allthethings. Flashcards

1
Q

A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by the stimulus that is increased in reinforcing effectiveness by the same motivating operation is called the _______ _______. For example, food ingestion decreases the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by food.

A

abative effect

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2
Q

A motivating operation that decreases the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event is called an _______ _______. For example, the reinforcing effectiveness of food is abolished as a result of food ingestion.

A

abolishing operation

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3
Q

An alteration in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by the stimulus that is altered in effectiveness by the same motivating operation is called the _______-_______ _______. For example, the frequency of behavior that has been reinforced with food is increased or decreased by food deprivation or food ingestion.

A

behavior-altering effect

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4
Q

A motivating operation whose value-altering effect depends on a learning history is called a _______ _______ operation. For example, because of the relation between locked doors and keys, having to open a locked door is this, and makes keys more effective as reinforcers, and evokes behavior that has obtained such keys.

A

conditioned motivating

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5
Q

A stimulus that has abative effects on the current frequency of some type of response, and will function as a conditioned punisher that decreases the future frequency of the type of response that preceded its onset, is called a _______ _______ related to punishment.

A

discriminative stimulus

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6
Q

Any environmental variable that alters the effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event as a reinforcer, and alters the current frequency of all behavior that has been reinforced by that stimulus, object, or event is called _______ _______.

A

establishing operation

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7
Q

An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by the stimulus that is increased in reinforcing effectiveness by the same motivating operation is called the _______ _______. For example, food deprivation evokes (increases the current frequency of) behavior that has been reinforced by food.

A

evocative effect

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8
Q

A relatively permanent change in an organism’s repertoire of MO, stimulus, and response relations, caused by reinforcement, punishment, an extinction procedure, or a recovery from punishment procedure, is called a _______-_______ effect. Such effects in respondents result from the pairing and unpairing of antecedent stimuli.

A

function-altering

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9
Q

The term that has recently been suggested as a replacement for the term establishing operation is called _______ operation. An establishing operation is any environmental variable that alters the effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event as a reinforcer, and alters the current frequency of all behavior that has been reinforced by that stimulus, object, or event.

A

motivating

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10
Q

The occurrence of a previously punished type of response without its punishing consequence is called _______ from punishment procedure. This procedure is analogous to the extinction of previously reinforced behavior and has the effect of undoing the effect of the punishment.

A

recovery

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11
Q

A stimulus that acquires motivating operation effectiveness by preceding some form of worsening or improvement is called a _______ _______ motivating operation. It is exemplified by the warning stimulus in a typical escape-avoidance procedure, which establishes its own offset as reinforcement and evokes all behavior that has accomplished that offset.

A

reflexive conditioned

CMO-R

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12
Q

A decrease in the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event caused by a motivating operation is called the _______-_______ effect. For example, food ingestion decreases the reinforcing effectiveness of food.

A

reinforcer-abolishing

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13
Q

An increase in the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event caused by a motivating operation is called the _______-_______ effect. For example, food deprivation establishes (increases) the reinforcing effectiveness of food.

A

reinforcer-establishing

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14
Q

A stimulus that acquires its motivating operation effectiveness by being paired with another motivating operation and has the same value-altering and behavior-altering effects as the motivating operation with which it was paired is called a _______ _______ motivating operation.

A

surrogate conditioned

CMO-S

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15
Q

An environmental variable that, as a result of a learning history, establishes (or abolishes) the reinforcing effectiveness of another stimulus and evokes (or abates) the behavior that has been reinforced by that other stimulus is called a _______ _______ motivating operation.

A

transitive conditioned

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16
Q

A motivating operation whose value-altering effect does not depend on a learning history is called an _______ motivating operation. For example, food deprivation increases the reinforcing effectiveness of food without the necessity of any learning history.

A

unconditioned

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17
Q

The occurrence alone of a stimulus that acquired its function by being paired with an already effective stimulus, or the occurrence of the stimulus in the absence as well as in the presence of the effective stimulus, is called _______.

A

unpairing

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18
Q

An alteration in the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event as a result of a motivating operation is called the _______-_______ effect. For example, the reinforcing effectiveness of food is altered as a result of food deprivation and food ingestion.

A

value-altering

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19
Q

Behavior that occurs as a collateral effect of a schedule of periodic reinforcement for other behavior is called _______ behavior. Examples include time-filling or interim activities such as doodling, idle talking, smoking, and drinking that are induced by schedules of reinforcement during times when reinforcement is unlikely to be delivered.

A

adjunctive behavior

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20
Q

An _______ schedule provides reinforcement whenever the requirement of either a ratio schedule or an interval schedule (the basic schedules that makeup the this schedule) is met, regardless of which of the component schedule’s requirements is met first.

A

alternative

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21
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which the response requirements of two or more basic schedules must be met in a specific sequence before reinforcement is delivered is called a _______ schedule of reinforcement. Here, a discriminative stimulus is correlated with each component of the schedule.

A

chained

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22
Q

A schedule of reinforcement consisting of two or more elements of continuous reinforcement (CRF), the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement (FR, VR, Fl, VI), differential reinforcement of various rates of responding (DRH, DRL), and extinction, is called a _______ schedule of reinforcement. The elements from these basic schedules can occur successively or simultaneously and with or without discriminative stimuli. Reinforcement may be contingent on meeting the requirements of each element of the schedule independently or in combination with all elements.

A

compound

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23
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which two or more contingencies of reinforcement (elements) operate independently and simultaneously for two or more behaviors is called a _______ schedule of reinforcement.

A

concurrent

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24
Q

A _______ schedule of reinforcement is in effect whenever reinforcement follows the completion of response requirements for both a ratio schedule and an interval schedule of reinforcement.

A

conjunctive

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25
Q

A schedule of reinforcement that provides reinforcement for each occurrence of the target behavior is called a _______ reinforcement schedule.

A

continuous

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26
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement is provided at the end of a predetermined interval contingent on the number of responses emitted during the interval being fewer than a gradually decreasing criterion based on the individual’s performance in previous intervals (e.g., fewer than five responses per 5 minutes, fewer than four responses per 5 minutes, fewer than three responses per 5 minutes) is called differential reinforcement of _______ rates.

A

diminishing

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27
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement is provided at the end of a predetermined interval contingent on the number of responses emitted during the interval being greater than a gradually increasing criterion based on the individual’s performance in previous intervals (e.g., more than three responses per 5 minutes, more than five responses per 5 minutes, more than eight responses per 5 minutes) is called differential reinforcement of _______ rates.

A

high

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28
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement (a) follows each occurrence of the target behavior that is separated from the previous response by a minimum interresponse time (IRT), or (b) is contingent on the number of responses within a period of time not exceeding a predetermined criterion, is called differential reinforcement of _______ rates. Practitioners use DRL schedules to decrease the rate of behaviors that occur too frequently but should be maintained in the learner’s repertoire.

A

low

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29
Q

A schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement is delivered for the first response emitted following the passage of a fixed duration of time since the last response was reinforced is called a _______ _______ schedule. For example, on a 3-minute schedule, the first response following the passage of 3 minutes is reinforced.

A

fixed interval

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30
Q

A schedule of reinforcement requiring a fixed number of responses for reinforcement is called a _______ _______ schedule. For example, a 4 schedule reinforcement follows every fourth response.

A

fixed ratio

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31
Q

A contingency of reinforcement in which some, but not all, occurrences of the behavior produce reinforcement is called an _______ schedule of reinforcement.

A

intermittent

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32
Q

A situation in which reinforcement is available only during a finite time following the elapse of an FT or VI interval is called _______ _______. If the target response does not occur within the time limit, reinforcement is withheld and a new interval begins.

A

limited hold

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33
Q

The allocation of responses to choices available on concurrent schedules of reinforcement is called _______ _______. The rates of responding across choices are distributed in proportions that match the rates of reinforcement received from each choice alternative.

A

matching law

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34
Q

A compound schedule of reinforcement consisting of two or more basic schedules of reinforcement (elements) that occur in an alternating, usually random, sequence, where no discriminative stimuli are correlated with the presence or absence of each element of the schedule, and reinforcement is delivered for meeting the response requirements of the element in effect at any time, is called a _______ schedule.

A

mixed

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35
Q

A compound schedule of reinforcement consisting of two or more basic schedules of reinforcement (elements) that occur in an alternating, usually random, sequence, where a discriminative stimulus is correlated with the presence or absence of each element of the schedule, and reinforcement is delivered for meeting the response requirements of the element in effect at any time, is called a _______ schedule.

A

multiple

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36
Q

The absence of responding for a period of time following reinforcement is called a postreinforcement _______. This effect is commonly produced by fixed interval (Fl) and fixed ratio (FR) schedules of reinforcement.

A

pause

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37
Q

A schedule that systematically thins each successive reinforcement opportunity independent of the individual’s behavior is called a _______ schedule of reinforcement. These schedules are thinned using arithmetic or geometric progressions.

A

progressive

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38
Q

A behavioral effect associated with abrupt increases in ratio requirements when moving from denser to thinner reinforcement schedules is called _______ _______. Common effects include avoidance, aggression, and unpredictable pauses or cessation in responding.

A

ratio strain

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39
Q

A rule specifying the environmental arrangements and response requirements for reinforcement is called a _______ of reinforcement. Also defined as a description of a contingency of reinforcement.

A

schedule

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40
Q

Changing a contingency of reinforcement by gradually increasing the response ratio or the extent of the time interval is called schedule _______. This results in a lower rate of reinforcement per responses, time, or both.

A

thinning

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41
Q

A schedule of reinforcement identical to the chained schedule except, like the mix schedule, does not use discriminative stimuli with the elements in the chain, is called a _______ schedule.

A

tandem

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42
Q

A schedule of reinforcement that provides reinforcement for the first correct response following the elapse of variable durations of time occurring in a random or unpredictable order is called a _______ _______ schedule of reinforcement. Here, the mean duration of the intervals is used to describe the schedule (e.g., on a 10-minute schedule, reinforcement is delivered for the first response following an average of 10 minutes since the last reinforced response, but the time that elapses following the last reinforced response might range from 30 seconds or less to 25 minutes or more).

A

variable interval

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43
Q

A schedule of reinforcement requiring a varying number of responses for reinforcement is called a _______ _______ schedule of reinforcement. Here, the number of responses required varies around a random number, and the mean number of responses required for reinforcement is used to describe the schedule (e.g., on a 10 schedule an average of 10 responses must be emitted for reinforcement, but the number of responses required following the last reinforced response might range from 1 to 30 or more).

A

variable ratio

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44
Q

Anyone who functions as a discriminative stimulus evoking verbal behavior is called the _______. Different types of these may control different verbal behavior about the same topic because of a differential reinforcement history. Teens may describe the same event in different ways when talking to peers versus parents.

A

audience

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45
Q

A secondary verbal operant in which some aspect of a speaker’s own verbal behavior functions as an SD or an MO for additional speaker verbal behavior is called an _______. This can be thought of as verbal behavior about verbal behavior.

A

autoclitic

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46
Q

Punishment that occurs independent of the social mediation by others (i.e., a response product serves as a punisher independent of the social environment) is called _______ punishment.

A

automatic

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47
Q

Reinforcement that occurs independent of the social mediation of other (e.g., scratch an insect bite relives the itch) is called _______ reinforcement.

A

automatic

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48
Q

A type of multiple control that occurs when a single verbal response is a function of more than one variable is called _______ multiple control.

A

convergent

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49
Q

An elementary verbal operant that is evoked by a nonvocal verbal discriminative stimulus that has point-to-point correspondence and formal similarity with the controlling response is called _______ a text.

A

copying

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50
Q

A type of multiple control that occurs when a single antecedent variable affects the strength of more than one responses is called _______ multiple control.

A

divergent

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51
Q

An elementary verbal operant involving a response that is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus that has point-to-point correspondence and formal similarity with the response is called an _______.

A

echoic

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52
Q

A situation that occurs when the controlling antecedent stimulus and the response or response product (a) share the same sense mode (e.g., both stimulus and response are visual, auditory, or tactile) and (b) physically resemble each other is called _______ _______. The verbal relations with this are echoic, coping a text, and imitation as it relates to sign language.

A

formal similarity

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53
Q

A tact evoked by a novel stimulus that shares all of the relevant or defining features associated with the original stimulus is called a _______ (tact) extension.

A

generic

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54
Q

A verbal operant involving a response that is evoked by both an MO and a nonverbal stimulus is called an _______ _______. The response is part mand and part tact.

A

impure tact

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55
Q

An elementary verbal operant that is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus and that does not have point-to-point correspondence with that verbal stimulus is called an _______.

A

intraverbal

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56
Q

Someone who provides reinforcement for verbal behavior is called a _______. This may also serve as an audience evoking verbal behavior.

A

listener

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57
Q

An elementary verbal operant that is evoked by an MO and followed by specific reinforcement is called a _______.

A

mand

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58
Q

A tact evoked by a novel stimulus that shares some, but not all, of the relevant features of the original stimulus is called a _______ (tact) extension.

A

metaphorical

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59
Q

A tact evoked by a novel stimulus that shares none of the relevant features of the original stimulus configuration, but some irrelevant yet related feature has acquired stimulus control, is called a _______ (tact) extension.

A

metonymical

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60
Q

A relation between the stimulus and response or response product that occurs when the beginning, middle, and end of the verbal stimulus matches the beginning, middle, and end of the verbal response is called ______-___-______ correspondence. The verbal relations with this are echoic, copying a text, imitation as it relates to sign language, textual, and transcription.

A

point-to-point

61
Q

Skinner wrote extensively about a philosophy for a science of behavior he called radical behaviorism, which attempts to explain all behavior, including _______ events such as thinking and feeling.

A

private

62
Q

A verbal response evoked by a stimulus property that is only indirectly related to the proper tact relation (e.g., Yogi Berra’s classic malapropism: “Baseball is ninety percent mental; the other half is physical.”) is called a _______ (tact) extension.

A

solistic

63
Q

Someone who engages in verbal behavior by emitting mands, tacts, intraverbals. autoclitics, and so on, is called a _______. This is also someone who uses sign language, gestures, signals, written words, codes, pictures, or any form of verbal behavior.

A

speaker

64
Q

An elementary verbal operant evoked by a nonverbal discriminative stimulus and followed by generalized conditioned reinforcement is called a _______.

A

tact

65
Q

An elementary verbal operant involving a response that is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus that has point-to-point correspondence, but not formal similarity, between the stimulus and the response product, is called _______.

A

textual

66
Q

An elementary verbal operant involving a spoken verbal stimulus that evokes a written, typed, or finger-spelled response, is called _______. Like the textual, there is point-to-point correspondence between the stimulus and the response product, but no formal similarity.

A

transcription

67
Q

Behavior whose reinforcement is mediated by a listener, that includes both vocal-verbal behavior (e.g., saying “Water, please” to get water) and nonvocal-verbal behavior (pointing to a glass of water to get water), is called _______ behavior. This encompasses the subject matter usually treated as language and topics such as thinking, grammar, composition, and understanding.

A

verbal

68
Q

Repeating conditions within an experiment to determine the reliability of effects and increase internal validity, and repeating whole experiments to determine the generality of findings of previous experiments to other subjects, settings, and/or behaviors, is called _______.

A

replication

69
Q

A systematic approach to the understanding of natural phenomena (as evidenced by description, prediction, and control) that relies on determinism as its fundamental assumption, empiricism as its primary rule, experimentation as its basic strategy, replication as a requirement for believability, parsimony as a value, and philosophic doubt as its guiding conscience, is called _______.

A

science

70
Q

Knowledge gained from a study that finds the systematic covariation between two events, termed a ______, can be used to predict the probability that one event will occur based on the occurrence of the other event.

A

correlation

71
Q

Results of experiments that show that specific manipulations of one event (the independent variable) produce a reliable change in another event (the dependent variable), and that the change in the dependent variable was unlikely the result of extraneous factors (confounding variables), produce a finding known as a ______ ______.

A

functional relation

72
Q

_______ espoused an early form of behaviorism known as stimulus-response (S-R) psychology, which did not account for behavior without obvious antecedent causes.

A

Watson

73
Q

The first published report of the application of operant conditioning with a human subject was a study by _______ (1949), in which an arm-raising response was conditioned in an adolescent with profound retardation.

A

Fuller

74
Q

The formal beginnings of applied behavior analysis can be traced to 1959 and the publication of _______n and _______l’s article, “The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer.”

A

Ayllon, Micheal

75
Q

The objective observation of the phenomena of interest, where objective observations are independent of the individual prejudices, tastes, and private opinions of the scientist, is called _______.

A

empiricism

76
Q

A verbal statement summarizing the results of an experiment (or group of related experiments) that describes the occurrence of the phenomena under study as a function of the operation of one or more specified and controlled variables in the experiment in which a specific change in one event (the dependent variable) can be produced by manipulating another event (the independent variable), and that the change in the dependent variable was unlikely the result of other factors (confounding variables) is called a _______ _______.

A

functional relation

77
Q

A presumed but unobserved process or entity (e.g., Freud’s id, ego, and superego) is called a _______ _______.

A

hypothetical construct

78
Q

An approach to explaining behavior that assumes that a mental, or “inner,” dimension exists that differs from a behavioral dimension, and that phenomena in this dimension either directly cause or at least mediate some forms of behavior, if not all, is called _______.

A

mentalism

79
Q

A philosophical position that views behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed as outside the realm of science is called _______ _______.

A

methodological behaviorism

80
Q

A checklist that provides descriptions of specific skills (usually in hierarchical order) and the conditions under which each skill should be observed, that can assess one particular behavior or skill, or multiple behavior or skill areas, that usually incorporates a Likert scale to rate responses, is called a _______ _______.

A

behavior checklist

81
Q

A form of assessment that involves a full range of inquiry methods (observation, interview, testing, and the systematic manipulation of antecedent or consequence variables) to identify probable antecedent and consequent controlling variables is called a _______ _______.

A

behavioral assessment

82
Q

The assessment that is designed to discover resources, assets, significant others, competing contingencies, maintenance and generality factors, and possible reinforcer and/or punishers that surround the potential target behavior is called a _______ _______.

A

behavioral assessment

83
Q

A behavior that has sudden and dramatic consequences that extend well beyond the idiosyncratic change itself, because it exposes the person to new environments, reinforcers, contingencies, responses, and stimulus controls, is called a _______l _______.

A

behavioral cusp

84
Q

An assessment protocol that acknowledges complex interrelationships between environment and behavior, that is a method for obtaining data across multiple settings and persons, is called an _______ _______.

A

ecological assessment

85
Q

A type of definition that designates responses as members of the targeted response class solely in terms of their common effect on the environment is called a _______-_______ definition.

A

function-based definition

86
Q

When a person’s repertoire has been changed such that short-term and long-term reinforcers are maximized, and short-term and long-term punishers are minimized, we say that _______ has occurred.

A

habilitation

87
Q

As a philosophy and principle, the belief that people with disabilities should, to the maximum extent possible, be physically and socially integrated into the mainstream of society regardless of the degree or type of disability, is called _______.

A

normalization

88
Q

As an approach to intervention, the use of progressively more typical settings and procedures to establish and/or maintain personal behaviors which are as culturally nonnal as possible, is called _______.

A

normalization

89
Q

A behavior that, when learned, produces corresponding modifications or covariation in other untrained behaviors, is called a _______ behavior.

A

pivotal

90
Q

The effects of an observation and measurement procedure on the behavior being measured is called _______. This is most likely when measurement procedures are obtrusive, especially if the person being observed is aware of the observer’s presence and purpose.

A

reactivity

91
Q

The rule that holds that only behaviors likely to produce reinforcement in the person’s natural environment should be targeted for change is called the _______ ____ _______ rule.

A

relevance of behavior

92
Q

The term that refers to the extent to which target behaviors are appropriate, intervention procedures are acceptable, and important and significant changes in target and collateral behaviors are produced, is called _______ _______.

A

social validity

93
Q

The response class selected for intervention, which can be defined either functionally or topographically, is called the _______ _______.

A

target behavior

94
Q

The type of definition that defines instances of the targeted response class by the shape or form of the behavior is called the _______-_______ definition.

A

topography-based

95
Q

The change (acceleration or deceleration) in rate of responding over time, based on count per unit of time (rate), expressed as a factor by which responding is accelerating or decelerating (multiplying or dividing), displayed with a trend line on a Standard Celeration Chart, is called _______. This is a generic term without specific reference to accelerating or decelerating rates of response.

A

celeration

96
Q

A unit of time (e.g., per week, per month) in which celeration is plotted on a Standard Celeration Chart is called the _______ _______ _______.

A

celeration time period

97
Q

The _______ _______ _______ is measured as a factor by which rate multiplies or divides across the celeration time periods (e.g., rate per week, rate per month, rate per year, and rate per decade).

A

celeration trend line

98
Q

Any operant whose response rate is controlled by a given opportunity to emit the response is called a _______ _______. Each discrete response occurs when an opportunity to respond exists. The terms “restricted operant” and “controlled operant” are synonymous technical terms with this term.

A

discrete trial

99
Q

The measurement procedure for obtaining a tally or count of the number of times a behavior occurs is called _______ _______.

A

event recording

100
Q

Any operant behavior that results in minimal displacement of the participant in time and space, that can be emitted at nearly any time, is discrete, requires minimal time for completion, and it can produce a wide range of response rates, is called a _______ _______. Examples in include the number of words read during a 1-minute counting period, the number of hand slaps per 6 seconds, and the number of letter strokes written in 3 minutes.

A

free operant

101
Q

A measure of temporal locus, defined as the elapsed time between two successive responses, is called the _______ _______.

A

interresponse time

102
Q

The process of assigning numbers and units to particular features of objects or events, or attaching a number representing the observed extent of a dimensional quantity to an appropriate unit, is called _______.

A

measurement

103
Q

A measurement method in which the presence or absence of behaviors are recorded at precisely specified time intervals is called _______ _______ _______.

A

momentary time sampling

104
Q

A time sampling method for measuring behavior in which the observation period is divided into a series of brief time intervals (typically from 5 to 10 seconds), where the observer records whether the target behavior occurred at any time during the interval, is called _______-_______ _______. This method is not concerned with how many times the behavior occurred during the interval or how long the behavior was present, just that it occurred at some point during the interval. This method tends to overestimate the proportion of the observation period that the behavior actually occurred.

A

partial-interval recording

105
Q

A measure of temporal locus, that is the elapsed time from the onset of a stimulus (e.g., task direction, cue) to the initiation of a response, is called the _______ _______.

A

response latency

106
Q

A measurement of the presence or absence of behavior within specific time intervals is called _______ _______. It is most useful with continuous and high-rate behaviors.

A

time sampling

107
Q

A special form of event recording, that is a measure of the number of responses or practice opportunities needed for a person to achieve a pre-established level of accuracy or proficiency, is called _______-_____-_______.

A

trials-to-criterion

108
Q

The extent to which observed values, the data produced by measuring an event, match the true state, or true values, of the event as it exists in nature, is called _______.

A

accuracy

109
Q

The extent to which the researcher convinces herself and others that the data are trustworthy and deserve interpretation is called _______. Measures of interobserver agreement (IOA) are the most often used index of this term in applied behavior analysis

A

belivevability

110
Q

Any procedure used to evaluate the accuracy of a measurement system and, when sources of error are found, to use that information to correct or improve the measurement system, is called _______.

A

calibration

111
Q

Measurement conducted in a manner such that all instances of the response class(es) of interest are detected during the observation period is called _______ measurement.

A

continuous

112
Q

When the behavior that is measured is the same as the behavior that is the focus of the investigation we have _______ measurement.

A

direct

113
Q

Measurement conducted in a manner such that some instances of the response class(es) of interest may not be detected is called _______ measurement.

A

discontinuous

114
Q

The percentage of total intervals in which two observers recorded the same count is called _______ _______-_____-_______ IOA. This is the most stringent description of IOA for most data sets obtained by event recording.

A

exact count-per-interval

115
Q

An index of the agreement between observers for data obtained by interval recording or time sampling measurement, which is calculated for a given session or measurement period by comparing the two observers’ recordings of the occurrence or nonoccurrence of the behavior in each observation interval and dividing the number of intervals of agreement by the total number of intervals and multiplying by 100, is called _______-____-_______ IOA. This term is also called the point-by-point or total interval.

A

interval-by-interval

116
Q

The average percentage of agreement between the counts reported by two observers in a measurement period comprised of a series of smaller counting times is called _______ ______-_____-_______ IOA. This is a more conservative measure of IOA than total count.

A

mean count-per-interval

117
Q

An IOA index for duration per occurrence data, which is also a more conservative and usually more meaningful assessment of IOA for total duration data calculated for a given session or measurement period by computing the average percentage of agreement of the durations reported by two observers for each occurrence of the target behavior, is called _______ _______-_____-_______ IOA.

A

mean duration-per-occurence

118
Q

Nonrandom measurement error is called _______ _______. This is a form of inaccurate measurement in which the data consistently overestimate or underestimate the true value of an event.

A

measurement bias

119
Q

An observer who is unaware of the study’s purpose and/or the experimental conditions in effect during a given phase or observation period is called a _______ _______. Data obtained by this person are less likely to be influenced by observers’ expectations.

A

naive observer

120
Q

A measure produced by an observation and measurement system is called an _______ _______. Theses serve as the data that the researcher and others will interpret to form conclusions about an investigation.

A

observed value

121
Q

Any unintended change in the way an observer uses a measurement system over the course of an investigation that results in measurement error is called _______ _______. This often entails a shift in the observer’s interpretation of the original definitions of the target behavior subsequent to being trained.

A

observer drift

122
Q

Influence on the data reported by an observer that results from the observer’s awareness that others are evaluating the data he reports is called _______ _______.

A

observer reactivity

123
Q

An interobserver agreement index based only on the intervals in which either observer recorded the occurrence of the behavior, that is calculated by dividing the number of intervals in which the two observers agreed that the behavior occurred by the number of intervals in which either or both observers recorded the occurrence of the behavior and multiplying by 100, is called _______-_______ IOA. This method is recommended as a measure of agreement for behaviors that occur at low rates because it ignores the intervals in which agreement by chance is highly likely.

A

scored-interval

124
Q

The simplest indicator of IOA for event recording data, that is based on comparing the total count recorded by each observer per measurement period, and is calculated by dividing the smaller of the two observers’ counts by the larger count and multiplying by 100, is called ______ ______ IOA.

A

total count

125
Q

A relevant index of IOA for total duration measurement, that is computed by dividing the shorter of the two durations reported by the observers by the longer duration and multiplying by 100, is called _______ _______ IOA

A

total duration

126
Q

An IOA index for discrete trial data based on comparing the observers’ counts (0 or 1) on a trial-by- trial, or item-by-item, basis, that yields a more conservative and meaningful index of IOA for discrete trial data than does total count, is called _______-____-_______ IOA.

A

trial-by-trial

127
Q

An interobserver agreement index based only on the intervals in which either observer recorded the nonoccurrence of the behavior, that is calculated by dividing the number of intervals in which the two observers agreed that the behavior did not occur by the number of intervals in which either or both observers recorded the nonoccurrence of the behavior and multiplying by 100, is called _______-_______ IOA. This method is recommended as a measure of agreement for behaviors that occur at high rates because it ignores the intervals in which agreement by chance is highly likely.

A

unscored-interval

128
Q

The extent to which data obtained from measurement are directly relevant to the target behavior of interest and to the reason(s) for measuring it is called _______.

A

validity

129
Q

Measurement of permanent products is desirable when:

a. each occurrence of the target behavior produces the same permanent product as a natural result of the behavior
b. each occurrence of the target behavior produces multiple types of permanent products as a natural result of the behavior
c. some occurrences of the target behavior produce the permanent product as a natural result of the behavior
d. all of the above

A

a. each occurrence of the target behavior produces the same permanent product as a natural result of the behavior

130
Q

Which type of recording is recommended when the goal is to produce a behavior
decrease?

a. whole interval
b. momentary time sampling
c. duration
d. partial interval

A

d partial interval

131
Q

Behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli is referred to as:

a. antecedent behavior
b. respondent behavior
c. operant behavior
d. evoked behavior

A

b. respondent bx

132
Q

What term best describes the use of a series of symbols to record the presence
or absence of classes of behavior?

a. observation coding
b. observational recording
c. interval recording
d. event coding

A

a. observational coding

133
Q

Applied behavior analysts often include reports of “interobserver reliability”
as:

a. a single correlation coefficient
b. the mean agreement score
c. the mean agreement score plus the lowest and highest scores
d. a and b above

A

c. the mean agreement score plus the lowest and highest scores

134
Q

Which level line is preferred when representing the central tendency of a series
of data points showing considerable variability?

a. mean
b. median
c. modal
d. standard variability trend

A

b. median

135
Q

Measurement tactics may be _____ variables.

a. semi-dependent
b. confounding
c. intrinsic
d. none of the above

A

b. confounding

136
Q

What is the major goal guiding behavior change programs in
applied settings?

a. developing appropriate behaviors
b. decreasing the occurrence of inappropriate behaviors
c. developing the individual’s awareness of the behavior
change process
d. identifying socially relevant behaviors

A

a. developing appropriate behaviors

137
Q

Another name for anecdotal observation is:

a. ABC recording
b. an anecdotal report
c. a diary record
d. all of the above

A

d.

138
Q

What is the greatest difficulty a behavior analyst may
have in implementing restitution and positive practice
overcorrection?

a. defining the inappropriate behavior
b. identifying reinforcers for the appropriate behavior
c. making an on-the-spot determination of the restitutional
activity
d. obtaining the commitment of all the staff members to the
overcorrection procedure

A

c.

139
Q

What is the difference between the time out procedure and
extinction?

a. in extinction, all sources of reinforcement are removed
b. time out is a negative reductive procedure while extinction
is a positive reductive procedure
c. during time out, access to reinforcers is controlled by
the rate or level of behavior, while the discontinuation of
reinforcement during extinction occurs no matter what
the level of behavior
d. time out leads to a gradual decrease in a target behavior,
while extinction leads to a rapid decrease

A

c.

140
Q

With which of the following populations has there been
less success in using contingency contrasting.

a. nonreaders
b. marriage partners
c. juvenile delinquents
d. learning disabled students

A

c.

141
Q

The general term for the confounding of effects observed
under one variable caused by the presence of other treatment
variables is:

a. sequence effects
b. multiple treatment interference
c. statistical regression
d. stimulus generalization

A

b.

142
Q

Behaviorists:

a. do NOT distinguish between “knowing” and “doing”
b. distinguish between “knowing” and “doing”
c. distinguish between what a person says and does
d. b and c above

A

d.

143
Q

A study is analytic when:

a. the experimenter has demonstrated control over the
occurrence and nonoccurrence of the behavior
b. the experimenter has demonstrated a functional relationship
between the manipulated events and the behavior of interest
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

A

c.

144
Q

Which of the following are disadvantages of behavioral
shaping?

a. it may require an extended training period to reach the final goal
b. it can reinforce gradually improving performance and put performance at the same or lower level on extinction
c. gradually improving performance, or performance at the same or lower levels, is put on extinction
d. none of the above

A

a.

145
Q

The design most appropriate for analyzing the effects of
a shaping program is the:

a. multiple probe design
b. changing criterion design
c. multiple baseline design
d. reversal design

A

a.

146
Q

One advantage of “bonus response cost” is that:

a. it can be combined easily with a reinforcement system
b. noncontingent reinforcers are more powerful than
contingent reinforcers
c. it lessens ethical concerns because existing reinforcers
are not removed
d. both a and c

A

d.

147
Q

What is an advantage of total task presentation?

a. the amount of interaction time between teacher and student is increased.
b. the student has the opportunity to practice each response in the behavior chain more often.
c. it is easier for the student to conceptualize the entire chain by practicing each link during the same training session.
d. it is simpler to demonstrate the relationship between discriminative stimulus and reinforcer functions of each response during total task presentation.

A

b.

148
Q

In the multiple baseline design, verification of a
predicted level of responding for one behavior

a. can be made
b. cannot be made
c. is never made
d. is always

A

a.

149
Q

What is the definition of a behavior chain?

a. a specific sequence of responses that meet gradually improving levels of performance to earn the delivery of reinforcers
b. a specific sequence of responses, each associated with a particular stimulus condition
c. a discrete response associated with a particular stimulus condition
d. a discrete response whose performance is gradually shaped by linking with other responses

A

b.