Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMP Simplified Vocab Words > All Words > Flashcards

All Words Flashcards

1
Q

What is “Acceptance Criteria”?

A

A set of conditions that are met before deliverables are accepted by the customers or sponsors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is “Activity”?

A

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the project. Usually stored on the activity list.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is “Actual Cost (AC)”?

A

The actual cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is “Analogous Estimating”?

A

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project. Also known as top-down estimating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is “assumption”?

A

A factor in the planning processes considered to be true or real without proof or demonstration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a “backward pass”?

A

A critical path method technique for computing the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is “baseline”?

A

The accepted version of a work product which can be changed using formal change control processes and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is “bottom-up estimating”?

A

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates for the lower-level components of the “work breakdown structure (WBS)”?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is “change control”?

A

A process whereby changes to documents, deliverables, or baselines related to the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a “change control board”?

A

A formally commissioned group responsible for reviewing, assessing, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a “change control system”?

A

A set of procedures that defines how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a “change report”?

A

A formal proposal to change any document, deliverable, or baseline in the project management plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a “communication management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information will be administered and distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a “configuration management system”?

A

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a “constraint”?

A

A restrictive feature that affects the execution of a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a “contingency reserve”?

A

Time or money assigned in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with response strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a “corrective action”?

A

A planned activity that restores the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a “cost baseline”?

A

The approved version of work packages cost estimates and contingency reserve that can be changed using formal change control procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a “cost management plan”?

A

A component of a project management plan that defines how costs will be planned and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the “cost performance index (CPI)”?

A

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources is expressed as the ratio of earned value and the actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is “cost variance (CV)”?

A

The amount of budget shortfall or surplus at a given point in time, which is expressed as a difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is “crashing”?

A

A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration by adding resources. This will generally increase the cost of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the “critical chain method”?

A

A schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the “critical path”?

A

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest and longest possible duration. Activities on the critical path have no float.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is “critical path activity”?

A

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the “critical path method”?

A

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is “decomposition”?

A

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. Also used to subdivide the project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is “defect repair”?

A

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is “deliverable”?

A

A part of the product that is presented to the customer or stakeholders for acceptance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is “duration”?

A

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the “early finish date”?

A

The earliest an activity can finish without delaying the project end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the “early start date”?

A

The earliest an activity can start without delaying the project end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the “earned value (EV)”?

A

The amount of money worth of work actually accomplished on the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is “earned value management”?

A

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is “estimate at completion (EAC)”?

A

The forecast of the total cost of the project at the end is based on the current spending rate of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is “estimate to complete (ETC)”?

A

The amount of money that will be needed to complete the current project is based on the current performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is “fast-tracking”?

A

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases are done in parallel for at least a portion, of the project, or the entire donation. This can increase the risk of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is “finish-to-finish”?

A

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is “finish-to-start”?

A

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a “forward pass”?

A

A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a “functional organization”?

A

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by area of specialization and the project manager has limited authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a “Gantt chart”?

A

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed. Generally part of the project schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is “lag”?

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed to a predecessor activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a “late finish date”?

A

The latest activity can finish without delaying the project’s end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a “late start date”?

A

The latest activity can start without delaying the project’s end date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is “lead”?

A

The amount of time where a successor activity can be started before the predecessor activity finishes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are “lessons learned”?

A

The data gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving future performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a “logical relationship”?

A

It is a dependency between two activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a “matrix organization”?

A

An organizational structure in which the project manager shares authority with the functional manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the “management reserve”?

A

The time or money that management puts aside in addition to the schedule or cost baseline and issues for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project. This is not under the control of the project manager and will need an approved change request to access it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a “milestone”?

A

A significant point or event in a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a “milestone schedule”?

A

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the “most likely duration”?

A

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the “network path”?

A

A sequence of activities linked by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is “opportunity”?

A

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is “optimistic duration”?

A

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is “organizational process assets”?

A

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is “parametric estimating”?

A

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters.

59
Q

What is “path convergence”?

A

A relationship in which a scheduled activity has more than one predecessor.

60
Q

What is “percent complete”?

A

An estimate expressed as a percent of the amount of work that has been completed on an activity.

61
Q

What is a “performing organization”?

A

An enterprise whose personnel are the most directly involved in doing the work of the project or program.

62
Q

What is “pessimistic duration”?

A

An estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

63
Q

What is “planned value (PV)”?

A

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

64
Q

What is a “portfolio”?

A

These are projects and programs, that are grouped together to achieve a strategic business goal.

65
Q

What is a “portfolio manager”?

A

A person or group assigned by the performing organization to establish, balance, monitor, and control portfolio components in order to achieve strategic business goals.

66
Q

What is a “precedence diagramming method”?

A

A technique used for building a schedule in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to display the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

67
Q

What is “predecessor activity”?

A

An activity that comes before a dependent activity on a schedule.

68
Q

What is “preventative action”?

A

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

69
Q

What is the “probability and impact matrix”?

A

A table for diagramming the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

70
Q

What is a “procurement management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan describes how a team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.

71
Q

What is the “product life cycle”?

A

The series of phases which represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery to retirement.

72
Q

What is a “program”?

A

A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

73
Q

What is “program evaluation and review technique (PERT)”?

A

A technique used to estimate project duration through a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity durations.

74
Q

What is “program management”?

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to a program to meet the program requirements and to obtain benefits and control not available by managing projects individually.

75
Q

What is “progressive elaboration”?

A

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

76
Q

What is a “project”?

A

A temporary effort undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

77
Q

What is a “project calendar”?

A

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities.

78
Q

What is a “project charter”?

A

A document issued by the project sponsor that formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

79
Q

What is a “project life cycle”?

A

The series of phases that a project goes through from its initiation to its closure.

80
Q

What is “project management”?

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

81
Q

What is the “project management office (PMO)”?

A

A management structure that regulates the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

82
Q

What is a “project management plan”?

A

The document defines how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

83
Q

What is a “project manager”?

A

This is the person defined as the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project goals.

84
Q

What is a “project phase”?

A

A collection of logically related project activities that culminate in the completion of one or more deliverables.

85
Q

What is a “project schedule network diagram”?

A

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the scheduled activities.

86
Q

What is a “project scope”?

A

The work achieved to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions.

87
Q

What is the “project scope statement”?

A

The explanation of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.

88
Q

What is a “projectized organization”?

A

An organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to assign work and resources.

89
Q

What is a “quality management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan describing how an organization’s quality policies will be implemented.

90
Q

What is the “requirements traceability matrix”?

A

A table that links requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

91
Q

What is “residual risk”?

A

The risk that is left over after risk responses have been implemented.

92
Q

What is a “resource breakdown structure”?

A

A ranked representation of resources by category and type.

93
Q

What is a “resource calendar”?

A

It is a calendar that identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available.

94
Q

What is a “requirements management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

95
Q

What is the “resource management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes the roles and responsibilities of the project team and management of the physical resources of the project.

96
Q

What is “resource leveling”?

A

A resource optimization technique in which changes are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocation of resources and which may affect the critical path.

97
Q

What is a “resource optimization technique”?

A

A technique in which activity start and finish dates are adjusted to balance the demand for resources.

98
Q

What is “resource smoothing”?

A

A resource optimization technique in which total float is used without affecting the critical path.

99
Q

What is the “responsibility assignment matrix”?

A

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

100
Q

What is “risk”?

A

An uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

101
Q

What is “risk acceptance”?

A

A risk response strategy is where the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.

102
Q

What is “risk appetite”?

A

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in hope of a reward.

103
Q

What is “risk avoidance”?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eradicate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

104
Q

What is “risk breakdown structure”?

A

A ranked representation of risks that is organized according to risk categories.

105
Q

What is “risk category”?

A

A group of potential causes of risk.

106
Q

What is “Risk Enhancement”?

A

A risk response strategy where the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

107
Q

What is “risk exploiting”?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

108
Q

What is “risk exposure”?

A

A measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project.

109
Q

What is a “risk management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how risk management activities will be planned and performed.

110
Q

What is “risk mitigation”?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

111
Q

What is a “risk register”?

A

A register in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded.

112
Q

What is “risk sharing”?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit for the project.

113
Q

What is the “risk threshold”?

A

The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and under which risks may be accepted.

114
Q

What is “risk tolerance”?

A

The degree of uncertainty that an organization or individual is willing to endure.

115
Q

What is “risk transference”?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party.

116
Q

What is “rolling wave planning”?

A

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

117
Q

What is “schedule baseline”?

A

The approved version of a schedule that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results. It is part of the project management plan.

118
Q

What is “schedule compression”?

A

A method used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

119
Q

What is a “schedule management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

120
Q

What is “schedule network analysis”?

A

A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the unfinished portions of project activities.

121
Q

What is the “schedule performance index (SPI)”?

A

A measure of schedule efficiency is expressed as the fraction of earned value to planned value.

122
Q

What is “schedule variance (SV)”?

A

A degree of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

123
Q

What is the “scope baseline”?

A

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results. It is part of the project management plan.

124
Q

What is “scope creep”?

A

The uncontrolled growth to project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

125
Q

What is a “scope management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

126
Q

What is an “S-curve analysis”?

A

A technique used to indicate performance trends by using a graph that displays cumulative costs over a specific time period.

127
Q

What is a “sponsor”?

A

An individual or a group that provides resources and support for the project and is accountable for enabling success.

128
Q

What is a “stakeholder”?

A

An individual or group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project.

129
Q

What is a “stakeholder management plan”?

A

A component of the project management plan that defines how stakeholders will be engaged in project decision-making and execution.

130
Q

What is “start-to-finish”?

A

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started.

131
Q

What is “start-to-start”?

A

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

132
Q

What is “successor activity”?

A

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule.

133
Q

What is a “threat”?

A

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives.

134
Q

What is “three-point estimating”?

A

A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

135
Q

What is “to-compete performance index (TCPI)”?

A

A measure of the cost performance that is achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

136
Q

What is “total float”?

A

The amount of time that a scheduled activity can be late or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.

137
Q

What is “a trigger condition”?

A

An event or situation that indicates the aa risk is about to occur.

138
Q

What is “variance analysis”?

A

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

139
Q

What is a “WBS dictionary”?

A

A document that provides detailed deliverables, activity, and scheduling data about each component in the work breakdown structure.

140
Q

What is “ what-if scenario analysis”?

A

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project activities.

141
Q

What is a “work breakdown structure (WBS)”?

A

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the deliverables.

142
Q

What is a “work package”?

A

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed.

143
Q

What is a “workaround”?

A

An immediate and temporary response to an issue, for which a prior response had not been planned or was not effective.

PMP Simplified Vocab Words (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions