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IS 560 > All Together > Flashcards

All Together Flashcards

1
Q 
HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 4
B) Layer 5
C) Layer 6
D) Layer 7
A

D) Layer 7

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2
Q 
What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application?
A) Application Layer
B) Presentation Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Transport Layer
A

C) Session Layer

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3
Q 
What is the name of the protocol data unit (PDU) of the Data Link layer?
A) Packet
B) Data
C) Bit
D) Frame
A

D) Frame

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4
Q 
The segment or datagram protocol data unit exists at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Application Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Data Link Layer
A

B) Transport Layer

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5
Q 
In what network topology are devices daisy-chained together in a single line?
A) Bus Topology
B) Star Topology
C) Star Bus Topology
D) Ring Topology
A

A) Bus Topology

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6
Q 
What physical network topology consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch?
A) Bus Topology
B) Ring Topology
C) Hub Topology
D) Star Topology
A

D) Star Topology

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7
Q 
The device where a telecommunications service provider network ends and an organization's network begins is referred to as what option below? 
A) Demarc
B) Last Mile
C) Local Loop
D) Point of No Return
A

A) Demarc

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8
Q

The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents are typically outlined in which of the following options?
A) Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP
)B) Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS)
C) Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)
D) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

A

D) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

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9
Q 
An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system?
A) Fail-open
B) Fail-close
C) Fail-tolerant
D) Fail-dynamic
A

B) Fail-close

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10
Q 
A standard network switch operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 5
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 7
A

B) Layer 2

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11
Q

Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
A) They lack scalability
B) They are not necessarily secure
C) They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers
D) They centralize user account logins

A

D) They centralize user account logins

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12
Q 
Using the same network to deliver multiple types of communications services, such as video, voice, and fax is known as: 
A) Multi-faceted networking
B) Convergence
C) Multiplexing
D) Unified Networking
A

B) Convergence

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13
Q 
At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?
A) Application
B) Session
C) Transport
D) Network
A

D) Network

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14
Q 
Select the layer of the OSI  model that is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read:
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session
D) Transport
A

B) Presentation

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15
Q 
If a Network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network, it will divide the packet into smaller packets in a process known as:
A) De-encapsulation
B) Fragmentation
C) Packet Splitting
D) Framing
A

B) Fragmentation

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16
Q 
The process of adding a header to the data inherited from the layer above is called what option below?
A) Segmenting
B) Encapsulation
C) Fragmenting
D) Appending
A

B) Encapsulation

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17
Q 
When using a Windows domain, what is the domain-level account for each user known as?
A) Global Account
B) Universal Account
C) Domain Token
D) Principle Name
A

A) Global Account

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18
Q 
What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?
A) POP3
B) IMAP4
C) SMTP
D) HTTPS
A

C) SMTP

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19
Q 
What is the name for a client-server model with one server and many clients, such as when an application is used to watch a live sports event?
A) Multicast Distribution
B) Multi-point Communication
C) Spread Packet Delivery
D) Broadcast Transmission
A

A) Multicast Distribution

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20
Q 
Any computer or device on a network that can be addressed on the local network is referred to as a:
A) Host
B) Node
C) Target
D) Subject
A

B) Node

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21
Q 
What are two encryption protocols commonly used with the Hypertext Transfer Protocol?
A) SSH
B) TLS
C) SSL
D) AES
A

B) TLS

C) SSL

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22
Q 
What two mail delivery protocols below can be used by a client application to receive e-mail from a server?
A) POP3
B) SMTP
C) MGET
D) IMAP4
A

A) POP3

D) IMAP4

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23
Q 
Which two protocols can be used to gain remote access specifically to a server's command line interface, securely and unsecurely?
A) Telnet
B) SSH
C) Remote Desktop
D) VNC
A

A) Telnet

B) SSH

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24
Q 
What are the two main Transport Layer protocols?
A) IPX
B) SPC
C) TCP
D) UDP
A

C) TCP

D) UDP

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25
Q 
Static electricity can cause what two types of damage in electronic components?
A) Electromagnetic Failure
B) Catastrophic Failure
C) Upset Failure
D) Polarity Failure
A

B) Catastrophic failure

C) Upset failure

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26
Q 
An IPv6 address consists of how many bits?
A) 32
B) 48
C) 96
D) 128
A

D) 128

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27
Q 
A port number, which identifies an application on a host, exists at what level of the OSI model?
A) Application
B) Transport
C) Network
D) Data Link
A

B) Transport

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28
Q 
What are the last two parts of a host name known as?
A) Top Level Domain
B) Fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
C) Domain Name
D) Host Qualifier
A

C) Domain Name

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29
Q 
What do the first 24 bits of a MAC address represent?
A) Organizationally Unique Identifier
B) Device ID
C) Extension ID
D) Network ID
A

A) Organizationally Unique Identifier

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30
Q 
What command below can be used to display a complete summary of all network interfaces in a Windows computer?
A) ipconfig /a
B) ipconfig /all
C) ipconfig /list
D) ipconfig /show
A

B) ipconfig /all

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31
Q 
What top level domain is used for the air-transport industry?
A) .air
B) .aero
C) .tport
D) .intl
A

B) .aero

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32
Q 
How many clusters of root servers exist?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 13
D) 15
A

C) 13

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33
Q 
What range of ports is referred to as the "well-known" range of ports?
A) 0-1023
B) 1024-49151
C) 49152-65535
D) 500-1024
A

A) 0-1023

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34
Q 
A loopback IP address begins with what number?
A) 254
B) 127
C) 169
D) 192
A

B) 127

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35
Q 
In Linux systems, what file contains the settings for the DHCP service?
A) dhcpd.conf
B) dhcp.ini
C) dhcpd.cfg
D) dhcp.cf
A

A) dhcpd.conf

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36
Q 
What command on Linux will display TCP/IP information associated with every interface on the device?
A) ifconfig /all
B) ifconfig -a
C) ipconfig -a
D) ipconfig /all
A

B) ifconfig -a

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37
Q 
Which protocol below is used to make an initial connection between hosts for transferring multimedia data, relying on other protocols once a connection is established?
A) SMB
B) SIP
C) H.323
D) NTP
A

B) SIP

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38
Q 
The Network Time Protocol service uses what port number?
A) TCP 123
B) TCP 89
C) UDP 123
D) UDP 90
A

C) UDP 123

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39
Q 
Select the name of the free, open source software that is by far the most popular DNS server software:
A) Microsoft DNS
B) BIND
C) Oracle Resolver
D) Dnsmasq
A

B) BIND

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40
Q 
Select the protocol below that is used to synchronize clocks on computers on a network:
A) SMTP
B) NTP
C) SIP
D) CIFS
A

B) NTP

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41
Q 
What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?
A) traceroute
B) ifconfig
C) ping
D) route
A

C) ping

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42
Q 
What RFC outlines recommendations for private IP addresses?
A) RFC 1900
B) RFC 1918
C) RFC 638
D) RFC 2332
A

B) RFC 1918

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43
Q 
What protocol is commonly used to request configuration files from another computer?
A) SNMP
B) SIP
C) SMB
D) TFTP
A

D) TFTP

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44
Q 
What two types of IP addresses are used on the internet?
A) IPv4
B) IPv6
C) IPX
D) IPng
A

A) IPv4

B) IPv6

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45
Q 
Traditional MAC addresses are broken into two parts. Name these two parts.
A) block ID
B) primary octet
C) secondary octet
D) device ID
A

A) block ID

D) device ID

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46
Q 
What two names are used to descibe the configuration in which internal and external DNS queries are handled by different DNS servers or by a single DNS server that is specially configured to keep internal and external DNS zones separate?
A) walled-DNS
B) split DNS
C) split-horizon DNS
D) DMZ DNS
A

B) split DNS

C) split-horizon DNS

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47
Q 
What two ipconfig commands below are used to show DNS resolver cache information and clear the name resolver cache?
A) ipconfig /releasedns 
B) ipconfig /alldns 
C) ipconfig /displaydns 
D) ipconfig /flushdns
A

C) ipconfig /displaydns

D) ipconfig /flushdns

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48
Q 
What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?
A) Connection-oriented Protocol
B) Sequencing and checksums
C) Framing
D) Flow Control
A

C) Framing

49
Q 
What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?
A) Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
B) Internet header length (IHL)
C) Time to Live (TTL)
D) Padding
A

A) Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

50
Q 
A modern ASN consists of how many bits?
A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) 128
A

B) 32

51
Q 
What netstat command option lists only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?
A) -s
B) -r
C) -n
D) -o
A

C) -n

52
Q 
By default, the pathping command sends how many pings per hop?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 200
D) 500
A

B) 100

53
Q 
Which network routing protocol is a path vector protocol that sends updates between routers using TCP?
A) IS-IS
B) OSPF
C) RIP
D) BGP
A

D) BGP

54
Q 
At what layer of the OSI model would a TCP or UDP header be added to a payload?
A) Layer 7
B) Layer 4
C) Layer 2
D) Layer 1
A

B) Layer 4

55
Q 
In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver while acknowledgement for the segment is outstanding?
A) urgent pointer
B) sliding window
C) sequence number
D) URG flag
A

B) sliding window

56
Q

Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?
A) A router forwards broadcasts over the network
B) A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but a second path is available
C) A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing
D) A router can connect dissimilar networks

A

A) A router forwards broadcasts over the network

57
Q 
The IP protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?
A) UDP
B) ICMP
C) TCP
D) ARP
A

C) TCP

58
Q 
What command can be used on a Cisco router to view the routing table?
A) route print
B) netstat -r
C) route
D) show ip route
A

D) show ip route

59
Q 
What parameter can be combined with the traceroute command to instruct it to use ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams?
A) -n
B) -p
C) -i
D) -d
A

C) -i

60
Q 
What TCP field below allows the receiving node to determine whether a TCP segment is corrupted during transmission?
A) checksum
B) sliding window
C) acknowledgement number
D) TCP header length
A

A) checksum

61
Q

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?
A) The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network
B) The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host
C) The router resets the TTL to 128
D) The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop

A

B) The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host

62
Q 
What IPv4 protocol handles multicasting for tasks such as videoconferencing or teleconferencing?
A) ICMP
B) ARP
C) TCP
D) IGMP
A

D) IGMP

63
Q 
When viewing the routing table on a UNIX system, what flag indicates if a route is a usable route?
A) I
B) H
C) G
D) U
A

D) U

64
Q 
What routing protocol criteria is defined as the time it takes to recognize a best path change in the event of a network outage?
A) administrative distance detection
B) convergence time
C) overhead calculation
D) downed path detection
A

B) convergence time

65
Q 
What type of routing protocol enables routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to create a map of an entire network?
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) exterior gateway
D) map extension
A

B) link state

66
Q 
What address does ARP work in conjunction with IPv4 to discover? (2)
A) IP
B) MAC
C) ARP
D) physical
A

B) MAC

D) physical

67
Q 
Which of the following are types of entries an ARP table contains? (2)
A) Static
B) Flat
C) Basic
D) Dynamic
A

A) Static

D) Dynamic

68
Q 
What versions of the IP protocol are used on networks today?
A) IPv1
B) IPv4
C) IPv6
D) IPv5
A

B) IPv4

C) IPv6

69
Q 
Which layers of the OSI model are all routers able to interpret?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A

C) 3

D) 4

70
Q 
What type of power flaw involves a fluctuation in voltage levels caused by other devices on the network or by EMI?
A) brownout
B) blackout
C) noise
D) surge
A

C) noise

71
Q 
One watt is equal to how many volt-amps?
A) 1.4
B) 2
C) 10
D) 1,000
A

A) 1.4

72
Q 
What is the maximum allowable distance for horizontal wiring?
A) 100 ft
B) 100 m
C) 90 m
D) 90 ft
A

B) 100 m

73
Q 
The radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission is known as what option below?
A) metal stress factor
B) arc coefficient
C) bend radius
D) flex rating
A

C) bend radius

74
Q 
How far away from fluorescent lights or other sources of EMI should cable be installed?
A) at least 3 ft
B) at least 5 ft
C) at least 10 ft
D) at least 20 ft
A

A) at least 3 ft

75
Q 
What is the industry standard for rack height in rack units?
A) 18U
B) 22U
C) 42U
D) 54U
A

C) 42U

76
Q 
Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?
A) half duplex
B) simplex
C) full-duplex
D) multiplex
A

C) full-duplex

77
Q 
Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium but in only one direction at a time?
A) full duplex
B) half duplex
C) simplex
D) multiplex
A

B) half duplex

78
Q 
Ethernet exists at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4
A

B) Layer 2

79
Q 
What is the maximum frame size for Ethernet ll frames on a VLAN?
A) 1500 bytes
B) 1518 bytes
C) 1522 bytes
D) 1496 bytes
A

C) 1522 bytes

80
Q 
When selecting a punch down block, what block type is more suitable for data connections?
A) 10 block
B) 22 block
C) 66 block
D) 110 block
A

D) 110 block

81
Q 
What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?
A) horizontal cross connect
B) patch cable
C) vertical cross connect
D) diagonal cabling
A

C) vertical cross connect

82
Q

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?
A) in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
B) at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
C) in the work area
D) between the MDF and the IDF

A

A) in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

83
Q 
Select the component of enterprise level structured cabling that serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling:
A) network interface device
B) main distribution frame
C) intermediate distribution frame
D) entrance facility
A

D) entrance facility

84
Q

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?
A) No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed
B) No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed
C) Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn’t get caught in the jack
D) Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk

A

A) No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed

85
Q 
What cable type comes in two different modes, single mode and multimode?
A) UTP
B) STP
C) Fiber Optic
D) Coaxial
A

C) Fiber Optic

86
Q 
Which of the following options is not a likely source of electromagnetic interference?
A) power lines
B) motors
C) fiber optic cables
D) microwaves
A

C) fiber optic cables

87
Q 
In order to simplify console access to computers in a rack, what device is typically used to provide a central portal for all devices on the rack?
A) KVM switch
B) AVR switch
C) terminal server
D) multi-monitor breakout cable
A

A) KVM switch

88
Q 
If the use of a pre-existing Ethernet infrastructure is desired for a SAN, what Transport Layer protocol should be utilized?
A) Fibre Channel
B) iSCSI
C) SAS
D) PATA
A

B) iSCSI

89
Q 
What type of power converter changes the voltage of an AC current, such as when power over the main line from an electric company is changed before being delivered to a home?
A) inverter
B) rectifier
C) transformer
D) voltage regulator
A

C) transformer

90
Q 
Select the two terms below that are used to describe a UPS that provides continuous voltage to a device by switching virtually instantaneously to the battery when it detects a loss of power;
A) offline UPS
B) standby UPS
C) standby power supply
D) failover power supply
A

B) standby UPS

C) standby power supply

91
Q

The standard that describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system, can be referred to by what two options below?
A) hierarchical cabling
B) TIA/EIA-568
C) IEEE Commercial Building Wiring Standard
D) structured cabling

A

B) TIA/EIA-568

D) structured cabling

92
Q 
Equipment racks most commonly come in what two widths?
A) 17 in frame
B) 18 in frame
C) 19 in frame
D) 23 in frame
A

C) 19 in frame

D) 23 in frame

93
Q 
Select the two Transport Layer protocol that are used by SANs: 
A) Fibre Channel
B) iSCSI
C) SAS
D) SATA
A

A) Fibre Channel

B) iSCSI

94
Q 
Select the maximum allowable distances for horizontal  wiring for a span that connects a data jack on a wall to a data closet, and for a span that connects a workstation to the data jack, respectively:
A) 100 m
B) 90 m
C) 10 m
D) 5 m
A

B) 90 m

C) 10 m

95
Q 
Using DWDM, a single fiber can carry between what two numbers of channels?
A) 60
B) 80
C) 160
D) 200
A

B) 80

C) 160

96
Q 
What two items below are commonly expressed as bits transmitted per second?
A) frequency
B) amplitude
C) throughput
D) bandwidth
A

C) throughput

D) bandwidth

97
Q 
What two connector types are typically used to terminate RG-6 and RG-59 cables?
A) f-connectors
B) BNC 
C) ST couplers
D) J-hooks
A

A) f-connectors

B) BNC

98
Q 
Frequencies used to convey speech over telephone lines fall between what two frequencies below?
A) 100 Hz
B) 300 Hz
C) 3.3 KHz
D) 5.5 KHz
A

B) 300 Hz

C) 3.3 KHz

99
Q 
What is the maximum supported throughput and bandwidth / signal rate of Cat 5e?
A) 100 Mbps
B) 1000 Mbps
C) 100 MHz
D) 350 MHz
A

B) 1000 Mbps

D) 350 MHz

100
Q 
What term below is used to describe the outer-most layer of protective covering of a coaxial cable?
A) sheath
B) shield
C) braiding
D) insulation
A

A) sheath

101
Q 
What Ethernet standard below is also referred to as "thinnet"?
A) 100Base2
B) 10Base2
C) 100BaseT
D) 10BaseT
A

B) 10Base2

102
Q 
What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds?
A) Cat 3
B) Cat 5
C) Cat 5e
D) Cat 6
A

C) Cat 5e

103
Q 
What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?
A) 100 Mbps
B) 1 Gbps
C) 10 Gbps
D) 100 Gbps
A

C) 10 Gbps

104
Q 
How many cable pairs are needed for 1000Base-T transmission over CAT5e cable?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
A

B) 4

105
Q 
Standard PoE devices must be provided with how much power in order to function?
A) 5 watts
B) 12 watts
C) 15.4 watts
D) 25.5 watts
A

C) 15.4 watts

106
Q 
What is the maximum distance for 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW on a segment of single mode fiber?
A) 550m
B) 300m
C) 10km
D) 40km
A

D) 40km

107
Q 
What type of cross-talk occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal?
A) far end cross talk
B) near end cross talk
C) alien cross talk
D) pair migration cross talk
A

B) near end cross talk

108
Q 
Which of the following connectors is the most common for mutlimode fiber?
A) ST
B) SC
C) FC
D) MT-RJ
A

D) MT-RJ

109
Q 
A measure of a signal's strength at any given time is known as which term below?
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) phase
D) wavelength
A

A) amplitude

110
Q 
The number of times that a wave's amplitude cycles from its starting point, through its highest amplitude and its lowest amplitude, and back to its starting point over a fixed period of time, is known as what term below?
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) wavelength
D)phase
A

B) frequency

111
Q 
WDM divides a beam of light into how many different wavelengths or colors?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
A

D) 40

112
Q 
Which type of multiplexing is defined by wavelength instead of frequency?
A) CWDM
B) DWDM
C) WDM
D) FDM
A

A) CWDM

113
Q 
Which option below reflects the standard impedance of an RG-6 cable?
A) 50 ohms
B) 60 ohms
C) 65 ohms
D) 75 ohms
A

D) 75 ohms

114
Q 
Phone companies make use of what type of multiplexing in order to allow for phone services and DSL services over the same line?
A) WDM
B) FDM
C) DWDM
D) CWDM
A

B) FDM

115
Q 
The most common multiplexing technology used in conjunction with fiber optics is which option below?
A) DWDM
B) CWDM
C) FDM
D) WDM
A

A) DWDM

116
Q 
A device that is responsible for modulating digital signals into analog signals, and demodulating analog signals into digital signals at the receiving end, is known as?
A) a modem
B) a transceiver
C) a demuxer
D) a multiplexer
A

A) a modem

117
Q 
Ethernet is an example of what type of technology?
A) broadband
B) baseband
C) wideband
D) narrowband
A

B) baseband

118
Q 
Since cable TV and cable internet can share the same coaxial cable, they are considered to be what type of technology?
A) broadband
B) baseband
C) narrowband
D) wideband
A

A) broadband

119
Q 
Using a form of transmission that allows multiple signals to travel simultaneously over one medium is known as which of the following options?
A) embedding
B) multiplexing
C) coupling
D) modulating
A

B) multiplexing

IS 560 (2 decks)

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