditional investment vehicles.

Volatility: Many hedge funds offer strategies aiming for low volatility that are very popular with very wealthy clients.

Expertise: Hedge fund managers usually have a particular expertise in a highly specialised area, which could add value to investors.

37
Q

Disadvantage of hedge funds?

A

Lack of regulation and protection: Hedge funds are only lightly regulated, so investors effectively have no regulatory protection for funds that are based offshore.

High minimum investments: Specialist vehicles often demand over US$1m as a minimum investment.

Complexity: The specialist nature of hedge funds makes them very difficult to monitor or objectively assess.

Volatility: Hedge funds can offer outstanding returns and spectacular failures.

38
Q

What is a structured product?

A

Structured products are investment plans where the return is delivered at a defined point and is dependent on the performance of an index or asset and the terms of participation in the returns. The return is achieved partly or wholly through the use of derivatives.

39
Q

3 main categories of structured products?

A

Structured deposits: Designed to return the investor’s original capital as a minimum at maturity. HAS PSCS PROTECTION

Capital-protected products: designed to return the original capital, regardless of how badly the stock market or underlying measure performs. NO FSCS PROTECTION.

Capital-at-risk products: have the potential to produce much higher returns, but will give rise to a loss at maturity if the underlying investment performs poorly over the investment term.

40
Q

Typical characteristics of structured products?

A

There is usually a stated fixed term.

Nearly all capital-at-risk products are currently kick-out plans (sometimes described as auto-call) which include a feature that triggers early maturity.

Minimum or maximum returns are usually pre-specified.

Plans offer either capital growth or income (but rarely both).

The FCA view is that structured products can offer guarantees (as opposed to capital protection) if they are deposits or life policies.

Returns for retail products are usually based on the performance of an index.

Structured products are generally regarded as ones that will be held to maturity. If there is a need for the investor to realise their investment prior to maturity, it is now commonplace for the issuing bank to act as a market maker and create a secondary market that allows the asset to be realised.

41
Q

Benefits of structured products?

A

A wide range of underlying asset combinations is available.

There is no exposure to a particular manager’s style or ability unless the product is linked to a fund or portfolio of funds.

The return or degree of upside participation will be explicitly stated.

The risk and return characteristics are fixed and transparent.

Averaging of index measurements may potentially enhance returns in falling markets or drag down returns in rising ones.

Usually formed of zero coupon bond and call option.

42
Q

Drawbacks of structured products?

A
  • Caps on participation rates will limit the returns that investors could have made in a strongly rising market.
  • Kick-out features will often mean a product matures early.
  • Maturity could take place during a market fall, meaning that any profits that might have been made will either be reduced or disappear.
  • Autocalls mean many products are unlikely to run their full terms, making the investment period an unknown.
  • Averaging of index measurements may dilute returns in rising markets.
  • Most retail products are for fixed terms and early encashment may be costly, meaning that they are not vehicles to be used to hold funds that might be needed at short notice.
  • Falls in equity and other markets could be significant enough for the product to lose its capital protection.
  • The investor cannot benefit from the dividends from the underlying assets.
43
Q

What considerations should a planner take into account when assessing the use of structured products?

A

Return: Precise details of how the return will be calculated.

Risk profile of the client and product.

Costs associated with buying and holding the product and tax implications to client.

Encashment: transparency and any early penalties.

Credit risk: The creditworthiness of the issuer and any counterparty.

44
Q

If a structured capital at risk product (SCARP) has a term of 6 years and pays 10% per year, non-compounded, how much would it pay out at maturity if the conditions are met (i.e. FTSE is not lower than when the product was taken out)?

A

6 x 10% = 60%

Plus return of capital = 160%

45
Q

If a structured capital at risk product (SCARP) has a term of 6 years and pays 10% per year, compounded, how much would it pay out at maturity if the conditions are met (i.e. FTSE is not lower than when the product was taken out)?

A

(6 sqr root (1.6) - 1) x 100

same as the monthly APR formula

46
Q

risks associated with SCARPs?

A
  • Counterparty risk/credit worthiness of parties/not covered by FSCS.
  • Capital risk/loss.
  • Giving reinvestment risk.
  • Liquidity risk/inflexible.
  • Index could go up more/opportunity risk.
  • Inflation risk.
47
Q

What is a PAIF

A

A property authorised investment fund (PAIF) is an OEIC that specialises in holding property and in which the taxation of profits from its property business lies with the investors.

They are designed for the domestic UK market and their unfavourable tax treatment means they are
unsuitable for institutional and overseas investors.

48
Q

Tax treatment of PAIF

A

Distribute its income in three streams:

  1. Property income: mainly rental income that is paid gross without tax deducted to eligible investors (i.e. ones who can reclaim tax deducted at source, such as investors in ISAs and self-invested personal pensions (SIPPs), as well as tax-exempt institutional investors) and paid with 20% income tax deducted to others;
  2. other taxable income: any interest received and non-UK dividends, paid gross without tax deducted
  3. UK dividend income: paid as a dividend distribution.
49
Q

Main conditions for PAIFs?

A
  • At least 60% of the PAIF’s net income in an accounting period must be from the exempt property investment business.
  • At the end of each accounting period, the value of the assets involved in the property investment business must be at least 60% of the total assets held by the PAIF.
  • Its shares must be widely held, with no corporate investor holding 10% or more of the fund’s NAV.
50
Q
A