Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Family Blueprints 1 > Allergies, Back Pain, Chest pain > Flashcards

Allergies, Back Pain, Chest pain Flashcards

1
Q

Allergies are mediated by what imunnoglobulin?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common skin manifestations of allergies?

A

urticaria, eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are common food allergens in children?

A

Milk, eggs, peanuts, soy, wheat, tree nuts, shellfish, fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stings from which insects can cause anaphylaxis?

A

Hymenoptera (bees, wasps, ants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most likely cause of perennial (year-round) allergies?

A

Dust, feathers, animal dander, molds (household allergens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Food allergies manifest as:

A

GI and skin sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sx of anaphylaxis include:

A

agitation, palpitations, paresthesias, puritis, difficulty swallowing, cough, and wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How will the nasal mucosa appear with allergies?

A

swollen and pale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What other nasal symptom is common with allergies?

A

Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are allergic shiners?

A

darkening of the infraorbital skin in people with chronic allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A

Exudative eruption with oozing and crusting primarily occurring in the head and neck areas, diaper area, forearms and wrists.
Flexor surfaces
Lichenification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What blood test is available to identify specific allergies?

A

RAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What skin test is available to identify specific allergies?

A

Skin-prick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be performed if no specific allergies are identified on RAST or skin-prick?

A

flexible nasolaryngoscopy to rule out anatomic or pathologic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is first-line therapy for rhinitis?

A

Antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA and main SE of antihistamines?

A

Block H1 selectors, prevent release of histamine; SE is sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drugs are used to treat allergies?

A 
Antihistamines
decongestants 
corticosteroids
Antileukotrienes
Intranasal cromolyn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are contraindications in the use of oral decongestants?

A

HTN, thyroid disease, DM, problems with urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the tx of choice for moderate-to-severe persistent allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal steroids:
Mometasone (Nasonex)
Budesonide nasal spray (Rhinocort Aqua)
Fluticasone propionate (Flonase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first-line tx of allergies for children and pregnant women?

A

Cromolyn (Mast cell stabalizer, OTC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some Leukotriene modifiers that can be used for both asthma and allergies?

A

Monteleukast (singulair)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are intranasal anticholinergics that can help allergies?

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are treatments for skin sx of allergies?

A

Oral antihistamines, topical steroids, cool colloid baths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What can be done for refractory cases of allergies?
Immunotherapy injecting pt with increasing doses of allergens to promote tolerane
26
What is the most common cause of nerve root impingement?
Disc herniation
27
What is the most common site of disk herniation?
L5-S1 followed by L4-5
28
What deficits are consistent with L4 impingement?
Patellar jerk (reflex) Dorsiflexion of foot sensation of medial aspects of tibia Sciatica uncommon
29
What deficits are consistent with L5 impingement?
Extensor of great toe Dorsum of foot/base of first toe sensation Sciatica common
30
What deficits are consistent with S1 impingement?
Ankle jerk reflex Plantar flexion Buttock, post thigh, calf, lateral ankle, foot sensation
31
What are red flags of back pain?
Fever, night pain, weight loss, bone pain
32
What are the sx of cada equina syndrome?
Difficulty urinating Fecal incontinence Progressive weakness Saddle anesthesia
33
What are the sx of spinal stenosis?
After age 50 Back pain, pseudoclaudication of lower ext that worsens with back extension or standing and is relieved by bending forward
34
What can cause nighttime awakening due to back pain that does not improve with bed rest?
Tumor, infection, inflammatory disease
35
What are manifestations of muscular back pain?
- Acute onset - Triggered by heavy lifting - Lateralized back pain, pain in buttock and posterior upper thigh
36
What are manifestations of disk herniation?
- Recurrent pain - Triggered by trivial stress - Nerve root L5, S1 impingements, frequent sciatica
37
What are manifestations of spinal stenosis?
- Old age or congenital - Triggered by OA or congenital - Pseudoclaudication relieved by bending forward
38
What are manifestations of spondylolisthesis?
- Chronic pain - Triggered by OA or spondylolysis - Nerve root L5, S1 impingement with hyperextension activities
39
What are the manifestations of compression fractures?
- Acute onset - Osteoporosis, steroid use, myeloma is high risk - Pain in middle to lower spine
40
What are the manifestations of spinal neoplasms?
- Insidious onset | - Night pain not relieved by supine position
41
What are the manifestations of cauda equina syndrome?
- Old age - Massive disk herniation - Overflow incontinence, saddle anesthesia, decreased sphincter tone
42
What are the manifestation of osteomyelitis?
- Acute onset - Hx of back procedure - Fever, spinal tenderness
43
What are the manifestations of inflammatory diskitis?
- Young age - S. Aureus - Refusal to walk, fever, signs of sepsis, disk space narrowing, sclerosis per radiograph
44
What are the manifestations of Ankylosing spondylitis?
- Young age - HLA-B27 - Morning spinal stiffness, hx of IBD, Sacroiliitis, chest expansion on radiograph
45
What are manifestations of spondylolysis?
- >10 yrs - Triggered by hyperextension - Back, buttock pain with lordosis and activity, tight hamstrings
46
What are the manifestations of Scheuermann disease?
- Young age - Triggered by fatigue - Round back, vertebral wedging, end plate irregularity per radiograph
47
What does focal tenderness of the spine indicate?
Tumor, infection, fracture, disc herniation
48
What test will be positive with sciatica?
Straight leg raise
49
What systemic diseases can present as back pain?
Metastatic cancer Multiple myeloma Osteoporosis
50
What are indications for imaging for back pain (10)?
- Pain persisting beyond 6 weeks - Age >50 - Hx of trauma - Neuro deficit - Systemic sx - Chronic steroid use - Hereditary condition - Hx drug alcohol use - Hx osteoporosis - Immunodeficient
51
What blood tests can be run for back pain that might have a systemic cause?
- CBC (infection or anemia associated with malignancy) - UA - Calcium/phosphorus - ESR (malig, infection, connective tissue dz)
52
80-90% of patients with mechanical low back pain will improve within what time period?
6 weeks
53
What restrictions should be placed on a pt with mechanical back pain?
- No bed rest unless pain limits activities, then no more than 2-3 days - Continue normal activity - Lift no more than 25 lbs - Avoid heavy lifting, twisting, prolonged sitting, driving for prolonged periods, heavy vibration
54
What is first line tx in mechanical back pain?
NSAID/Acetaminophen
55
What are contraindications for NSAIDS?
Gastritis, ulcers, HTN, chronic renal failure, CHF
56
What is a second-line mechanical back pain treatment and what is the advantage of this med? ADR?
COX-2 inhibitors; fewer GI side-effects | ADR: increased risk of heart attack and stroke
57
What medications can be used in the acute setting of mechanical back pain?
Narcotic | Muscle relaxants
58
What medications can be used for radicular back pain?
Antiepileptics like gabapentin
59
What medication may be useful in pts with chronic low back pain?
TCAs
60
What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
Emergency surgery
61
When is a diskectomy indicated?
Herniated disk not responding to conservative therapy for 4-6 weeks
62
What are sx of myocardial pain?
Substernal chest tightness or pressure that radiates to the left arm, shoulders, or jaw with diaphoresis, SOB, nausea, vomiting
63
What are sx of anginal chest pain?
Brought on by exercise and lasts 5-15 min and disappears with rest or nitroglycerine
64
What are sx of pericardial pain?
Persistent, sharp, severe, relieved by sitting up or leaning forward. Aggrevated by breathing, lying back, coughing
65
What are the sx of aortic dissection pain?
Anterior, severe, ripping or tearing with radiation to back or abdomen
66
What are the sx of pneumothorax pain?
Sudden onset, sharp, unilateral, pleuritic, associated with SOB
67
What is Beck's triad and what does it indicate?
JVD, muffled heart sounds, decreased blood pressure- cardiac tamponade
68
What does a friction rub and pulsus paradoxus indicate?
Pericarditis
69
What does chest pain with hypotension, absence of peripheral pulses, and murmur of aortic insufficiency indicate?
Aortic dissection
70
What does chest pain with normal auscultatory findings, tachycardia, tachypnea, and lower extremity edema indicate?
Pulmonary embolism
71
What does ST elevation or depression indicate?
Cardiac ischemia
72
What does diffuse ST segment elevation indicate?
Pericarditis
73
What do Q waves indicate?
Old or recent MI
74
What blood levels can be drawn for damaged cardiac myocytes?
CPK, Troponin, Myoglobulin
75
What are the first markers to rise with myocyte damage and how long will it stay elevated?
Troponin; remain elevated for 5-14 days. | Most sensitive and specific for MI
76
When does CPK-MB begin to rise and when does it peak after an MI?
Begins to rise within 4 hrs and peaks at 24 hours.
77
What is indicated in stable patients with suspected cardiac disease and what should be obtained beforehand?
Exercise stress test with a baseline ECG before
78
What should be done if an exercise stress test is positive?
Radionucleotide testing, stress echo, coronary angiography
79
What stress test can be performed in patients that cannot exercise?
Chemical stress test with dobutamine or adenosine to achieve the correct HR
80
What test can detect wall motion abnormalities?
Echocardiogram
81
What imaging should be performed if PE is suspected?
Ventilation/perfusion scan | Spiral CT
82
What is the initial management for acute MI?
Morphine Oxygen Nitroglycerine ASA
83
What can be given to pts if they are allergic to ASA?
Clopidogrel
84
What is the target systolic BP and HR for pts with acute MI?
100-120 mmHg | 60 BPM
85
Who is eligible for thrombolytics in pts with acute MI?
ST elevation Sx of acute MI < 75 yrs old Within 6 hrs of onset of chest pain
86
What other drugs are used to treat an acute MI?
``` Beta blockers Heparin Nitrates ACE inhibitors Thrombolytics ```
87
What are contraindications for thrombolytics in acute MI?
``` Active internal bleeding Hx of cerebrovascular dz recent surgery intracranial neoplasm AV malformation aneurysm Severe HTN ```
88
What is a good alternative to thrombolytics?
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)
89
How is stable angina treated?
ASA Nitro for acute episodes Beta blockers (reduce frequency, increase anginal threshold, reduce risk of MI) Add CCB if this is not enough
90
How is a PE treated?
Concomitant warfarin and heparin until INR is in target range, then d/c heparin
91
How is a pneumothorax managed?
If small, conservative | If large, chest tube insertion

Family Blueprints 1 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions