Allergy Flashcards

1
Q

What happens in early phase allergic reaction?

A
  • exposure to allergens* leads to the rapid development of symptoms
  • this reaction develops within seconds or minutes of exposure
  • results from the binding of allergens to pre-formed IgE antibodies on the surface of mast cells and basophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens after IgE binding?

A
  • IgE binds its specific allergen
  • Cross-linking of IgE antibodies by allergen leads to clustering of FcεR1 receptors
  • The intracellular portion of the receptor becomes phosphorylated
  • The resulting intracellular cascade leads to cellular activation
  • Mast cell ‘degranulates’ releasing histamine, tryptase and other pre-formed mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Review the Leuokortiene delayed allergy reaction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the Pharmacological effects of mast cell mediators and leukotrienes

A
  • Wheal and flare on skin
  • Discharge and sneezing from the nose
  • Red eyes
  • wheezing from the lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the general characteristics of allergens?

(4)

A
  • Proteins (there are a few minor exceptions)
  • Physical properties that favour transition across mucus membranes
  • Biologically active, often enzymes
  • Have moderate homology with self-proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Anaphylaxis?

  • clinical features seen?
  • common triggers
A
  • ‘Generalised allergic’ reaction
  • Systemic release of histamine causes generalised vasodilatation & fluid loss from circulation to tissues
    • Cutaneous: hives, angioedema
    • Gut histamine release: vomiting, diarrhoea
    • Mucosal histamine release: laryngeal oedema, bronchoconstriction
    • Circulation: vasodilatation, hypotension
  • Food, drugs and insect venom commonest triggers in UK
  • Cardinal features: typical symptoms, multi-system and dramatic, rapidly follows exposure to allergen and tends to improve fairly quickly thereafter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Oral allergy syndrome?

  • clinical symptoms
A
  • IgE directed against pollen proteins cross-reacts with homologous proteins in plant-derived foods
  • Oral itching upon exposure to raw fruit, nuts and vegetables
  • In UK:
    • Pollen = mainly birch
    • Food = mainly Rosaceae fruits (apples)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Rhinitis?

A
  • Sneezing, rhinorhoea, blockage due to a type 1 allergy
  • Lower airway obstruction
    • Wheeze due to type 1 allergy
  • Allergens/ symptoms may be:
    • Seasonal: pollens, moulds
    • Episodic: occupational, animal dander
  • When symptoms are chronic, the inflammation becomes established and cannot be explained simply in terms of mast cell degranulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens in late phase allergic reaction?

A
  • The early phase reaction to an allergen is followed some hours later by a second ‘late phase reaction’
  • Biopsy of the late phase shows infiltration with inflammatory cells – particularly CD4 T cells, eosinophils and mast cells;
    • largely Th2 cells produced
      • IL-4,5,9,13
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the relevance of T cell subsets in allergy and the

Th2 hypothesis

A
  • Th2 responses to allergens have been consistently associated with allergic disease
    • Biopsies of allergic inflammation are rich in T cells expressing Th2 cytokines
    • T cells from allergic patients stimulated with allergen in the laboratory produce Th2 cytokines
  • Plenty of reasons to believe that Th2 responses may be important in allergy:
    • IL-4 is required for B cell class switching to IgE
    • IL-4 and IL-13 promote mucus hypersecretion
    • IL-5 is required for eosinophil survival
  • IL-9 recruits mast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the Hygiene hypothesis in allergy aetiology?

A
  • Low hygiene levels, high pathogen load, helminth infection proposed to:
    • Skew immunity from Th2 to Th1
    • Induce regulatory T cells
  • High hygiene levels, low pathogen load, absence of helminth infection proposed to:
    • Skew immunity towards Th2
    • Reduce production of regulatory T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is allergy detected/ tested for?

A
  • in vivo: skin testing
  • in vitro: ELISA
  • this tests for allergen-specific IgE antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are treatments for allergy: Symptom relievers

A
  • B2 agonist
    • Eg salbutamol
    • Act on lung B2 adrenoreceptors, cause smooth muscle relaxation
  • Nasal decongestion
    • eg oxymetazoline
    • Act on α1 adrenoreceptors to cause vasoconstriction
    • Only for short-term use (can cause physiological dependence)
    • Topical and systemic
  • Epinephrine
    • Systemic adrenergic effects oppose vasodilatation and bronchoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are treatments for allergy: Drugs acting on early-phase mediators

A
  • H1 Antihistamines
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonists
  • Mast cell stabilisers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Mast cell stabilisers?

  • how do they work
  • efficacy
A
  • Eg sodium cromoglycate
  • Reduce mast cell degranulation by unknown mechanism
  • Not orally absorbed – topical use only
  • Short half-life requires frequent dosing
  • Main benefit is steroid-free, but efficacy very poor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are H1 Antihistamines?

  • how do they work
  • efficacy?
A
  • Inverse agonists at H1 histamine receptor
  • Best used before exposure to allergen
  • 1st generation eg chlorpheniramine
    • Considerable sedation, drug interactions
  • 2nd generation eg cerizine, loratidine, desloratidine, fexofenadine
    • No/ minimal sedation, once-daily
17
Q

What are Leukotriene receptor antagonists?

  • how do they work
  • efficacy?
A
  • Only UK drug is montelukast
  • Effective in reducing early allergic responses, but inferior to H1 antihistamines
  • Unlike anti-histamines, beneficial in chronic asthma, which is the main indication for their use
18
Q

What are other treatments for allergic diseases?

A
  • Corticosteroids
    • inhaled/nasal
    • topical preparations may cause local and systemic effects
  • Omalizumab
  • Allergen-specific immunotherapy
19
Q

What is Omalizumab
- how does it work

  • used in?
A

Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against IgE, used for atopic asthma (amongst other things)

20
Q

Explain the use of Allergen-specific immunotherapy

  • what are the 5 main immunological effects
A
  • Allergen doses administered by subcutaneous injection or sublingually
  • Provide long-term protection
  • Mainly venom allergy and rhinitis
  • Multiple immunological effects:
    • Induce regulatory T cell responses to allergens
    • Reduce Th2 responses
    • Induce allergen-specific IgG antibodies
    • Reduction in mast cell responsiveness
    • Reduce allergen-specific IgE levels
21
Q

What is the difference between contact dermatitis (Type IV sensitization) and type 1 allergy?

A
22
Q

What is the difference between Skin prick testing vs patch testing?

A
23
Q

What are the WHO classification for adverse drug reactions?

A
  • Type A
    • Related to Pharmacology of drug
    • Predictable
    • Usually dose-dependent
    • High morbidity, Low mortality
  • Type B: anything that resembles an allergic or immunological reaction
    • Not (directly) related to the pharmacology
    • Unpredictable
    • (Often) dose-independent
    • High mortality
24
Q

What is defined as immediate drug-related hypersensitivity?

A
  • Within 1 hour of drug administration
  • Skin: urticaria, angioedema
  • Respiratory: rhinitis, bronchospasm, laryngeal oedema
  • Cardiovascular collapse
  • The result of mast cell activation
  • May be IgE-mediated, or a form of non-allergic immediate DHR
  • NOT part of the ‘atopic’ phenotype of asthma, eczema, rhinitis and food allergy: risk is similar in atopic and non-atopic individuals (only exception is NSAIDS in asthma – see later)
25
Q

What is the time course of an immediate drug hypersensitivity reaction?

A
  • Within 1 hour of last dose
  • Often much quicker, particularly iv treatments
  • NSAIDS may be a little delayed, but still usually within 1 hour
  • Soon after initiation, usually 1st dose
  • Sensitisation typically during an earlier course
  • Usually takes about 14 days to class switch to IgE
  • Doesn’t always follow the rules – possibly activation of previously primed response
  • Key question to ask is the time between the LAST dose and symptom onset
26
Q

What are examples of immediate drug-related hypersensitivity that is non-IgE mediated?

A
  • Non-specific mast cell activation
    • Opiates, myorelaxants, radiocontrast media, vaccines
    • But note IgE-mediated also possible for these medications
    • More likely in people with underlying ‘spontaneous urticaria’ (untriggered itchy skin/ hives on most days)
  • ACEi angioedema – not immediate, but can appear
    • Also inhibit de-activator of bradykinin
    • 1 in 1000 patients develop angioedema
    • Timing of symptoms not related to dosing (in this respect not a good example of an immediate reaction)
27
Q

What is the test when suspecting a drug hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Mast cell tryptase

  • Tryptase released from mast cells during anaphylaxis; easier to measure in laboratory compared to histamine
  • Serum tryptase levels recommended to confirm acute anaphylaxis
  • Take blood 1-2 hours after onset of symptoms and again after 24 hours
  • Increase followed by normalisation in correct context confirms anaphylaxis
  • Sensitivity said to be around 70%
28
Q

What are the key features of non-immediate drug hypersensitivity reaction?

A
  • Not directly related to a drug dose, although may appear to be so by chance
  • Typically during treatment course
  • 3-5 days if treated with drug before
  • 5-8 days if first sensitisation
  • Taken together, clinical features not in keeping with mast cell degranulation
  • Typically continue for some time after drug is stopped
  • Antimicrobials = biggest group
29
Q

What is Steven Johnson Syndrome/ TENS?

A
  • affects skin, mucous membranes, genitals and eyes
  • Fever, cough, conjunctivitis, mucosits
  • Men>greater women, mostly 30 years or under
  • Typically 3-8 days after dose
  • Antibiotics, and anticonvulsants most common culprit drugs
  • Can also be infection-induced
  • Very high mortality and gets worse with each exposure
30
Q

What is the management of SJS/TENS syndrome

A
  • involving other specialities such as burns unit
  • Topical antibiotics
  • warm compress to promote drainage of boils
  • Oral and IV antibiotics
31
Q

What is the epidemiology of beata lactam Allergy?

A
  • Reported by 10% of UK population, and a much higher proportion of hospital inpatients
  • True prevalence closer to 1-2%
  • Over-reported because
  • Sensitisation lost at a rate of 10% per year, but label persists
  • Rash was caused by something else eg infection, primary dermatological disorder such as spontaneous urticaria
32
Q

How do we test for a Beta-Lactam allergy?

A
  • The only situation where the antigens are known and commercially available for testing
  • First-line test is skin prick testing with B Lactams and B Lactam reagents
  • Negative results have high negative predictive value – usually confirm tolerance with brief challenge test
  • When positive, perform challenge with alternative to demonstrate tolerance
33
Q

How is a challenging testing carried out?

A
  • Hospital-based procedure for higher risk patients; may be done at home in some cases
  • Oral challenge wherever possible
  • Gradually increasing doses every 30 minutes or so, until therapeutic dose is reached
  • Eg amoxycillin 25mg, 100mg, 250mg, 500mg
  • Cons: very time-consuming, risk of allergic reactions and doesn’t pick up type IV hypersensitivity
  • Pros: large majority of patients can be ‘de-labelled’
34
Q

What is the criteria to refer to immunology in the face of a drug allergy?

A
  • Not needed if:
  • Drug unlikely to be needed again
  • Minor reaction (eg maculo-papular rash)
  • Alternatives readily available
  • Nothing more to add (eg TENS)
  • May be helpful if:
  • Drug will be needed again
  • Choice restricted
  • Cross-reactivity questions
  • Diagnostic doubt
35
Q

What are examples of Beta- lactams?

A

penicillins, cephalosporins