Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spec. Disciplines - Pedi > Allergic, immunodeficiency and neurologic DO > Flashcards

Allergic, immunodeficiency and neurologic DO Flashcards

1
Q

Asthma, allergic rhinitis, and atopic dermatitis

A

Atopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atopy is mediated by ??

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common allergic disease?

A

Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis frequently coexists with?

A

Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

80% of patients develop symptoms of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis by ??

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is primarily responsible for allergic rhino conjunctivitis symptoms?

A

Inhalant allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis symptoms present less than 4 days/week

A

Intermittent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis symptoms present more than 4 days/week for greater than 4 weeks

A

Persistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis w/o impairment or disturbance of sleep, ADLs, sports/school/work or w/o troublesome sx

A

Mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“Allergic salute”
Nasal obstruction w/ mouth breating, nasal speech, snoring
Nasal turbinates – pale blue, edematous
Clear, thin nasal secretions w/ PND & “cobblestoning”
Conjunctival injection, tearing, “allergic shiners”

A

Things you might find on PE of patients with allergic rhinoconjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What might you find on labs in a patient with allergic rhinoconjunctivitis?

A

Eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some tests you can do to test children for allergies?

A

Skin testing - will identify specific allergen-specific IgE; In-vitro tests (radioallergosorbent test or RAST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which test is the most sensitive/specific for inhalant allergens?

A

Skin testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Control itching, sneezing, and rhinorrhea

A

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prophylactic adjunctive therapy for allergens

A

Mast cell stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Temporary relief of allergies

A

Decongestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prophylactic therapy that may be 1st line therapy

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chronically relapsing inflammatory skin d/o, many outgrow. Typically associated with allergies and asthma

A

Atopic dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rash on face, scalp, and extensor surfaces of elbows/knees, pruritic, red papules, secondary excoriations (can progress to plaques and lichenification)

A

Atopic dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you manage atopic dermatitis

A

Avoid irritants (detergents), hydration, moisturizers, topical steroid for flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute, life-threatening medical emergency that occurs when large quantities of histamine rapidly release from mast cells and basophils after exposure to allergens

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which age group typically has food-induced anaphylaxis?

A

Children & adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Onset within minutes after exposure, skin-mucosal swelling, respiratory compromise, low systolic BP, +/- GI sx

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine 0.15mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When do food allergies begin in children?

A

First 2 years of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the most common food allergens?

A

Cows milk, eggs, peanuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hives, flushing, facial angioedema, mouth/throat itching that occurs minutes to less than 2 hours after ingestion of food

A

Food allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the gold standard for working up food allergens?

A

Blinded food challenge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the mainstay of management with food allergies?

A

Avoidance of allergens; Carry self-injectable epinephrine and fast acting antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How often should you follow up with food-specific IgE testing?

A

Yearly, offer supervised food challenge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Commonly presents with recurrent/severe bacterial infections, FTT, and/or developmental delay

A

Primary immunodeficiency (PID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do you need to diagnose PID?

A

Clinical patterns + immunologic lab tests + gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Recurrent infections, severe infections, persistent infections, infections resistant to standard tx or caused by opportunistic organisms

A

PID

34
Q

Prolongation of physiologic hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy, which is normally observed during the first 3-6 months

A

Transient hypogammaglobulinemia (THI)

35
Q

Typically presents w/ recurrent URIs +/- otitis media and bronchitis

A

Transient hypogammaglobulinemia (THI)

36
Q

When does THI usually spontaneously recover?

A

9-15 months of age with IgG levels normalizing by 2-4 yo

37
Q

Presents with recurrent infection (bacteria, viruses, fungi and opportunistic pathogens), chronic diarrhea and FTT

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)`

38
Q

How is SCID classified?

A

Based on the presence/absence of T, B, and NK cells

39
Q

What will you find on exam in a SCID patient?

A

Lack of lymphoid tissue (no tonsils or lymph nodes, CXR w/ absent thyme shadow)

40
Q

What is the treatment for SCID?

A

BMT

41
Q

Sudden, transient disturbance of brain function manifested by involuntary motor, sensory, autonomic or psychic phenomena, alone or in any combination, often accompanied by altered or LOC

A

Seizure

42
Q

What are some of the causes of seizures?

A

Metabolic, traumatic, anoxic, infectious, genetic mutations, spontaneous

43
Q

What is the workup for seizures?

A

EEG, consider brain MRI if significant cognitive or motor impairment

44
Q

What is the treatment for seizures?

A

First aid (benzodiazepines), antieplieptic Rx

45
Q

Repeated seizures without evidence of acute cause or provocation

A

Epilepsy

46
Q

When is incidence of epilepsy highest?

A

Newborn period

47
Q

Risk of recurrence after single seizure?

A

50%

48
Q

Risk of recurrence after 2 seizures?

A

85%

49
Q

Most common neurologic d/o of infants and young children

A

Febrile seizures

50
Q

What are the 3 criteria for febrile seizures?

A

Age 3mo to 6 years, fever greater than 38C, non-CNS infection/inflammation

51
Q

Greater than 90% of febrile seizures are?

A

Generalized, less than 5 minutes and occur early in illness

52
Q

What do you want to check for when working up febrile seizures?

A

Meningitis

53
Q

What is the treatment for febrile seizures?

A

Reassurance (prophylactic AED NOT recommended)

54
Q

Seizure lasting at least 15 minutes or series of seizures w/o complete recovery greater than 30-minute period

A

Status epilepticus

55
Q

Can result in hypoxia & acidosis; Depletion of energy stores, cerebral edema & structural damage; Eventually high fever, hypotension, respiratory depression & even death can occur

A

Status epilepticus

56
Q

What are the typical causes of status epilepticus in children?

A

Infection and metabolic disorders

57
Q

85% of cases of status epilepticus occurs in children under?

A

5 years old

58
Q

Treatment for status epilepticus?

A

Benzodiazepines - Phenytoin - Phenobarbitol

59
Q

Most common types of headaches in children and adolescents?

A

Migraine and tension type

60
Q

Abortive treatments for headaches?

A

Simple analgesics (caution medication overuse HA), triptans in adolescents

61
Q

Headache for 1-72 hours, throbbing/pounding, moderate to severe, unilateral OR bilateral, physical activity worsens headache, nausea or vomiting, phono/photophobia

A

Migraine without aura

62
Q

Lasts 30min to 7 days, “Pressure tight band”, mild to moderate severity, bilateral, physical activity causes no effect, no N/V, photo OR phonophobia but not both

A

Tension headache

63
Q

Heterogeneous group, nonprogressive, characterized by motor & postural dysfunction

A

Cerebral Palsy

64
Q

What is the most common form of cerebral palsy?

A

Spasticity of limbs (75%)

65
Q

How do you workup cerebral palsy?

A

Brain MRI to identify lesion

66
Q

How do you treat CP?

A

Multidisciplinary

67
Q

Neurologic d/o manifested by motor & phonic tics; Onset in childhood (typically between 2-11 yrs old) ; Inherited d/o (genetic mutations identified)

A

Tourettes syndrome

68
Q

What are the hallmark tics of tourettes?

A

Motor tics

Vocal or phonic tics

69
Q

Sudden, brief, intermittent movements

A

Motor tics

70
Q

Sudden, brief, intermittent utterances

A

Vocal or phonic tics

71
Q

Common comorbidities with tourettes?

A

ADHD, OCD

72
Q

What is the treatment for tourettes?

A

Education, Rx only if interfering with school or job, dopamine blockers

73
Q

What is an abnormal head size?

A

2 standard deviation above/below normal

74
Q

Head circumference greater than 2stdev BELOW mean

A

Microcephaly

75
Q

What should make you suspect microcephaly?

A

Chest circumference is greater than head circumference

76
Q

DD, neuro problems, sloped forehead, closed fontanelle, prominent sutures

A

Symptoms of microcephaly

77
Q

What should you order tow workup microcephaly?

A

CT or MRI to look for calcifications, malformations, atrophic patterns

78
Q

Head circumference GREATER than 2 standard deviations above the mean

A

Macrocephaly

79
Q

What is a sign/symptom of macrocephaly?

A

Transillumination of the skull

80
Q

What can cause macrocephaly?

A

Rapid growth (increase in intracranial pressure) - hydrocephalus/neoplasms

Spec. Disciplines - Pedi (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions