Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Victim Services > ALL Victim Services Flashcards For The Whole Textbook! > Flashcards

ALL Victim Services Flashcards For The Whole Textbook!

1
Q

United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights

A

United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights: the declaration is a document drafted by representatives with different legal and cultural backgrounds from around the world. Its aim is to set a commo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Victims’ of Crime Act (VOCA)

A

Victims’ of Crime Act (VOCA): the act established the Crime Victims Fund, which was made up of federal criminal fines, penalties, forfeitures, and special assessments, for state compensation programs and local victim assistance programs. Subsequent revisions to the act expanded victim eligibility to include victims of domestic violence, drunk driving accidents, nonresident commuters and visitors, and saw the establishment of the Office for Victims of Crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) of 1994

A

Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) of 1994: enacted as part of the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994, it acknowledges domestic violence and sexual assault as crimes, along with providing federal resources to encourage community-coordinated responses to combating violence against women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Precipitation:

A

the extent to which the victims contributed to the criminal event that harmed them, and it can take two forms, victim facilitation and victim provocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Facilitation

A

: when the victim, often unknowingly, makes it easier for offenders to target him or her or set in motion the events that lead to the victimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Provocation:

A

occurs when the victim overtly acts to incite another person to commit an illegal act resulting in his or her victimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Functional responsibility:

A

the role victims play in not provoking others into victimizing or harming them, and the idea that victims should also do everything possible to prevent a victimization from occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Routine Activity Theory:

A

this theoretical perspective argues not why certain demographics are susceptible to criminal victimization but rather why daily routine activities create the opportunity for criminal victimization (Cohen & Felson, 1979). The propositions of this theory are that for victimization to take place, there must be three elements: (1) a motivated perpetrator/s, (2) suitable targets (victim), and (3) the absence of a capable guardian at a given place and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Opportunity Model:

A

takes from the lifestyle-exposure and routine activity theory and expands on them and identifies further factors that may play an integral role in victimization. These factors are exposure, guardianship, proximity of potential perpetrators, attractiveness of potential targets, and properties of specific offences. The inclusion of these factors relocates the prominence of the theory from the characteristics of the perpetrator to the characteristics of the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Social Learning Theory:

A

individuals learn behavior by observing and imitating other people through the absorption of experiences and reinforcement. In other words, behavior that is either rewarded, or goes unpunished, develops into the observer’s library of what is acceptable behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Low Self-Control Theory:

A

low self-control is the most important predictor for delinquent and analogous behaviors (Gottfredson & Hirschi, 1990; Jones & Quisenberry, 2004). Why some people turn to criminal behavior and others do not is because offenders have a propensity or tendency to take advantage of opportunities for criminal behavior. This propensity to engage in criminal behavior results from a lack of direct control or guidance by parents or caregivers early in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Control Balance Theory:

A

proposes that deviance, defined as behavior that the majority regard as unacceptable or that typically evokes a collective response of a negative type, is caused by the amount of control that individuals exercise relative to the amount of control to which they are subject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Crime in the United States:

A

an annual report released by the FBI that is a valuable resource to understand the trend, the number, and rate of violent and property crime offenses in the nation and by state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS):

A

national data collection system that gathers each reported crime incident and arrest for 46 specific crimes called Group A offenses as well as 11 lesser offenses from the arrest data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS):

A

the most comprehensive nationwide household survey providing a detailed picture of crime victims and the consequences of crime, unreported crime, and victimization trends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

International Crime Victim Survey (ICVS)

A

the most comprehensive large-scale crime and victimization surveys conducted in 78 countries by 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fear of crime:

A

an emotional response to a sense of insecurity and being a victim of crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Recurring victimization:

A

occurs when a person or place is victimized more than once by any type of victimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Repeat victimization:

A

occurs when the same victimization happens more than once to the same individual, household, place, business, vehicle, or other target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Near-repeat victimization:

A

a victimization that occurs in a place that is close by or near in proximity to a place that was victimized previously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Polyvictimization: a person experiences multiple victimizations of different kinds, such as sexual abuse, physical abuse, bullying, and or exposure to family violence

A

a person experiences multiple victimizations of different kinds, such as sexual abuse, physical abuse, bullying, and or exposure to family violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Intangible costs of victimization:

A

costs such as pain, suffering, and reduced quality of life and fear of crime, as well as psychological costs to the offender’s family and community, are more difficult to measure, but economists make efforts to use varied methods to place a dollar value on those losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

National Census of Victim Service Providers (NCVSP):

A

surveys victim service providers to better understand the field and includes such information as the type of organization and the types of victims served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

National Survey of Victim Service Providers (NSVSP):

A

follows up on the NCVSP, the NSVSP will seek more specific information about victim service providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Trauma:

A

the result of severe distress and causes damage. Some stressors may be single incidents of relatively short duration, whereas others may occur over longer periods of time, resulting in prolonged exposure to the threatening stressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Resources:

A

traits, characteristics, or abilities to meet the demands of a stressor event that can be available at the individual, family, or community level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coping:

A

the thoughts and acts that people use to manage the internal and external demands posed by a stressful or traumatic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Resilience:

A

a person’s ability to maintain a balanced state in the face of challenges. In other words, it is the ability to “bounce back” after being traumatized, where the person is able to process and make sense of the disruption in his or her life, identify his or her resources, and successfully handle the crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Self-care:

A

is the opposite of self-harm. When victims engage in self-care they are expressing to others that they value their health and are finding ways to move on from the traumatic event. Self-care activities are important for every human being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Community-oriented policing (COP):

A

addresses prevention, problem solving, community engagement, and partnerships to address crime and social order beyond traditional law enforcement practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Modus operandi (MO):

A

a term used by law enforcement to develop a description of the way particular criminals operate. Sometimes referred to by its initials, MO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Crisis intervention:

A

provides immediate assistance by addressing the internal and external difficulties of individuals in crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Child Protective Services (CPS):

A

a specialized component of the child welfare system, responsible for supporting and intervening for those children alleged to be abused, neglected, or exploited, and their families

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adult Protective Services (APS):

A

social service agencies that respond to the abuse and neglect of older adults, individuals with disabilities, and others who are at risk for mistreatment and neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bystanders:

A

individuals who are neither victims nor perpetrators but they saw or know about a crime that happened to someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bereaved victims:

A

family members and friends who have lost a significant other to homicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hate crime:

A

a criminal offense that is motivated by personal prejudice and directed at others because of their perceived race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, gender, gender identity, religion or disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Booking:

A

an arrestee is taken to the police station or jail, and personal information, alleged charge(s), fingerprints, and photographs are recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Victim and Witness Assistance Programs:

A

programs that provide information on rights and services to victims and witnesses, and encourage victims to participate in the criminal justice system to the extent they wish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Initial Appearance:

A

the defendant’s appearance before a magistrate or a judge in a reasonable period after his or her arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bail:

A

the money or equivalent property put up to secure the release of the defendant while he or she is awaiting the trial

42
Q

Plea bargain:

A

a negotiated agreement among the defendant, the prosecutor, and the court

43
Q

Preliminary hearing:

A

a hearing that determines if sufficient evidence exists to allow charges to be passed against the defendant

44
Q

Arraignment:

A

the defendant appears before a court and is notified of the formal charges and informed of his or her rights. Then, the defendant makes an admission of denial or guilt

45
Q

Subpoena:

A

a written order stating the time and place of appearance

46
Q

Retribution:

A

sentencing goal that considers punishment as justifiable or deserved given the seriousness of the crime that the offender committed

47
Q

Deterrence:

A

sentencing goal that discourages offenders and the general public from committing crime

48
Q

Incapacitation:

A

sentencing goal that disables offenders from committing a crime, mostly through imprisonment

49
Q

Restoration:

A

sentencing goal that focuses on restoring the harm done to victims, family, and friends of victims and the community

50
Q

Rehabilitation:

A

goal is to teach offenders skills and to address the needs of the offenders so that they will not commit crime in the future

51
Q

Victim impact statements (VIS):

A

the format of the VIS could be a written statement, a sworn or unsworn oral presentation, or even a prerecorded audio or video statement, and it commonly addresses the harm or trauma, the economic loss or damage to victims as a result of the crime, and a victim’s reaction to the proposed sentence or disposition

52
Q

Restitution:

A

the most common form of restitution is financial, which requires the offender to make payments to the victim for crime-related losses. Those would include medical expenses, lost wages, lost or damaged property, and funeral expenses

53
Q

Compensation:

A

victims are recompensed for crime-related financial losses. The money for the program comes mostly from court fees and fines that are collected from convicted criminals (Herman & Waul, 2004). In addition to the state funds, the federal government supplements the money through the Victims of Crime Act (VOCA) by the Office for Victims of Crime (OVC)

54
Q

Victim and Witness Protection Act of 1982

A

: the goals of the legislation are
(1) to enhance and protect the necessary role of crime victims and witnesses in the criminal justice process;
(2) to ensure that the federal government does all that is possible within limits of available resources to assist victims and witnesses of crime without infringing on the constitutional rights of defendants; and
(3) to provide a model for legislation for state and local governments. (U.S. Department of Justice

55
Q

Expert witnesses:

A

can talk about opinions given their specialized area of knowledge, research, and experience

56
Q

Court-appointed special advocates (CASA):

A

help abused and neglected children find safe, permanent homes (National Court Appointed Special Advocate Association, 2017). Those advocates not only represent the children but also work with their families and assist them with the court proceedings

57
Q

Institutional corrections:

A

housing individuals in secure facilities, usually jails or prisons

58
Q

Jails:

A

local facilities generally hold individuals who are awaiting trial or awaiting transfer to other facilities after a conviction and misdemeanor offenders serving sentences of one year or less

59
Q

Prisons:

A

facilities that usually hold felony offenders who have been sentenced to one year or more

60
Q

Supermax prison:

A

the prison with the highest level of security that holds the most dangerous offenders

61
Q

Solitary confinement:

A

inmates are locked in their small cells alone 23 hours a day and spend one hour in a recreation space, which is only slightly larger than their prison cell. Inmates have little contact outside of guards and prison staff

62
Q

Community corrections:

A

sanctions that allow offenders to serve their terms in a community setting outside of jail or prison.

63
Q

Probation:

A

commonly used as an alternative to incarceration where offenders can live under supervision in the community

64
Q

Parole

A

: the conditional release of a prison inmate ending their term under the supervision of parole officers

65
Q

Day Reporting Centers (DRCs):

A

a one-stop center that addresses the criminogenic needs of the participants by providing comprehensive programs

66
Q

Electronic Monitoring (EM):

A

an intermediate sanction in which offenders are monitored through a GPS tracking device

67
Q

Impact of Crime on Victims Classes (ICVCs):

A

enhance adult offender acceptance of responsibility for their previous criminal conduct, understand the impact of crime on victims, develop personal safety skills, learn about healthy relationships with others, and contribute to their communities in a way to prevent future victimization

68
Q

Victim Impact Panels (VIPs):

A

consists of three or four speakers who have been seriously injured or whose friends or family members were killed by a drunken driver and who share their personal stories about how the accident affected their lives to a group of DWI offenders in a nonblaming manner

69
Q

Victim Notification System (VNS):

A

a free computer-based system through which federal crime victims can access information on an offender’s custody and release status

70
Q

Detention Facility:

A

a secure facility that places juveniles during juvenile court proceedings. It is sometimes called detention center or juvenile hall

71
Q

parens patriae:

A

the doctrine that gives the state the authority to act as the parent when a child’s parents fail to provide appropriate parental supervision

72
Q

Detention facility (juvenile hall):

A

A secure facility that places juveniles during juvenile court proceedings. It is sometimes called detention center or juvenile hall.

73
Q

Custody:

A

placing juveniles in a secure environment.

74
Q

Adjudicatory hearing:

A

the stage of juvenile court proceedings where the judge finds whether the allegations in the petition can be sustained

75
Q

Disposition hearing:

A

juvenile court proceedings in which a judge decides the most appropriate placement of an adjudicated juvenile

76
Q

Residential placement:

A

Residential placement: placement for youth in residential facilities that might be publicly or privately operated and could be a prison- or a home-like setting

77
Q

Aftercare:

A

upon release from an institution, a juvenile is often ordered to a period of aftercare, which is similar to adult parole

78
Q

Differential response (DR):

A

two-track system where the case is classified into an investigative response (IR) or an alternative response (AR)

79
Q

Crossover youth:

A

youth who experience maltreatment and engage in delinquency

80
Q

Dually involved youth:

A

youth who are simultaneously involved in the child welfare and juvenile justice systems

81
Q

Crossover Youth Practice Model (CYPM):

A

a model designed to achieve the efficiency and effectiveness of the welfare and justice systems to better address the needs of crossover youth

82
Q

Restorative justice:

A

a framework that focuses on repairing the harm done to victims and the community through a process of negotiation, mediation, victim empowerment, and reparation

83
Q

Family group conferences:

A

an informal meeting coordinated with a trained facilitator whereby the offender(s), the victim(s), their families, other affected individuals, and anyone who supports the victim and the offender are the common participants in the conference

84
Q

Victim-offender mediation (VOM):

A

a trained mediator coordinates a meeting of a victim and an offender to discuss the offense for which they were involved and facilitate a dialogue. The mediator usually has a separate premeditation session with the offender and the victim

85
Q

Circles:

A

one of the restorative justice practices where the community members who has an interest in the case uses a circle to discuss the case to deal with the harm created by the offender, of healing the victim, and of restoring the community

86
Q

Family violence:

A

any assault, battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, or any criminal offense resulting in personal injury or death of one family or household member by another who is related to the victim either biologically or legally through marriage or adoption

87
Q

Neglect:

A

failure or refusal of a parent, guardian, or other caregiver to provide for a child’s basic needs. The abuse includes harm due to the action or inaction of the caregiver

88
Q

Child abuse:

A

the definition of child abuse and neglect contained in Section 3 of the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act (CAPTA) (Peterson, Joseph & Feit, 2014) is “At a minimum, any recent act or set of acts or failure to act on the part of a parent or caretaker, which results in death, serious physical or emotional harm, sexual abuse or exploitation, or an act or failure to act, which presents an imminent risk of serious harm”

89
Q

Mandated reporting:

A

is the legislative requirement that certain professionals must report cases of suspected child abuse or neglect for investigation to a designated authority within a specified amount of time

90
Q

Trauma-informed care:

A

a strengths-based framework that is grounded in an understanding of and responsiveness to the impact of trauma, that emphasizes physical, psychological, and emotional safety for both providers and victims, and that creates opportunities for victims to rebuild a sense of control and empowerment

91
Q

Human trafficking:

A

the recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring, or receipt of persons, by means of the threat or use of force or other forms of coercion, of abduction, of fraud, of deception, of the abuse of power or of a position of vulnerability or of the giving or receiving of payments or benefits to achieve the consent of a person having control over another person, for the purpose of exploitation

92
Q

Elder abuse:

A

elder abuse and neglect is the intentional actions causing harm or creating serious risk of harm, whether or not harm is intended, to a vulnerable elder by a caregiver or other person who stands in a trusted relationship, or failure by a caregiver to satisfy the elders basic needs or to protect the elder from harm

93
Q

Incapacitated rape:

A

occurs when the victim cannot consent because of self-induced consumption of drugs, alcohol, or any other intoxicant

94
Q

Statutory rape:

A

refers to a relationship between a juvenile and an adult that is illegal under the age of consent status but does not involve the degree of coercion or manipulation sufficient to qualify under criminal statutes as a forcible sex crime (Lee & Jordan, 2014). The minimum age that most states set is between 14 and 18; however, the legal definitions and terminology for statutory rape vary between states

95
Q

Sexual coercion:

A

unlike using physical violence or the threat of physical violence to have sexual intercourse; sexual coercion is instead the act of using psychological manipulation, threat of nonphysical punishment, or pressuring or pestering for sex (Daigle & Muftic, 2016). Sexual coercion generally exists in environments where there is an imbalance in power and control, where offenders exploit behaviors or status that make people vulnerable to victimization through fear, obligation, and guilt and/or the ability to recognize sexually aggressive behavior

96
Q

Unwanted sexual contact:

A

may involve the intentional touching, either directly or through the clothing of any part of a person’s body without his or her consent, or of a person who is unable to consent or refuse. Furthermore, unwanted contact sexual can include the perpetrator making a person touch them

97
Q

Noncontact sexual abuse:

A

does not involve any physical contact between the perpetrator and the victim. The noncontact occurs without the victims’ consent or when they are unable to consent or refuse and includes sending unwanted pornographic images or videos via text messaging or e-mail or verbal sexual harassment (e.g., making sexual comments) (Center for Disease Control and Prevention, 2017). Some acts of noncontact sexual abuse can occur without the victim’s knowledge, where comments or pictures are posted on social networking sites or the Internet

98
Q

Title IX:

A

a civil rights law that prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in any educational program or activity that receives federal funding. This includes most schools, including private institutions and grades K-12 (

99
Q

Cyber-crime:

A

the use of computer technology to engage in unlawful activity

100
Q

Cyber child sexual exploitation:

A

situations in which these abusive practices occur or are facilitated through the use of the Internet or other file-sharing and mobile communication technologies. Where a person, usually an adult, achieves sexual gratification, financial gain, or advancement through the abuse or exploitation of a child’s sexuality by abrogating that child’s human right to dignity, equality, autonomy, and physical and mental well-being

101
Q

Grooming:

A

often characterized as seduction, a slow and gradual process of active engagement and a desensitization of the child’s inhibitions, where the offender gradually gains power and control over the child

Victim Services (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions