ALS Flashcards

1
Q

What proportion of OHCAs have which rhythm?

A

Shockable (VF / pVT) - 25%
Asystole - 50%
PEA 25%

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2
Q

What proportion of OHCAs on which CPR is attempted is ROSC achieved ?
How many of these survive to go home from hospita?

A

30%
10%

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3
Q

What is the survival to discharge rate for IHCA?

A

24%

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4
Q

The chain of survival for successful outcome of cardiac arrest

A

Early recognition and call for help
Early CPR
Early defibrillation
Post-resuscitation care

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5
Q

Reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A

Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hypo/hyperkalaemia / metabolic
Hypo/hyperthermia
Thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary)
Tension PTX
Tamponade
Toxins

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6
Q

Chain of Prevention of IHCA

A

Education - A-E and stabilisation
Monitoring - vital signs and accurate documentation
Recognition
Call for help
Response

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7
Q

Causes of airway obstruction

A

CNS depression
Blood
Vomit
FB
direct trauma to face/throat
Epiglottitis
Pharyngeal swelling (e.g. infection, oedema)
Laryngospasm
Bronchospasm
Bronchial Secretions
Blocked tracheostomy

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8
Q

Complete airway obstruction

A

Silent
Rapidly leads to cardiac arrest

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9
Q

Partial airway obstruction

A

Breathing efforts will be noisy

may cause cerebral/pulmonary oedema, exhaustion, secondary apnoea, hypoxic brain injury and eventually cardiac arrest

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10
Q

Airway - management

A
  • suction if needed
  • turn patient on their side if possible
  • assume actual/impending airway obstruction in anyone with reduced GCS
  • airway manoeuvres
  • OP / NP / SG airway
  • intubation
  • tracheostomy
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11
Q

Respiratory arrest

A

= apnoea

will rapidly cause cardiac arrest if breathing is insufficient to oxygenate blood adequately

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12
Q

Possible causes of respiratory arrest

A
  • reduced respiratory drive (e.g. CNS depression)
  • reduced respiratory effort (e.g. high C-spine injury, GBS, restrictive chest wall deformities)
  • Lung disorders (e.g. COPD, ARDS, PE, asthma, lung contusion, PTX, pulmonary oedema)
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13
Q

Innervation of the diaphragm

A

C 3,4,5 keep the diaphragm alive

spontaneous breathing cannot occur with cervical cord injury above this level

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14
Q

Breathing - management

A
  • oxygen
  • manage presenting problem (e.g. needle decompression for PTX)
  • ?NIV
  • consider sedation & intubation
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15
Q

What is the commonest cause of sudden cardiac death?

A

An arrhythmia caused by either ischaemia or MI

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16
Q

Causes of VF

A
  • ACS
  • hypertensive heart disease
  • valve disease
  • drugs (e.g. antiarrhythmics, TCAs, digoxin)
  • inherited cardiac diseases (e.g. long QT)
  • acidosis
  • electrolyte abnormalities (eg. K, Mg, Ca)
  • hypothermia
  • electrocution
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17
Q

Primary heart problems

A
  • arrhythmia
  • HF
  • cardiac tamponade
  • cardiac rupture
  • myocarditis
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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18
Q

Secondary heart problems

A

when the heart is affected by changes elsewhere in the body

e.g. apnoea, tension PTX, hypovolaemia, septic shock

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19
Q

What features indicate a high probability of arrhythmic syncope?

A
  • syncope in supine position
  • syncope during/after exercise (although after can be vasovagal)
  • syncope with no/brief prodromal symptoms
  • repeated episodes of unexplained syncope
  • syncope in individuals with a FHx of sudden death or inherited heart condition
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20
Q

Circulation - treatment

A

2 large bore cannulae if possible

Treat the underlying cause of circulation failure (e.g. IV fluids for hypovolaemia, correct electrolyte abnormalities)

consideration of vasoactive drugs and advanced CV monitoring/echo

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21
Q

“see-saw” respirations

A

= paradoxical chest and abdomen movements

seen in airway obstruction

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22
Q

A to E - AIRWAY

A

Look for signs of airway obstruction
Remove obstruction
O2 at high concentration

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23
Q

A to E - BREATHING

A

Look, listen, feel - ?signs of respiratory distress
RR
O2 Sats
Depth/pattern of breathing
Equal chest expansion ?
Any chest deformity?
Tracheal deviation?
Surgical emphysema?
Auscultate and percuss chest

Specific Tx depends on cause

If depth/rate of breathing inadquate - bag-valve mask ventilation

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24
Q

A to E - CIRCULATION

A

Colour of digits / limb temperature
?any external or concealed haemorrhage
CRT
BP
HR
Auscultate heart
12-lead ECG
Bloods, cannula, VBG

Tx depends on cause but aim to replace fluids, haemorrhage control, restore tissue perfusion

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25
Q

A to E - DISABILITY

A

Examine pupils (size, equality, reaction to light)

Rapid initial assessment of ACVPU (formal GCS if possible)

BLOOD GLUCOSE

Check drug chart

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26
Q

A to E - EXPOSURE

A

Full clinical history
Fully expose patient and examine - rashes, abdo, etc
Temperature
Review notes and charts

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27
Q

Unstable angina

A
  • crescendo angina
  • recurrent/unpredictable episodes of angina-like pain without specific provocation by exercise
  • unprovoked/prolonged episode of CP raising suspicion of MI but without ECG changes/lab evidence of MI

NORMAL TROPONINS

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28
Q

Crescendo angina

A

Angina on exertion, occurring with increasing frequency over a few days, provoked by progressively less exertion

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29
Q

ECG changes in unstable angina

A
  • normal ECG
  • acute MI changes (usually ST depression)
  • non-specific abnormalities (eg. TWI)
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30
Q

Higher risk NSTE ACS

A
  • ST depression
  • dynamic ECG changes
  • unstable rhythm
  • unstable haemodynamics
  • DM
  • high GRACE score
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31
Q

management of STEMI

A

PCI if available within 120 minutes of onset of CP

If PCI not possible - fibrinolytic therapy considered as alternative

DO NOT wait for trops to come back in pts with STEMI

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32
Q

Anterior / anteroseptal MI

A

V1-V4
Lesion in LAD artery

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33
Q

Anterolateral MI

A

V1-V6 and I and aVL

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34
Q

Which distribution of MI has the worst prognosis

A

= Anterior

more likely to cause impairment of LV function

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35
Q

Lateral MI

A

V5-V6, I and aVL

lesion in circumflex artery or diagonal branch of LAD artery

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36
Q

Inferior MI

A

Leads II, III and aVF

usually lesion in RCA
Less commonly lesion in circumflex artery

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37
Q

Posterior MI

A

when there is reciprocal ST-depression on anterior leads this could reflect ST-elevation posteriorly

most commonly RCA occlusion

Suspicion can be confirmed by placing V8-V10 posteriorly (posterior leads)

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38
Q

Immediate Tx for ACS

A

300mg Aspirin asap

sublingual GTN (unless hypotensive)

O2 to maintain sats in target range

Analgesia - titrated IV morphine with anti-emetic

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39
Q

Absolute contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy

A

Previous haemorrhagic stroke

Ischaemic stroke in past 6 months

CNS damage/neoplasm

Recent (3/52) major surgery/head injury/major trauma

Active internal bleeding or GI bleed in last 1 month

Known/suspected aortic dissection

Known bleeding disorder

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40
Q

Relative contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy

A

Refractory HTN (SBP >180mmHg)

TIA in last 6 months

DOACs

Pregnancy or <1 week post-partum

Traumatic CPR

Non-compressible vascular puncture

Active PUD

Advances liver disease

Infective endocartitis

Previous allergic reaction to fibrinolytic drug

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41
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

= hypotension, poor peripheral perfusion often accompanied by drowsiness/confusion and oliguria

if develops in a patient after a STEMI consider acute complications such as myocardial rupture, papillary muscle rupture, VSD

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42
Q

SCD - Long QT Syndrome

A

Inherited (autosomal dominant) ion channel disorder

Predispose to torsade de pointes VT and VF

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43
Q

SCD - Acquired QT interval prolongation

A

caused by IHD/drug therapy/myocarditis

Predispose to torsade de pointes VT and VF

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44
Q

SCD - Brugada syndrome

A

inherited (autosomal dominant) ion channel disorder

More common in SE asians

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45
Q

SCD - Short QT syndrome

A

Rare
Inherited (autosomal dominant) ion channel disorder

Predispose to torsade de pointes VT and VF

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46
Q

SCD - Catecholaminergic Polymorphic VT

A

Rare

Inherited (autosomal dominant) ion channel disorder

Predisposes to torsade de pointes VT and VF, especially on exercise

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47
Q

SCD - Arrythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

A

Inherited (autosomal dominant)

Predisposes to VT and VF

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48
Q

SCD - Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

A

Inherited (autosomal dominant)
Several genotypes

SCD risk is due to VT/VF
Risk varies with genotype and individual factors

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49
Q

SCD - WPW Syndrome

A

Mostly sporadic, infrequent familial incidence

Risk is due to rapid transmission of AF to the ventricles, triggering VT/VF

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50
Q

SCD - High-grade AV block

A

Caused by conducting stem fibrosis, calcified AS, myocardial diseases, cardiac surgery, drug therapy, occasionally congenital

Predisposes to ventricular standstill (asystole)

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51
Q

SCD - Aortic Stenosis

A

Caused by congenital bicuspid valve (becomes severe age 50-70) or degenerative changes

Many develop HF, risk of SCD due to VT/VF

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52
Q

SCD - Dilated Cardiomyopathy

A

Multiple causes, familial in minority of cases

Many develop HF, risk of SCD due to VT/VF

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53
Q

SCD - IHD due to coronary atheroma

A

partly genetic, partly acquired

SCD risk mainly due to VT/VF either due to acute ischaemia or chronic scarring

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54
Q

SCD - anomalous coronary artery anatomy

A

congenital

rare cause of SCD, often on exercise, risk varies with pattern of anomaly

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55
Q

SCD - adult congenital heart disease

A

often remain at risk of cardiac arrest even when they have had corrective surgery as a child

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56
Q

What are early signs on observations preceding onset of cardiac arrest?

A

Hypoxia
Hypotension

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57
Q

what is the target time for starting defibrillation in a cardiac arrest?

A

3 minutes

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58
Q

Collapsed Patient in-hospital

A
  1. check for safety
  2. check for patient response
  3. no response, no signs of life, no pulse –> CPR algorithm
  4. response / signs of life –> urgent assessment +/- MET call
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59
Q

Signs to not be confused as signs of life in arrest/pre-arrest

A

Agonal breathing (occasional, irregular gasps)

Arm movements during CPR

Seizure-like movements - can occur right at the start of arrest

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60
Q

Collapsed patient - no signs of life

A

Call for help & crash trolley

Check airway +/- manoeuvres
Check for breathing
Check for pulse

Commence 30:2 CPR

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61
Q

Correct chest compressions

A

Depth of 5-6cm

Rate of 100-120 compressions/min

Allow chest to recoil completely after each compression

Approx. same amount of time for compression and relaxation

Minimise hands-off time

If there are enough team members, swap every 2 mins

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62
Q

good ventilation of patient

A

use what ever equipment is available immediately

aim for inspiratory time of about 1 sec

give enough volume to produce visible rise of chest wall

add supplementary oxygen as soon as possible

avoid rapid/forceful breaths

If intubated (+/i iGel) - ventilate and compressions simultaneously and uninterrupted

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63
Q

Waveform Capnography

A

= continuous real-time end-tidal CO2

Uses:
- confirming correct intubation
- monitoring ventilation rate
- used to monitor quality of CPR
- used as indicator of ROSC
- prognostic indicator

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64
Q

Benefits of using a manual defib

A

ALS provider can immediately recognise rhythm and shock if needed

This can reduce hands-off time to less than 5 seconds

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65
Q

If the patient is not breathing, but has a pulse

A

= respiratory arrest
Diagnosis can only be made if confident in assessing pulse and signs of life (e.g. perfusion/normal CRT)

Ventilate patient’s lungs
Check for pulse every 1 minute

All pts with respiratory arrest will develop cardiac arrest if it is not treated rapidly and effectively

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66
Q

Monitored and witnessed cardiac arrest (e.g. CCU / cath lab / crit care)

A

If shockable rhythm, can deliver 3 rapid successive shocks

Check for any rhythm change/other signs of ROSC after each shock

Start 30:2 CPR if no ROSC after 3rd shock (these 3 are considered the 1st shock in the ALS algorithm)

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67
Q

Precordial Thump

A

rarely works

Only to be used whilst awaiting defibrillator in a monitored VF/pVT arrest

ulnar edge of tight fist - sharp impact of lower half of sternum from about 20cm, then retract immediately

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68
Q

Energy setting for shocks (manual)

A

First shock 120-150 J

Same or higher for subsequent shocks

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69
Q

Using the defib

A
  1. rhythm check - confirm shockable rhythm
  2. resume compressions
  3. STAND CLEAR (only person on the chest should be touching)
  4. charge to appropriate energy
  5. everyone to STAND CLEAR
  6. when clear, deliver shock
  7. immediately restart CPR for next 2 minutes
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70
Q

Drugs in shockable rhythm

A

After the 3rd shock (whilst 2 mins CPR ongoing)
- Adrenaline 1mg IV
- Amiodarone 300mg IV

Then further adrenaline IV after alternate shocks (roughly every 3-5 mins)

If shockable rhythm persists/recurs - a further dose of 150mg amiodarone can be given after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts

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71
Q

why is it key to reduce interruptions on chest compressions

A

longer interruptions in chest compressions reduce the chance of a shock achieving ROSC

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72
Q

Lidocaine vs amiodarone in arrest

A

Lidocaine 1mg/kg can be used as an alternative if amiodarone unavailable - but DO NOT give lidocaine if amiodarone already given.

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73
Q

What might show evidence of ROSC

A

presence of carotid pulse

sudden increase in end-tidal CO2

evidence of Cardiac Output on invasive monitoring equipment

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74
Q

When to check for pulse in an arrest

A

only when there is a rhythm that could be compatible with a pulse

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75
Q

PEA

A

= cardiac arrest in the presence of electrical activity that would normally be associated with a palpable pulse

these Pts often have some mechanical myocardial contractions but these are too weak to produce a detectable pulse/BP

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76
Q

Survival of non-shockable rhythms

A

Survival of PEA or asystole is unlikely unless a reversible cause can be found and treated quickly and effectively

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77
Q

Asystole

A

= the absence of electrical activity on ECG trace

Important to check trace for evidence of P waves as then ventricular standstill may be treated effectively by cardiac pacing

Attempts to pace true asystole are unlikely to be successful

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78
Q

PEA / asystole - treatment

A

Start CPR 30:2

Adrenaline 1mg IV as soon as access achieved

Continue CPR 30:2 until airway secured (then continous compressions and ventilation)

Recheck rhythm after 2 mins
- If pulse/signs of life - commence post-resuscitation care
- if no pulse/signs of life - recommence CPR

Further adrenaline every 3-5 mins

If at any point VF/pVT on rhythm check, switch to shockable algorithm

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79
Q

Intubation during arrest

A
  • only carried out by someone competent to intubate
  • no evidence that intubation is any better than bag-valve or SGA during an arrest
  • avoid interruptions on compressions (max 5 sec while tube going through vocal cords)
  • intubation may be avoided until ROSC achieved
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80
Q

Normal PaCO2

A

4.7-6.0 kPa

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81
Q

End-tidal CO2
What is the normal range?

A

= the partial pressure of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath

4.3-5.5 kPa (i.e. lower than arterial)

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82
Q

End-tital CO2 in CPR

A

During CPR, end-tidal CO2 is low (reflecting the low CO generated by compressions)

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83
Q

How does waveform capnography confirm effective CPR

A

the more effective the compressions, the greater the end-tidal CO2

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84
Q

Identifying ROSC with waveform capnography

A

an increase in end-tidal CO2 during CPR may indicate ROSC

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85
Q

Waveform capnography as prognostic factor

A

Low end-tidal CO2 values during CPR are associated with lower ROSC rates and increased mortality

Higher values associated with better ROSC rates and survival

End-tidal CO2 should be part of a multifactorial approach to prognostication (do not use alone)

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86
Q

What airway is needed to measure waveform capnography

A

Intubation
SGA with good seal

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87
Q

Rate of ventilation during CPR when continuous ventilation possible

A

10 per min

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88
Q

Vascular access in arrest

A

If pt has CVC - use this

Otherwise attempt to gain peripheral access
- drugs will need to be followed by a flush of 20mL fluid and elevation of extremity (for 10-20s) to allow adequate delivery to central circulation

If IV access difficult, consider IO

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89
Q

IO access sites

A

Proximal humerus
Proximal Tibia
Distal Tibia

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90
Q

Contraindications to IO access

A

Trauma
Infection
Prosthesis at target site
Recent IO access (last 48h) in the same limb
Failure to identify anatomical landmarks

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91
Q

Complications associated with IO access

A
  • extravasation into soft tissues around insertion site
  • dislodgement of needle
  • compartment syndrome (due to extravasation)
  • fracture or chipping of bone during insertion
  • pain related to drugs/fluid
  • fat emboli
  • infection/Osteomyelitis
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92
Q

Four Hs - Hypoxia

A

Ensure adequate:
- ventilation with 100% O2 during CPR
- chest rise
- bilateral breath sounds

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93
Q

Four Hs - hypovolaemia

A

PEA caused by hypovolaemia is usually due to severe haemorrhage

Restore IV volume rapidly with fluid/blood (effective compressions require an adequate circulating volume)

Urgent interventions to stop haemorrhage

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94
Q

Four Hs - Hyper/hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, other metabolic disorders

A

identified on biochemical tests or suggested by Pt’s PMHx

IV CaCl is indicated in the presence of hyperkalaemia, hypocalcaemia and CCB overdose

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95
Q

Four Hs - hypothermia/hyperthermia

A

Suspect hypothermia in any drowning incident

96
Q

Four Ts - thrombosis

A

Coronary thrombosis is a common cause
- if ACS is suspected as cause it may be feasible to perform PCI during ongoing CPR but this requires mechanical compressions

Massive PE
- consider fibrinolytic therapy immediately if suspected
- if given, CPR needed for 60-90 mins after this

97
Q

Four Ts - tension PTX

A

clinical Dx or focussed US of chest

Decompress rapidly by thoracostomy or needle thoracocentesis and then insert a chest drain

98
Q

Four Ts - tamponade

A

difficult to diagnose in arrest (typical signs difficult to see)

Focused cardiac ultrasound can diagnose pericardial effusion

Have strong suspicion in an arrest after penetrating chest trauma or after cardiac surgery

99
Q

Four Ts - toxins

A

If no specific history, may be difficult to detect but may be revealed later by lab tests

Where available, appropriate antidotes should be used but a lot of treatment is supportive

100
Q

Extracorporeal CPR

A

Requires vascular access and a circuit with a pump and oxygenator

Can buy time until restoration of adequate spontaneous circulation in select patients who have a reversible cause, there is little comorbidity, and arrest was witnessed/has had immediate high-quality CPR

101
Q

Duration of CPR attempt

A

If attempts at achieving ROSC are unsuccessful the team leader should discuss stopping CPR with the team

Consider the circumstances and perceived prospect of a successful outcome

If it was considered appropriate to start CPR, it is usually considered worthwhile continuing whilst the patient remains in a shockable rhythm or there are potentially reversible causes that can be treated

Asystole >20mins in absence of reversible causes, generally constitutes reasonable grounds for stopping

102
Q

Diagnosing death after unsuccessful CPR

A

After stopping CPR observe the patient for 5 mins before confirming death

  • absence of central pulse on palpation
  • absence of heart sounds on auscultation

One or more can supplement the above:
- asystole on continuous ECG display
- absence of pulsatile flow on direct intra-arterial pressure monitoring
- absence of contractile activity using echo

After 5 mins of continued arrest, check pupil responses, corneal response, and motor response to supra-orbital pressure.

Time of death is recorded as the time at which these criteria are fulfilled

103
Q

What’s the most common site of airway obstruction in the unconscious patient?

A

the pharynx (soft palate / epiglottis rather than tongue)

104
Q

Sounds associated with airway obstruction

A

Inspiratory Stridor - laryngeal level or above
Expiratory Wheeze - lower airways
Gurgling - liquid foreign material in upper airways
Snoring - pharynx partially occluded by tongue/palate

105
Q

Mild choking

A

= effective cough

Able to answer “yes” to the question are you choking?
Able to speak, cough, breathe.

Mx => encourage coughing

106
Q

Severe choking

A

= ineffective cough

unable to speak, unable to breathe, attempts at coughing are silent, may lose consciousness

Mx if conscious => 5 back blows, 5 abdominal thrusts

Mx if unconscious => start CPR

107
Q

Basic techniques for opening the airway

A

Head tilt & chin lift
Jaw thrust

108
Q

How to perform head tilt, chin lift

A

one hand on pt’s forehead and tilt head back

fingertips of other hand under point of pt’s chin

gently lift to stretch anterior neck structures

109
Q

How to perform jaw thrust

A

identify angle of mandible

with the index and other fingers placed behind the mandible, apply steady upwards and forwards pressure to lift the mandible

With the thumbs, slightly open the mouth by downward displacement of the chin

110
Q

estimating size of OP/Guedel airway

A

checking length between pt’s incisors and the angle of the jaw

if in doubt, a bigger airway will be more beneficial than a smaller airway

111
Q

Insertion of OP/guedel airway

A

only attempt in unconscious patients (vomiting or laryngospasm may occur if gossopharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes are present)

  • open pt’s mouth
  • remove any foreign material if present
  • insert airway upside down into oral cavity until you reach junction between hard/soft palate
  • rotate it 180 degrees
  • advance airway until it lies within the pharynx

remove airway if pt gags or strains

112
Q

NP airway

A

better tolerated than OP airway in Pts who are not deeply unconscious

Size 6-7mm usually suitable for adults

Can cause bleeding in up to 30% of uses

If tube is too long it can stimulate laryngeal / glossopharyngeal reflexes

113
Q

When not to use NP airway

A

in a patient with suspected basal skull #

(rare chance of inadvertently inserting into cranial vault through the fracture)

114
Q

Suction

A

Wide-bore rigid sucker (yankauer) to remove liquid (blood, saliva, gastric contents) from the upper airway
=> use cautiously if gag reflex intact

Fine-bore flexible suction catheters may be needed in pts with limited mouth opening (can also be passed through OP/NP airways)

115
Q

Insertion of i-Gel airway

A
  • try to continue compressions throughout insertion (if necessary to stop, limit pause to 5 sec)
  • select appropriate size
  • lubricate the back, sides and front with a thin layer of lube
  • position so that the cuff outlet is facing the chin of the patient
  • ensure patient is ‘sniffing the morning air’
  • insert in direction towards the hard palate, glide device downwards and backwards with continuous but gentle push until a definitive resistance is felt
116
Q

Limitations of i-Gel airway

A
  • there is risk of significant leak around the cuff in presence of high airway resistance (e.g. COPD, pulmonary oedema) - may cause gastric inflation
  • uninterrupted chest compressions are likely to cause some gas leak, can revert to 30:2 if needed
  • theoretical risk of aspiration of stomach contents but rarely seen in clinical practice
  • may cause coughing, straining or laryngeal spasm (but not in an arrest)
117
Q

Laryngeal mask airway

A

= wide-bore tube with elliptical inflated cuff designed to seal around laryngeal opening

118
Q

Types of Supraglottic airways

A

i-Gel
Laryngeal Mask Airway

119
Q

” no trace = wrong place”

A

exhaled CO2 will be detectable by waveform capnography even during cardiac arrest, failure to detect any CO2 indicate that the tube is in the oesophagus

120
Q

Cricothyroidotomy

A

most often needed in patients with extensive facial trauma or severe laryngeal obstruction (eg. anaphylaxis/foreign material)

=> surgical airway below the level of obstruction

should only be performed by those trained in the technique

121
Q

Conventional defibrillator pad positions

A

Beneath right clavicle
Left mid-axillary line

122
Q

Alternative pad positions

A

e.g. if permanent pacemaker, chest wall trauma

Anterior/posterior - left precordium and on the back behind the heart

Lateral/posterior - left mid-axillary line, on the bakc behind the heart

Bi-axillary - both lateral chest walls

123
Q

pre-excited AF

A

occurs in the presence of an accessory pathway in WPW syndrome

produces an irregular broad complex tachycardia which might be mistaken for polymorphic VT

Correct Tx is immediate defibrillation

left untreated, this can leat to VT/VF causing cardiac arrest

124
Q

VT with pulse

A

management follows broad-complex tachycardia algorithm

125
Q

what is a capture beat

A

when atrial beats are conducted to the ventricles during VT

produces a single normal-looking QRS complex during monomorphic VT

126
Q

what is a fusion beat

A

can be seen in VT

a wave of depolarisation travelling down from the AV node occurs simultaneously with a wave of depolarisation travelling from the ventricular focus producing the arrhythmia

results in a hybrid QRS complex

127
Q

SVT in bundle branch block

A

in the presence of BBB, SVT will cause a broad-complex tachycardia

however the safest approach is to regard all broad-complex tachycardias as VT unless proven otherwise

128
Q

Torsade de Pointes

A

= polymorphic VT

the axis of electrical activity changes in a rotational way, so that the overall pattern of the ECG rhythm strip is sinusoidal

129
Q

What should be avoided in patients with TdP

A

drugs that prolong QT interval (e.g. amiodarone)

130
Q

What is bradycardia

A

<60 bpm

may be physiological in fit people/during sleep
may be an expected result of Tx (e.g. beta blockers)

Pathological bradycardia may be caused by malfunction of the SA node or partial/complete failure of AV node.

131
Q

Emergency Tx of bradycardia

A

Atropine and/or cardiac pacing

the need for treatment depends on haemodynamic effect and risk of developing asystole, rather than the precise ECG classification

132
Q

1st degree AV block

A

fixed PR interval >0.20s

rarely requires Tx

133
Q

2nd degree Mobitz 1 heart block

A

PR interval shows progressive prolongation, until a P wave occurs without a QRS complex

Also called Wenckeback heart block

Does not usually require immediate Tx

134
Q

2nd degree Mobitz 2 heart block

A

A constant prolonged PR interval, with some P waves not followed by QRS complex

Occurs randomly without a consistent pattern

Increased risk of progression to AV block and asystole

135
Q

Complete heart block (3rd degree)

A

no correlation between P waves and QRS

Likely to stop abruptly, resulting in asystole

136
Q

Escape rhythm

A

If the SA node fails, cardiac depolarisation may be initiated from a subsidary ‘pacemaker’ elsewhere

the resulting escape rhythm will be slower than normal

137
Q

Agonal rhythm

A

occurs in dying patients
Commonly seen in later stages of unsuccessful resuscitation attempts

Slow, irregular, wide ventricular complexes
Often become progressively broader before progressing to asystole

Does not generate a palpable pulse

138
Q

mechanism of defibrillation

A

= the passage of an electrical current of sufficient magnitude across the myocardium to depolarise a critical mass of cardiac muscle simultaneously

the aim is to enable the natural pacemaker tissue to resume control

139
Q

Factors affecting defibrillation success

A

Thoracic Impedence:
- ensure good skin contact (removal of drug patches, shave chest)

Electrode position

140
Q

What is considered successful defibrillation?

A

= the absence of VF/pVT at 5s after shock delivery

although, the ultimate goal is ROSC

141
Q

Synchronised cardioversion

A

used for atrial or ventricular tachyarrhythmias (not pVT or VF)

the shock must be synchronised with the R wave to reduce the risk of inducing VF

142
Q

Defibrillation near a pacemaker ICD

A

to minimise risk, place the defibrillator electrodes >8cm away from the pacemaker or ICD

if necessary use anterior/posterior or bi-axillary position

you may need to deactivate the ICD with a magnet

143
Q

Internal defibrillation

A

= internal paddles applied directly to the ventricles

requires considerably less energy (10-20 J) - do not exceed 50 J

144
Q

Intrinsic rates of cardiac conducting system

A

SA node - 60-70bpm
AV node - 40-50 bpm (narrow QRS)
Distal to Bundle of His - 0-30 bpm (broad QRD)

145
Q

Broad-complex complete heart block

A

when the HB occurs lower in the conducting system than bundle of His

The escape rhythm is unreliable and may fail transiently (leading to syncope) or fail completely (leading to ventricular standstill / cardiac arrest)

THIS WILL NEED PACING

146
Q

Stokes-Adams Attack

A

= a sudden, brief loss of consciousness from a large drop in cardiac output

147
Q

methods of pacing

A

NON-INVASIVE
percussion (fist) pacing
transcutaneous pacing

INVASIVE
temporary transvenous pacing
permanent pacing

148
Q

Percussion Pacing

A

may produce an adequate cardiac output with less trauma to the patient than CPR

more likely to be successful when ventricular standstill is accompanied by P wave activity

  1. with side of closed fist deliver repeated, firm thumps to precordium, just lateral to left sternal edge
  2. raise hand to about 20cm above the chest before each thump
  3. monitor ECG to assess if QRD is achieved by each thump
  4. if initial thumps don’t work, try slightly harder
  5. if this still fails, move the point of contact around the precordium until a point is found that produces ventricular stimulation

If does not produce a regular pulse promptly, start CPR immediately

149
Q

advantages vs disadvantages of transcutaneous pacing

A
  • can be established quickly, widely available, easy to perform
  • causes discomfort in a conscious patient, not as reliable so only short-term solution
150
Q

How to perform transcutaneous pacing

A
  1. remove chest hair if needed and ensure skin is dry
  2. Apply pads in conventional position (A-P if needed)
  3. select appropriate pacing rate (usually 60-90)
  4. set energy output to lowest setting and gradually increase until a pacing ‘spike’ appears on ECG followed by a QRS immediately and check a T wave follows
  5. having achieved electrical capture, ensure there is a palpable pulse

WARN PATIENTS THERE WILL BE DISCOMFORT

151
Q

what can cause a temporary transvenous pacing system to fail?

A

1 - HIGH THRESHOLD
2 - CONNECTION FAILURE
3 - LEAD DISPLACEMENT

152
Q

Where should defib pads be placed if the pt has an ICD or pacemaker?

A

> 8cm from device

153
Q

ICDs

A

implanted device to terminate life-threatening tachyarrythmia

  • delivers a shock when it detects VF or fast VT
  • most can also function as demand pacemakers in the event of bradycardia
  • some devices will deliver biventricular pacing for heart failure
154
Q

life-threatening features of arrhythmia

A

Shock
Syncope
Heart Failure
MI
Extremes of heart rate

155
Q

Extreme tachycardia

A

when HR increases, diastole is shortened to a greater degree than systole

if rate >150 this can reduce cardiac output dramatically (due to inability to fill correctly due to short diastole)

156
Q

Extreme bradycardia

A

HR <40 often tolerated poorly

especially when people have severe heart disease and cannot compensate for bradycardia by increasing SV

157
Q

Treatment for extreme arrythmias

A

depending on the presence or absence of life-threatening features

  1. no treatment needed
  2. simple clinical intervention (e.g. vagal manoeuvres / percussion pacing)
  3. pharmacological
  4. electrical (cardioversion for tachy, pacing for brady)
158
Q

Adult tachycardia management guidelines

A

if life-threatening features –> up to 3x synchronised DC shocks, if unsuccessful then amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-20 mins

If no features, then depends if QRS narrow/broad

NARROW:
- irregular - Tx as AF
- regular vagal manoeuvres, then adenosine

BROAD:
- if VT –> amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-60mins

159
Q

Adenosine in tachycardia

A

for narrow complex tachycardia after vagal manoeuvres failed

Give adenosine (if no pre-excitation) 6mg rapid IV bolus

If unsuccessful, give 12mg
If unsuccessful, give 18mg

Needs continuous ECG monitoring

If still ineffective, verapamil/beta-blocker

160
Q

synchronised cardioversion

A

either under conscious sedation or GA

set defib to deliver a synchronised shock (it will coincide with the R wave)

Press the shock button and keep pressed until after the shock has occured (might eb a slight delay)

161
Q

Why do you use specifically a synchronised shock when doing cardioversion

A

an unsynchronised shock could coincide with a T wave and cause VF

162
Q

Post-cardiac arrest brain injury

A

= cause of death in 68% of patients who have an OHCA and have survived to ITU

usually manifests as coma, seizures, myoclonus, varying degrees of neurological dysfunction and brain death.

Worsened by: mpaired autoregulation, hyper/hypocapnia, hypoxia/hyperoxia, hypo/hyperglycaemia, pyrexia and seizures. Thus treatment is aimed at preventing these.

163
Q

Post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction

A

‘myocardial stunning’

may result in a temporary but significantly reduced LV ejection fraction and therefore cardiac output.

It typically recovers after 72h.

164
Q

Systemic ischaemia-reperfusion response

A

whole body ischaemia/reperfusion that occurs after resuscitation from cardiac arrest activates immunological and coagulation pathways that cause multiple organ failure and increase the risk of infection.

165
Q

Post-cardiac arrest syndrome

A

Often complicates the post-resuscitation phase. This comprises of:

Post-cardiac arrest brain injury.
Post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction.
Systemic ischaemia/reperfusion response.
Persistence of precipitating pathology.

166
Q

ROSC - persistence of precipitating pathology

A

Any persisting pathology relating to the cause of the cardiac arrest, such as a myocardial infarction or a pulmonary embolism, will also need treatment.

167
Q

ROSC - temperatures

A

fevers are common post-arrest
continuously monitor core temperature in a ROSC pt

treat any pyrexia with cooling and antipyrexials

168
Q

Rate control in AF

A

First-line usually beta-blocker

Can use diltiazem if BB contraindicated

Digoxin may be used in patients with heart failure.

Amiodarone may be used to assist with rate control but is most useful in maintaining rhythm control.

169
Q

Rhythm control in AF

A

If AF is <48 hours

PHARMACOLOGICAL
- Flecanide (seek expert help)
- Amiodarone (300 mg over 20-60 min followed by 900 mg over 24 h) may be used but is less often effective than drugs like flecainide and takes longer to work.

ELECTRICAL

170
Q

Contraindications to using Flecanide

A

Do not use flecainide in the presence of heart failure, known left ventricular impairment, ischaemic heart disease, or a prolonged QT interval.

171
Q

AF >48 hours

A

If the pt has been in AF for >48 hours, do not attempt cardioversion until they have been fully anticoagulated for at least 3 weeks, or unless transoesophageal echocardiography has detected no evidence of atrial thrombus.

172
Q

Appropriate energy settings for cardioversion

A

For a broad-complex tachycardia, start with a 120-150 J biphasic shock and increase in increments if this fails to a maximum of three attempts.

For atrial fibrillation, start at the maximum defibrillator output.

Atrial flutter and regular narrow-complex tachycardia will often be terminated by lower-energy shocks: start with 70-120 J biphasic.

173
Q

What is the best pad placement for electrical cardioverion

A

Anterior-posterior placement

174
Q

Failure of electrical cardioversion in tachycardia

A

If cardioversion is unsuccessful at terminating the arrhythmia after delivery of three shocks of increasing energy:

Give the patient amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-20 min.

Attempt further synchronised cardioversion.

The loading dose of amiodarone may be followed by an infusion of 900mg over 24h, given into a large vein (preferably via a central venous cannula).

175
Q

Treatment of sinus tachycardia

A

Sinus tachycardia is not an arrhythmia.

It is a common physiological response to stimuli such as exercise or anxiety.

Do not attempt to treat sinus tachycardia with cardioversion or anti-arrhythmic drugs as treatment is directed at the underlying cause.

176
Q

Use of atropine in bradycardia

A

Used when there is evidence of life-threatening signs in bradycardia

Dose = 500mcg IV

Repeat to a maximum of 3mg

Other drugs to use:
- Isoprenaline
- Adrenaline
- aminophylline
- glucagon (in BB/CCB overdose)

PACING

177
Q

What increases the risk if asystole in bradycardia?

A

recent asystole
mobitz II AV block
complete heart block with broad QRS
ventricular pause > 3 s.

178
Q

Causes of broad-complex tachycardia

A

either ventricular in origin

or supraventricular with BBB

Safest approach is to manage as VT if in doubt

179
Q

Irregular broad-compplex tachycardia

A

most likely to be AF with BBB
will need careful examination of 12-lead ECG

can be polymorphic VT (but this is unlikely to present without adverse features)

180
Q

narrow-complex tachycardias

A

REGULAR:
- sinus tachy
- SVT
- atrial flutter with regular AV conduction (i.e. 2:1)

IRREGULAR
- most likely AF
- atrial flutter with variable conduction

181
Q

Management of SVT

A

If life-threatening features –> synchronised shock

If no adverse features:

  1. Vagal manoeuvres (record an ECG during each manoeuvre ? identify any flutter waves)
  2. Adenosine 6mg -> 12mg -> 18mg (rapid IV boluses)
182
Q

Exception to non-shockable branch of ALS algorithm

A

rapid narrow complex tachy with no pulse

technically this is PEA and CPR should be started

however, the most appropriate Tx is synchronised shock

183
Q

Contraindications to atropine

A

patient with cardiac transplant (heart is denervated and will not respond)

184
Q

Patient with bradycardia and no life-threatening features

A

If NO life threatening features and NO high risk of progression to asystole then do not initiate immediate treatment

Monitor and re-assess
Seek expert help

185
Q

Main causes of hyperkalaemia

A
  • renal failure
  • drugs (e.g. ACEi, ARB, NSAIDs, BBs, trimethoprim)
  • tissue breakdown
  • metabolic acidosis
  • endocrine disorders
  • diet
  • spurious (e.g. haemolysed sample)
186
Q

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

1st degree AV block
flattened/absent P waves
tall, peaked T-waves
ST-depression
sine-wave pattern
widened QRS
VT
bradycardia
Cardiac arrest

187
Q

tall, tented T-waves

A

T waves larger than R wave in more than one lead

188
Q

Treatment of hyperkalaemia

A
  1. cardiac protection (calcium gluconate)
  2. shift potassium into cells
    - insulin (+ glucose)
    - salbutamol
  3. remove potassium from body
    - Lokelma
    - dialysis
  4. monitor serum K and glucose
  5. prevention of recurrence
189
Q

Modifications of CPR associated with hyperkalaemia

A
  • confirm hyperkalaemia on VBG
  • protect heart with CALCIUM CHLORIDE 10%
  • shift potassium into cells
  • give sodium bicarb
  • consider dialysis and need for mechanical chest compressions for prolonged CPR during this
190
Q

Giving sodium bicarb in hyperkalaemia

A

50mmol IV by rapid injection
(50mL of 8.4% solution)

try to give separately to CaCl as can cause a precipitate

191
Q

Risk of SCD in hypokalaemia

A

Hypokalaemia itself increases the risk of SCD

this risk is increased further in patients with pre-existing heart disease and in those on digoxin Tx

192
Q

Main causes of hypokalaemia

A

GI loss
drugs
renal losses
endocrine disorders
metabolic alkalosis
Mg depletion
poor dietary intake

193
Q

ECG features of hypokalaemia

A

U-waves
T-wave flattening
ST-segment changes
arrhythmias (especially if on digoxin)
Cardiac arrest

194
Q

ECG changes in Hypercalcaemia

A

short QT interval
Prolonged QRS
Flat T-waves
AV block
Cardiac arrest

195
Q

ECG changes in Hypocalcaemia

A

prolonged QT
TWI
Heart block
Cardiac arrest

196
Q

Emergency Tx of hypercalcaemia

A

fluid replacement IV
Furosemide 1mg/kg IV
Hydrocortisone
Pamidronate
Tx underlying cause

197
Q

Emergency Tx of hypocalcaemia

A

Calcium chloride 10% 10-40mL IV

1-2g 50% Mg sulphate (4-8mmol) IV if necessary

198
Q

ECG changes in Hypermagnesaemia

A

prolonged PR and QT
T-wave peaking
AV block
Cardiac arrest

199
Q

Emergency Tx of hypermagnesaemia

A

consider when Mg >1.75

Calcium chloride10% 5-10mL IV, repeated if necessary

Ventilatory support if necessary in resp. depression

Saline diuresis (saline & furosemide)

Haemodialysis

200
Q

ECG changes in hypomagnesaemia

A

Prolonged PR and QT
ST-depression
TWI
flattened P waves
broad QRS
TdP VT

201
Q

Emergency Tx of hypomagnesaemia

A

Magnesium sulfate IV 2g 50%

over different lengths of time depending on presentation

202
Q

What is the risk of OHCA in dialysis patients?

A

Up to 20x more risk than general population

203
Q

Resuscitation during dialysis

A

mostly the same but also:

  • dialysis nurse present for HD macine
  • stop dialysis
  • fluid bolus
  • prompt management of any hyperkalaemia
  • avoid excessive potassium and volume shifts during dialysis
204
Q

Sepsis 6

A

Bloods and cultures
Urine output (catheter, hourly)
Fluid resuscitation
ABX (broad-spectrum)
Lactate
Oxygen, if needed

205
Q

Modifications to CPR in event of toxins suspected

A

PPE and avoid mouth-to-mouth

treat life-threatening tachyarrythmias with cardioversion

try to identify toxins (relatives, friends, ambulance crews)

measure temperature

standard CPR if arrest occurs

be prepared to continue CPR for a long time, particularly in young patients, while the poisin is excreted (consider ECLS)

206
Q

Specific antidotes - opiate poisoning

A

Naloxone

400mcg IV (800mcg IM/SC)

titrate up to a maximum dose of 10mg

duration of action = 45-70 mins
give until pt is breathing adequately and then consider need for ?ongoing infusion

caution in pts with opiate dependence

207
Q

Specific antidotes - benzodiazepine poisoning

A

Flumazenil
(a competitive antagonist of benzos)

caution in pts with benzo dependence

208
Q

Specific antidotes - TCA poisoning

A

Consider sodium bicarb for treatment of TCA-induced ventricular conduction abnormalities

209
Q

Local anaesthetic toxicity

A

typically when a bolus of LA enters a blood vessel by mistake

= severe agitation, LOC +/- tonic-clonic convulsions, sinus brady, conduction blocks, asystole, VT

follow standard resuscitation measures

may benefit from 20% lipid emulsion in addition to standard ALS

210
Q

Stimulant toxicity

A

e.g. cocaine and amphetamines

agitation, tachycardia, hypertensive crisis, hyperthermia, MI

Tx with small doses of benzodiazepaines first-line

211
Q

Managing acute severe asthma

A
  • O2 to maintain sats
  • salbutamol nebs
  • ipratropium nebs
  • steroids
  • IV Magnesium 8mmol IV over 20 mins
  • following senior advice, consider aminophylline in severe/near fatal asthma only
  • fluid and electrolyte replacement as needed
  • ICU input
212
Q

arrest associated with asthma

A

follow standard ALS protocols

ventilation will be difficult due to increased airway resistance, so intubate early

try to avoid dynamic hyperinflation of lungs (gas trapping)

always consider bilateral tension PTX in asthma

213
Q

What is anaphylaxis

A

= systemic hypersensitivity reaction, usually rapid in onset and may cause death

suspect if sudden illness develops after exposure to a trigger, with rapidly progressing skin changes and life-threatening airway and/or breathing and/or circulation problems

214
Q

Anaphylaxis - life-threatening problems

A

AIRWAY
- airway swelling
- hoarse voice
- stridor

BREATHING
- SOB
- sheeze
- tiring
- cyanosis
- resp arrest

CIRCULATION
- pale, clammy
- tachycardia
- hypotension
- reduced consciousness
- myocardial ischaemia
- cardiac arrest

215
Q

Anaphylaxis - skin changes

A

can affect the skin, the mucosa, or both

  • erythema
  • urticaria
  • angioedema (deeper tissues - eyelids, lips, mouth, throat)

Skin changes without breathing/circulation problems does not signify anaphylaxis

216
Q

Anaphylaxis - Mx

A

LIE PATIENT FLAT
(can sit up if breathing difficulties but DO NOT STAND)

Remove trigger

O2 to maintain sats

ADRENALINE IM - 0.5mg for adults
IV fluid bolus
Repeat dose after 5 mins if no response

If no response –> REFRACTORY ANAPHYLAXIS GUIDELINES

217
Q

Injecting adrenaline in anaphylaxis

A

IM is best and quickest option

0.5mg in adults

anterolateral aspect of middle third of thigh

218
Q

How to confirm an event was anaphylaxis

A

mast cell tryptase (will be markedly increased in anaphylaxis)

219
Q

Maternal cardiac arrest

A

= a cardiac arrest at any stage of pregnancy up to 6 weeks after delivery

modifications:
- obtain expert help including obstetrician, paeds, anaesthetist
- if risk of IVC compression, aim to establish IV/IO access above the diaphragm
- left uterine displacement
- prepare for emergency C-section

220
Q

Prevention of cardiac arrest in pregnancy

A
  • place distressed/compromised person in left lateral position
  • high flow O2 to maintain sats
  • fluid bolus if needed
  • expert obstetric and anaesthetic help
221
Q

Peri-mortem C-section

A

Best done within 5 mins of maternal arrest

Not done <20 weeks gestation (no risk of IVC compression)

20-23 weeks - initiate emergency delivery to permit successful resuscitation of mother

gestation >24 weeks - initiate to help save the life of both mother and fetus

222
Q

Causes of cardiac arrest in trauma patients

A

TBI
hypovolaemia from massive blood loss
hypoxia from respiratory arrest or airway obstruction
direct injury to vital organs/major vessels
tension PTX
cardiac tamponade

223
Q

commotio cordis

A

= near cardiac arrest caused by blunt impact to chest wall which causes pVT/VF

224
Q

Tension PTX - Mx

A

immediate decompression of chest cavity

NEEDLE DECOMPRESSION
- 2nd intercostal space
- 4th/5th intercostal space mid-axillary line
- chest drain asap

OPEN THORACOSTOMY (preferred if trained clinician available)
- inciscion in chest wall (5th ICS mid-axillary line) followed by dissection into pleural space
- insert chest drain following ROSC

CLAMSHELL THORACOTOMY
- may be required in traumatic cardiac arrest

225
Q

Cardiac arrest following submersion in water

A

correction of hypoxaemia by ventilation only is critical and may lead to ROSC

226
Q

Water resuce

A
  • attempt to rescue the drowning person without entering the water yourself
  • open airway and check for signs of life (agonal breathing is common)
  • give 5 initial ventilations (with O2 if available)
  • if not responded to initial ventilations, commence CPR 30:2 (avoid compression only as likely to be hypoxia driven)
227
Q

Mild hypothermia

A

core temp 32-35 degrees

228
Q

moderate hypothermia

A

core temp 28-32 degrees

229
Q

severe hypothermia

A

core temp <28 degrees

230
Q

modifications of CPR in hypothermia

A
  • heart may be unresponsive to drugs until warmed - without meds until core temp >30
  • once 30*C reached, double usual length of intervals between drugs
  • as normothermia is approached, use standard drug protocols
231
Q

Rewarming after hypothermia

A

removal from cold environment
remove wet clothes
conscious people should mobilise

full body insulation
heated IV fluids

232
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

= rare disorder of skeletal muscle calcium homeostasis characterised by muscle contracture and life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis following exposure tof genetically predisposed individuals to halogenating anaesthetics and depolarising muscle relaxants

233
Q

Forms of heat stroke

A
  1. NON-EXERTIONAL - during high environmental temperatures
  2. EXERTIONAL - during strenuous physical exercise in high environmental temperatures and/or high humidity
234
Q

Treatment of hyperthermia/heat-stroke

A

transfer to cool environment, lie flat

cool to <39 (ideally lower)

cold water immersion / full body conductive cooling systems

cold fluids

correct electrolyte abnormalities

235
Q

Mx of malignant hyperthermia

A

stop triggering agents
give O2
correct acidosis and electrolytes
start active cooling
DANTROLENE

236
Q

Base Excess

A

= a measure of the amount of excess acid or base that is in the blood as a result of a metabolic derangement.

A base excess that is:
- more negative than -2 mmol L-1 (negative base excess) and pH less than 7.35 indicates a metabolic acidosis.

  • greater than +2 mmol L-1 (base excess) and pH greater than 7.45 indicates a metabolic alkalosis.