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HISTO BLOCK 3 OBJECTIVES > ALL THE THINGS! > Flashcards

ALL THE THINGS! Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of the lymphatic system?

A

return fluid/plasma proteins to blood

return lymphocytes to recirculating pool

add antibodies formed in lymph nodes

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2
Q

What is lymph?

A

ultrafiltrate of plasma

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of lymphatic vessels?

A

Capillaries, vessels, ducts

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of lymphatic capillaries?

A

thin walled, incomplete basement membrane, anchoring filaments, end in extracellular spaces

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of lymphatic vessels?

A

larger lumen than blood vessels, thick walls, flow depends on pressure

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of lymphatic ducts?

A

main ducts are right lymphatic and thoracic

empty in R/L venous angles

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7
Q

What is diffuse lymphoid tissue?

A

not delineated from connective tissue, made up reticular fibers, found in lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, MALT in GI

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8
Q

What are lymphoid nodules?

A

dense lymphoid tissue found in the cortex of lymph nodes, splenic white pulp, tonsils, and MALT

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9
Q

What are primary lymphoid nodules?

A

rounded, tightly packed with small lymphocytes.

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10
Q

Primary lymphoid nodules house B or T cells?

A

T cells

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11
Q

What are secondary lymphoid nodules?

A

spherical cluster of larger pale stained cells surrounded by a small lymphocyte cap. Have germinal centers.

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12
Q

Secondary lymphoid nodules house B or T cells? Where?

A

B cells in the germinal centers

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13
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

filter lymph and lymphocyte production (immune response)

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14
Q

Where are lymph nodes found?

A

found in mesentery, axilla, groin

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15
Q

The cortex of a lymph node has what characteristics?

A

an outer portion filled with lymphoid nodules and a deep portion of diffuse lymphoid tissue known as the Thymus dependent are filled with T-lymphocytes

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16
Q

The medulla of a lymph node has what characteristics?

A

consists of lymphoid tissue with irregular anastomosing medullary cords, which form spaces called medullary sinuses. Mainly have B-cells

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17
Q

What is the pathway taken by lymph as it passes on its way through a lymph node?

A

Affertent lymphatic vessel to subscapular sinus to peritrabechular sinus to medullary sinus to efferent lymphatic vessel

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18
Q

WHat are the characteristics of a lymphatic sinus in a lymph node?

A

lined with dendritic cells and macrophages, with a permeable wall. Facilitate the macrophages.

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19
Q

What forms the reticular meshwork in lymphatic sinuses in lymph nodes?

A

dendritic cells and macrophages

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20
Q

What are medullary cords?

A

aggregations of diffuse lymphoid tissue, B-lymphocytes, and macrophages.

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21
Q

What are medullary sinuses?

A

large, tortuous, channels that anastomose. They are between trabeculae and cords

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22
Q

What are postcapillary venules?

A

they are traversed by small lymphocytes from the blood and they represent the entry way from blood to lymph

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23
Q

What is another name for postcapillary venules?

A

high endothelial venule (HEV)

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24
Q

What are some characteristics of the spleen>

A

complex blood filtration system made up of large amounts of lymphoid tissue. Made up of white and red pulp

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25
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

storage and destruction of blood cells and platelets

production of lymphocytes

iron metabolism

immune response

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26
Q

Describe splenic white pulp

A

lymphoid tissue nodules that form peri-arterial lymphoid sheath (PALS) around central arteries, which pass inti pukp from trabeculae

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27
Q

Describe splenic red pulp

A

rich in blood and contains splenic sinusoids and splenic cords, which are supported by a reticular meshwork

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28
Q

What are the splenic marginal zones?

A

area between the two pulps. Harbors blood-borne antigens

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29
Q

Through which structures does blood flow on its way through the spleen?

A

Splenic artery to trabecular arteries to central arteries to penicillar arterioles to splenic sinus to pulp vein to trabecular vein to splenic vein

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30
Q

What is a splenic sinusoid?

A

they possess lingitudinal slits that resemble a leaky barrel for blood elements to pass through

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31
Q

What is a splenic cord?

A

found in the red pulp of the spleen between the sinusoids, consisting of fibrils and connective tissue cells with a large population of monocytes and macrophages.

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32
Q

What is another name for splenic cords?

A

Cords of Billroth

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33
Q

What are the functions of the Thymus?

A

T-cell maturation and immunologic response

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34
Q

Describe how the Thymus is organized into lobes and lobules

A

thymus has two lobes, which extend into lobules, which then have a cortex and medulla

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35
Q

What are the characteristics of the thymic cortex?

A

has an outer cortex with lymphoblasts

cortex is smaller in the middle and houses small lymphocytes near the medulla.

lower mitotic rate in inner cortex.

Has naive T-cells

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36
Q

What are some characteristics of the thymic medulla?

A

continuous between lobules, less dense than cortex, and contains Hassal’s corpuscles. Has selected immunocompetent T-Cells

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37
Q

Describe how blood vessels are arranged in the thymus

A

arteries form arterioles which follow the corticomedullary junction

capillaries go up and down into cortex and medulla, and the cortical capillaries drain into corticomedullary postcapillary venules

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38
Q

What are the components of the blood-thymus barrier?

A

made up of a continuous endothelium with a basement membrane, a perivascular space (macrophages present), and a reticular epithelium with a basement membrane

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39
Q

What is the blood-thymus barrier?

A

it regulates entrance into the blood from the thymus to create the needed environment for T-cell development

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40
Q

How many types of thymic reticular cells are there and what are their general functions?

A

6 types that secrete cytokines for thymocyte migration and they also produce hormonal factors for T-cell maturation (Thymosin)

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41
Q

Which thymic reticular cells are found in the cortex?

A

Types I, II, III

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42
Q

Which thymic reticular cells are found in the medulla?

A

Types IV, V, VI

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43
Q

What is the function of Type I cells?

A

barrier to isolate developing T_cells

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44
Q

What is the function of Type II cells?

A

compartmentilization of the cortex, and positive selection

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45
Q

What is the function of Type III cells?

A

barrier between cortex and medulla (cortical side)

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46
Q

What is the function of Type IV cells?

A

barrier between cortex and medulla (medullary side)

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47
Q

What is the function of Type V cells?

A

framework of the medulla and negative selection

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48
Q

What is the function of Type VI cells?

A

These are Hassal’s Corpuscles: concentric lamellae that may produce cytokines to program thymocytes

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49
Q

What are the two main divisions of the pituitary gland?

A

adenohypophysis (ant)

neurohypophysis (post)

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50
Q

What are the parts of the ant. pituitary?

A

pars disatlis, tuberalis, and intermedia

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51
Q

What are the parts of the post. pituitary?

A

pars nervosa, median eminence, and infundibular stalk

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52
Q

How is the pituitary gland developed?

A

infundibulum invaginates from the floor of the brain and forms the infundibular stalk and the pars nervosa

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53
Q

What role does Rathke’s pouch play in development of the pituitary?

A

it forms the oral ectoderm; forms the adenohypophysis

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54
Q

Describe the blood supply of the pituitary gland

A

inferior hypophyseal arteries supply the neurohypophysis

superior hypophyseal arteries supply the capillary plexus in the pars tuberalis

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55
Q

How does blood flow from the superior hypophyseal arteries?

A

sup hypo a. to 1st plexus to hypophyseal vein to 2nd plexus

capillaries reach from the plexus to the median eminence and infundibular stalk

primary plexus drains to the hypophyseal veins, then into sinusoidal capillaries in the pars distalis (2nd plexus)

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56
Q

What are the 3 main cell types of the pars distalis and what percentage does each make up?

A

A - acidophils 40%
B - basophils 10%
C - chromophobes 50%

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57
Q

Describe chromophobes

A

degranulated, supporting cells

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58
Q

What do acidophils secrete?

A

prolactin and GH

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59
Q

What do basophils secrete?

A

TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH

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60
Q

What are the hormones of the ant pituitary?

A

The Pirate FLAG

TSH
Prolactin
FSH
LH
ACTH
GH
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61
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

causes progesterone secretion by corpus luteum, mammary gland development, and milk formation

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62
Q

What does Growth Hormone do?

A

body growth, stimulates insulin like GF1 (IGF - 1) for muscle growth

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63
Q

What does TSH do?

A

thyroid hormone production/secretion

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64
Q

What does FSH do?

A

ovarian follicle stimulation, estrogen secretion, sertoli cell stimulation (sperm)

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65
Q

What does LH do?

A

corpus luteum formation, ovulation, progesterone secretion, leydig cell stimulation (testosterone secretion)

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66
Q

What does ACTH do?

A

gluco and gonadocorticoid secretion from the adrenal cortex

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67
Q

What are the releasing and inhibiting hormones produced in the hypothalamus and what are their functions?

A

TRH - stimulates prolactin/TSH (antagonist is dopamine)

GHRH - stimulates GH (antagonist is somatostatin)

GRH - at low frequency stimulates FSH and at high frequency stimulates LH

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68
Q

Describe the pars intermedia

A

poorly developed, produces MSH (melanocyte production)

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69
Q

Describe the pars tuberalis

A

forms the collar around the infundibular stalk, produces gonadotropin

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70
Q

Name the components of the neurohypophysis

A

made up of pituicytes and cell axons from the hypothalamus

hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract arises from the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei. contains Herring bodies which are hormone accumulations in the axons

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71
Q

What are the hormones in the pars nervosa? Name the specific locations

A

Oxytocin from paraventricular nucleus

Vasopressin from supraoptic

Neurophysin is a carrier protein for oxytocin and ADH

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72
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

uterine contraction, milk ejection reflex

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73
Q

What does vasopressin do?

A

produces ADH which allows for water reabsorption in the kidney; raises BP

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74
Q

What does neurophysin do?

A

is a carrying protein for oxytocin and ADH; prevents diffusion out of axons

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75
Q

What are endocrine glands? Examples?

A

ductless and secrete product into bloodstream

adrenal, thyroid, parathyroid, pituitary, and pineal

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76
Q

What are exocrine glands? Examples?

A

attached by duct to surface where it is emptied

sweat, salivary, sebaceous, and mammary glands

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77
Q

What glands have both Endo and Exo functions?

A

gonads and pancreas

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78
Q

What is a hormone?

A

chemical transported by blood or body fluid that has specific regulatory effect on cells away from its origin

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79
Q

What are the two cell types of the pineal gland?

A

Pinealocytes

Glial cells

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80
Q

What do pinealocytes do?

A

main cell type in pineal gland arranged in clusters; release melatonin

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81
Q

What do pineal glial cells do?

A

they are interstitial cells, scattered between pinealocytes, that resemble astrocytes (support)

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82
Q

How does melatonin help control the circadian clock?

A

during darkness, it is released, and it acts on the hypothalamus and pituitary to induce sleepiness. also inhibits GnRH, which reduces FSH/LH and in turn decreases gonadal steroid production

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83
Q

What blocks melatonin?

A

light and sympathetic blocking agents inhibit melatonin

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84
Q

What is brain sand?

A

aka corpora arenacea; calcium/magnesium phosphates and carbonates that illustrate the midline of the brain radiographically (look like clumps)

secreted by pinealocytes

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85
Q

Describe the location and organization of the adrenal gland

A

located at the sup pole of each kidney

triangular bodies are covered by a capsule and CT trabeculae that projects into each gland.

Has a large cortex and a small medulla

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86
Q

What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex? (In order)

A

Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

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87
Q

Describe the arrangement of the zona glomerulosa

A

small, ovoid cell groups surrounded by fenestrated sinusoids

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88
Q

Describe the arrangement of the zona fasciculata

A

thickets layer of large, parallel cords of cells that are separated by fenestrated sinusoids

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89
Q

Describe the arrangement of the zona reticularis

A

small cells anastomosing cells separated by fenestrated sinusoids

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90
Q

What is the main hormone produced by the adrenal cortex?

A

corticosteroids (gluco and mineralocorticoids)

also produces androgens

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91
Q

Zona glomerulosa produces

A

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) which increases BP

stimulated by angiotensin II

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92
Q

Zona fasciculata produces

A

glucocorticoids (cortisol), for carb metabolims, protein metab, lipid metablolism, and inflammation

stimulated by ACTH

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93
Q

Zona reticularis produces

A

androgens (DHEA), e.g. testosterone precursor

stimulated by ACTH

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94
Q

The adrenal medula produces what?

A

catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine

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95
Q

Describe the blood supply of the adrenal gland

A

supplied by suprarenal arteries that enter at the hilum and branch into capsular plexus

medulla also supplied by medullary artery

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96
Q

After entering the hilum and branching into the capsular plexus, how is blood supplied by the suprarenal arteries?

A

capsular capillaries supply the capsule

fenerstrated cortical capillaries go through the glomerulosa and form a network in the reticularis; these capillaries drain into medullary venous sinusoids in the medulla

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97
Q

The adrenal medulla receives dual blood supply how?

A

medulla gets dual blood supply; venous from medullary sinusoids and arterial from medullary arteries

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98
Q

What is the origin and function of chromaffin cells>

A

arranged around blood vessels and are modified postsynaptic sympathetic neurons without axons

secrete catecholamines in the adrenal medulla

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99
Q

Describe the location and organization of the thyroid gland?

A

two lobes on each side of trachea connected by an isthmus

has a thin fibro-elastic capsule that forms trabeculae that divide the gland into lobules

each functional unit of the gland is called a follicle and they are surrounded by fenestrted capillaries

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100
Q

Describe the thyroid follicle

A

an epithelial sac lined by a single layer of follicular epithelium

consists of colloid, gel like material thats main part is thyroglobulin (inactive thyroid hormone storage)

follicular cells produce TH, also contact the colloid and contain lysosomes

parafollicular cells also present that dont reach the lumen and produce calcitonin ( C-Cells)

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101
Q

What are the steps involved in the synthesis, storage, uptake and secretion of thyroid hormone (TH)

A
  1. synthesis of thyroglobulin
  2. uptake of Iodide
  3. oxidation of Iodide
  4. T3/T4 liberation
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102
Q

What does thyroid hormone do?

A

regulates cell metabolism (growth and development)

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103
Q

What are symptoms of HYPOthyroidism?

A

cretinism in children and myxedema in adults (T3/T4 can’t stimulate HGH)

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104
Q

What are the symptoms of HYPERthyroidism?

A

stimulates more T3/T4 production, metabolism and weight down

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105
Q

Describe the location of the parathyroid glands

A

two glands on each side behind the thyroid lobes

small oval glands with thin capsule

cells appear as a dense mass in anastomosing cords, and many fenestrated capillaries between the cords

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106
Q

What cell type is responsible for producing parathyroid hormone?

A

chief cells: principal cells that produce PTH (increase blood Ca level)

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107
Q

What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

A

antagonist to calcitonin

PTH regulates calcium concentration in blood and bone

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108
Q

In the endocrine pancreas, what are islets of Langerhans?

A

large, pale staining areas supported by reticular tissue

have irregular anastomosing cords and cell clumps separated by capillaries

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109
Q

What are the 3 cell types found in the islets of Langerhans?

A

Alpha
Beta
Delta

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110
Q

What do Alpha cells do?

A

secrete glucagon

insulin antagonist, stimulates glucose release into bloodstream; increase blood glucose

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111
Q

What do Beta cells do?

A

Secrete insulin

stimulates glucose uptake

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112
Q

What do Delta cells do?

A

secrete somatostatin

inhibits Alpha and Beta cells

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113
Q

How does the liver receive venous blood?

A

from the intestines via the portal vein

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114
Q

How does the liver receive arterial blood?

A

from circulation via the hepatic artery

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115
Q

Where do the hepatic veins drain>

A

directly into the IVC

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116
Q

What are the main functions of the liver?

A

metabolizes digestion products from the intestine

detoxification of toxins

bile production/release

amino acid/protein production (plasma proteins)

carb storage and glucose release

lipid metabolism

vitamins/iron storage and conversion (Vit A,D,K)

hormone synthesis

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117
Q

Describe the classical liver lobule

A

hexagonal with central vein in center and portal triad at each corner

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118
Q

List the structures within the portal triad/area

A

portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct

sometimes contains a lymphatic vessel

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119
Q

Where does the portal triad enter the liver?

A

enters the porta hepatis on the inferior surface of the liver

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120
Q

What is the sequence of blood vessels in the liver?

A

Blood enters sinusoids from terminal branches of the hepatic artery and portal vein (More portal blood). Blood then reaches the central vein (arterial and venous) from the sinusoids

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121
Q

After entering the central vein, how does blood flow through the liver?

A

drains into sublobular vein then to hepatic vein and finally to IVC

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122
Q

What are the two cell types that line the hepatic sinusoids?

A

Endothelial cells

Kupffer cells

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123
Q

Describe the endothelial cells of the hepatic sinusoids

A

have large fenestrations and a discontinuous basement membrane (no filtration barrier)

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124
Q

Describe Kupffer cells of the hepatic sinusoids

A

derived from monocytes (phagocytic) are between the endothelial cells and destroy bacteria

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125
Q

What is the Space of Disse? (Not the function)

A

the perisinusoidal space between endothelial cells and hepatocytes

numerous microvilli on hepatocytes increase SA for absorption

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126
Q

What is the function of the Space of Disse?

A

is an area for proteins to be absorbed from the sinusoids into the hepatocytes

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127
Q

Hepatic stellate cells in the Space of Disse help store what?

A

Vitamin A

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128
Q

In the Space of Disse, what can the Hepatic stellate cells differentiate into? What will they produce?

A

into myofibroblasts and produce collagen (fibrosis and cirrhosis)

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129
Q

Describe the structure of the bile canaliculus

A

little canals between hepatocytes

tight junctions seal these canaliculi

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130
Q

What is the function of the bile canaliculus?

A

bile is actively secreted into these canaliculi from hepatocytes

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131
Q

In the liver, canaliculi join to form what that drain where?

A

form intrahepatic ductules (canals of Hering) that drain into interlobular ducts in the portal areas

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132
Q

How is the hepatic duct formed?

A

interlobular ducts join main ducts to form the hepatic duct.

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133
Q

When the cystic duct joins the hepatic duct, what is formed? Where does this carry bile to?

A

common bile duct is formed which carries bile to the duodenum

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134
Q

The gallbladder is attached to the liver. What kind of bile does it receive and through which duct?

A

diluted bile from the hepatic duct

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135
Q

What kind of epithelium makes up the walls of the gallbladder?

A

simple columnar epithelium with microvilli (has many folds)

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136
Q

The lamina propria of the gallbladder is full of what kinds of capillaries?

A

fenestrated capillaries

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137
Q

The fibromuscular layer of the gallbladder discharges what?

A

bile

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138
Q

What does the gallbladder even do?

A

concentrate and store bile

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139
Q

Which cells secrete cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

enteroendocrine cells of the small intestine

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140
Q

What happens when CCK is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the small intestine?

A

the muscular layer of the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the duodenum

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141
Q

What is the composition and function of saliva?

A

colorless liquid containing water, mucin, carbs, protein and inorganic compounds. Also contains enzymes amylase, maltase, and lipase to digest carbs and lipids

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142
Q

Which glands produce saliva?

A

salivary glands that include the parotid, submandibular and sublingual

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143
Q

Describe the serous secretory unit within the salivary glands

A

has round nuclei, intercellular canaliculi, zymogen granules in apical cytoplasm, product is watery with enzymes

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144
Q

Describe the mucous secretory unit within the salivary glands

A

has flat nuclei, no intercellular canaliculi, larger lumen than serous, mucinogen granules in cell apex and lumen

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145
Q

Describe the structure, function, and location of salivary gland myoepithelial cells

A

present in both secretory units

lie between glandular cells and the basement membrane

contain myofilaments that allow contraction to facilitate secretion into ducts

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146
Q

What are the 3 types of ducts in salivary glands?

A

intercalated ducts
striated ducts
excretory ducts

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147
Q

What are the intercalated ducts of the salivary glands?

A

intralobular, small ducts that secrete bicarbonate and absorb chloride; many in serous glands

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148
Q

What are the striated ducts of the salivary glands?

A

intraloblar, columnar cells that secrete potassium and bicarbonate and absorb sodium

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149
Q

What are the excretory ducts of the salivary glands?

A

INTERlobular, and epithelium goes from columnar to pseudostratified to stratified

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150
Q

Describe the parotid gland

A

largest, paired, anterior to ear, and are purely serous with numerous intercalated and striated ducts

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151
Q

Describe the submandibular gland

A

paired, in floor of mouth and side of neck, with both types of secretions (serous/mucous)

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152
Q

Describe the sublingual gland

A

collection of glands in floor of mouth (each with own duct) and the majority of alveoli are mucous

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153
Q

State the function of the exocrine pancreas

A

produces/secretes digestive enzymes

154
Q

Describe the structure of the pancreatic acinus

A

are compound serous and have secretory capillaries between them with a central lumen.

base of each cell is basophilic and the apex is acidophilic

155
Q

List the types of ducts in the pancreas beginning at the acinus

A

Intercalated ducts empty into INTERlobular ducts which converge on main ducts (no striated ducts)

Main pancreatic duct of Wirsung and the accessory pancreatic duct of Santorini make up the two large ducts

156
Q

Where does the main pancreatic duct of Wirsung empty into the duodenum?

A

in the hepatopancreatic ampulla of Vater

157
Q

List the digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas

A

Zymogen granules contain protease precursors

nucleases

amylase

lipases

158
Q

What two duodenal hormones control pancreatic activity?

A

Secretin

CCK

159
Q

What does Secretin do?

A

induces release of bicarbonate fluid to neutralize intestinal acid, provides optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity

160
Q

How does CCK effect the pancreas?

A

causes pancreatic secretion of digestive enzymes as well stimulate gallbladder contraction

161
Q

Describe the outer surface of the lip

A

covered with thin hairy skin

red area is the transition from skin to mucous membrane (highly vascular, not heavily keratinized, with no sweat glands, hair follicles, or sebaceous glands)

162
Q

Describe the inner surface of the lip

A

covered with stratified non-keratinized epithelium and small clusters of mucous glands in the lamina propria

163
Q

Describe the mucous membrane typical of the oral cavity

A

stratified, non-keratinized epithelium with high papillae in the lamina propria

164
Q

What is and where is the Sulcus terminalis located?

A

V-shaped groove on the dorsal surface of the tongue

165
Q

The sulcus terminalis divides the tongue into what divisions?

A

anterior 2/3 (oral)

posterior 1/3 (pharyngeal)

166
Q

What are the kinds of papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue?

A

Filiform
Fungiform
Foliate
Circumvallate

167
Q

What is the filiform papillae?

A

parallel to sulcus terminalis, arranged in rows, and are high/narrow conical structures

NO TASTE BUDS

168
Q

What is the fungiform papillae?

A

scattered among filiform papillae and numerous at tip of tongue; look like fungus and have taste buds on upper surface

169
Q

What is the foliate papillae?

A

leaf shaped, non keratinized, with taste buds

170
Q

What is the circumvallate papillae?

A

about a dozen near the sulcus terminalis with many taste buds, and glands of von Ebner (serous) empty into the middle of them

171
Q

Describe the lingual tonsil

A

root of tongue with epithelium extending into lymphatic tissue to form crypts, and they have mucous glands to wash out the crypts

172
Q

Describe the palatine tonsil

A

between the glossopalatine and pharyngopalatine arches and have a CT capsule with septa passing inward; have primary and secondary crypts

their ducts open on surface and not in crypts (prone to infection)

173
Q

List the layers of the GI tract in order

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Serosa/Adventitia

174
Q

Describe the mucosal layer of the GI tract

A

epithelium with lamina propria (loose CT) and muscularis mucosae (2 layers of smooth muscle)

175
Q

Describe the submucosal layer of the GI tract

A

dense irregular CT with elastic fibers and Meissner’s nerve plexus

176
Q

Describe the muscularis externa layer of the GI tract

A

2 layers of smooth muscle (inner circular, outer longitudinal), with Auerbach’s nerve plexus

177
Q

Describe the serosa/adventitia layer of the GI tract

A

mesothelium of simple squamous epithelium (serosa) or it blends with CT of surrounding organs (adventitia)

178
Q

Where are glands associated with the GI located?

A

in the lamina propria and submucosa

179
Q

Name the 3 parts of the pharynx and give the type of epithelium lining each type

A

Nasopharynx - respiratory epithelium (pseudostratified ciliated w/ goblet cells)

Oropharynx - stratified, non-keratinized epithelium

Laryngopharynx - stratified, non-keratinized epithelium

180
Q

Describe the muscularis mucosa of the esophagus at upper, middle, and lower levels

A

Upper 1/3 - skeletal muscle

Middle 1/3 - skeletal/smooth muscle

Lower 1/3 - smooth muscle

181
Q

Describe the rugae and gastric pits of the stomach

A

Rugae - irregular folds in submucosa for increased SA for absorption

Gastric pits - invaginations of mucosal surface that descend into the lamina propria that are the home of gastric glands

182
Q

What type of epithelium lines the stomach?

A

simple columnar with surface mucous cells

183
Q

What cells line the stomach?

A

No goblet cells

has mucinogen granules in the apical portion of the surface cells

184
Q

How are gastric glands and gastric pits related?

A

Gastric glands are present throughout the gastric mucosa and are branched; they empty into gastric pits that have surface mucous cells

185
Q

What are the 4 cell types in gastric glands?

A

Chief (zymogenic) cells

Parietal cells

Mucous neck cells

Enteroendocrine cells

Undifferentiated cells

186
Q

What is the function of the chief cells?

A

secrete pepsinogen and lipase

187
Q

What is the function of the parietal cells?

A

secrete HCl and intrinsic factor (Vitamin B12 absorption for RBC maturation)

188
Q

What is the function of the mucous neck cells?

A

secrete mucin

189
Q

What is the function of the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands?

A

secrete gastrin, serotinin, histamine

190
Q

What is the function of the undifferentiated cells?

A

replace pit/surface epithelium upward and glandular epithelial cells downward

191
Q

What are the 4 ways the surface area of the small intestine can be increased for absorption?

A

long distance of the intestine

Plicae circulares - semicircular folds

Intestinal villi - finger-like projections

Microvilli - increase SA of epithelial cells

192
Q

What 2 cell types are found in the surface epithelium of the small intestine?

A

Enterocytes - columnar absorptive cells

goblet cells

193
Q

What is the function of the enterocytes in the small intestine?

A

housed in the simple columnar epithelium, help in absorptions and digestions

194
Q

What is the function of the goblet cells in the small intestine?

A

discharge mucin

195
Q

Where are the crypts of Lieberkuhn located?

A

in the lamina propria of the small intestine and invaginate from surface

196
Q

Which cells are contained in the upper half of the crypts of Lieberkuhn?

A

absorptive goblet and enteroendocrine cells (CCK secretion)

197
Q

Which cells are contained in the lower half of the crypts of Lieberkuhn?

A

Paneth cells - large eosinophilic cells that secrete antimicrobial lysozymes and defensins

198
Q

Where can you find Brunner’s glands?

A

in the submucosa of the duodenum

199
Q

What is the function of Brunner’s glands?

A

are compound tubular glands that produce bicarbonate filled mucus

ducts penetrate the muscularis mucosae and empty into the crypts

200
Q

What are Peyer’s Patches?

A

lymphatic nodules in the lamina propria and submucosa of the ileum (contains antigen presenting cells called M-Cells)

201
Q

What is the role of the undifferentiated columnar cells in the crypts?

A

Stem cells in the crypts migrate from the base to the tip of the villi in 3 days, and millions of them are shed everyday and replaced by upward migration

202
Q

Describe the structure of the large intestine (compared to the small intestine)

A

No villi
long and straight crypts
No Paneth cells

Outer longitudinal layer of muscularis externa is divided into 3 longitudinal bands called taeniae coli

203
Q

What does the taeniae coli of the large intestine form?

A

form saccules in the large intestine called haustrae

204
Q

What are the principal features of the vermiform appendix?

A

No villi

lymphoid tissue in lamina propria

less crypts

poorly developed muscularis mucosae

the submucosa has blood vessels

No taeniae coli

205
Q

Where does the kidney lie i the body? What space?

A

retroperitoneal space

206
Q

What is the kidney surrounded by and what is it divided into?

A

surrounded by capsule and divided into cortex and medulla

207
Q

The Hilum of the kidney has what that travels all the way to the bladder?

A

ureter

208
Q

In the hemisected view, what all would you see in the kidney?

A 
medullary pyramids (8-12)
renal colums
medullary rays
lobes
lobules
pelvis
papilla
collecting ducts
209
Q

List the segments of a nephron

A

renal corpuscle
proximal convoluted tubule

Loop of Henle (thick/thin; descending/ascending)

distal convoluted tubule which joins a collecting duct

210
Q

What are the primary processes of podocytes?

A

foot like processes that extend from the nuclear region

211
Q

Describe the secondary processes of the podocytes and how they are associated with glomerular capillaries

A

arise from primary processes

have thin gaps (filtration slits) to allow filtration barrier between the blood in the glomerular capillaries and Bowman’s capsule

212
Q

List the components of the filtration barrier established by podocytes

A

fenestrated endothelium of glomerular capillaries, capillary basement membrane, and the slit membrane in filtration slits

213
Q

What factors contribute to ultrafiltration?

A

occurs due to efferent arterioles being smaller than afferent ones (increased BP in glomerular capillaries)

slowed blood flow over the glomerular capillaries

thin nature of filtration barrier

214
Q

Where is the mesangium located?

A

in the renal corpuscle between glomerular capillaries

215
Q

What functions do the mesangial cells carry out?

A

function in phagocytosis in the glomerulrar basement membrane

contraction for blood flow regulation

structural support and secretion (cytokines and growth factors)

216
Q

Where is the juxtaglomerular apparatus located?

A

at the vascular pole formed from the terminal portion of the distal straight tubule and an afferent arteriole

217
Q

What are the 2 components of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Macula densa

Juxtaglomerular cells

218
Q

What is the Macula densa?

A

region in the distal tubule where cells are narrow and packed to help with sampling sodium concentration and pressure of the ultrafiltrate

219
Q

What do the juxtaglomerular cells do?

A

modified smooth muscle cells in the tunica media of the afferent arteriole with renin granules that lead to an increase in BP through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

220
Q

Compare the epithelial lining of the proximal tubule, thin segment of the loop of henle, and distal tubule

A

Proximal tubule - simple cuboidal cells with microvilli brush border

Thin segment - simple squamous

Distal straight tubule (thick segment) - simple cuboidal

221
Q

Several collecting tubules empty into what?

A

a collecting duct which then descends into medullar ray

222
Q

Several of the collecting ducts join to form what that open into what?

A

form papillary ducts of Bellini that open into minor calyx

223
Q

Describe the epithelium of collecting ducts

A

has light cells with aquaporins and dark cells (secrete H+ or bicarbonate, depending)

224
Q

What is the composition of the interstitial tissue?

A

little interstitial tissue in the cortex, but abundant in the medulla

has fibrolasts that produce the ECM and macrophages

225
Q

What are the endocrine functions of the kidneys?

A

renin produced by the juxtaglomerular cell increases blood volume and BP

erythropoietin (EPO) produced by fibrolasts increases RBC formation

calcitriol produced by cells lining the PCT increase Ca2+ to increase blood Ca

226
Q

The abdominal aorta gives off what to supply the kidneys?

A

renal arteries

227
Q

The renal arteries divide into how many branches?

A

3 main branches

228
Q

The 3 main branches of the renal arteries divide into how many pyramid branches?

A

3-4

229
Q

In the hilum, the pyramid branches divide into what?

A

INTERlobar arteries which ascend between pyramids

230
Q

At the corticomedullary junction, the interlobar arteries form what?

A

arcuate arteries that run parallel to the kidney surface

231
Q

The arcuate arteries give rise to what?

A

INTERlobular arteries that ascend into the cortex

232
Q

The interlobular arteries branch to form what?

A

afferent arterioles

233
Q

The afferent arterioles form what?

A

glomerular capillaries

234
Q

Unfiltered blood is collected by what in the kidneys?

A

efferent arterioles

235
Q

When the efferent arterioles leave the glomeruli, they break up into what?

A

peritubular capillary network in the cortical nephrons

vasa recta in juxtamedullary nephrons

236
Q

In what order does blood flow through the kidney?

A
  1. renal arteries
  2. pyramidal arteries
  3. interlobar arteries
  4. arcuate arteries
  5. interlobular arteries
  6. afferent arterioles
  7. glomerular capillaries
  8. efferent arterioles
  9. peritubular capillary/vasa recta
237
Q

In cross section, where is the ureter located?

A

is continuous with the renal pelvis

238
Q

Describe the ureter in cross section (epithelium, etc.)

A

lined with 4-5 layers of transitional epithelium, with a thick muscularis (inner longitudinal, outer circular), and it is surrounded by adventitia

239
Q

The urinary bladder is similar to the ureter, except why?

A

except that the transitional epithelium is thicker with binucleate cells

240
Q

The plasma membrane of the lumen of the urinary bladder is what? (thick or thin)

A

thick

241
Q

How many layers of muscularis are there in the urinary bladder? What is the region also called?

A

3 layers

prominent middle layer

242
Q

What are the divisions of the male urethra? (2 divisions)

A

prostatic urethra

penile urethra

243
Q

What epithelium is found in the prostatic urethra?

A

transitional epithelium

244
Q

What epithelium is found in the penile urethra?

A

pseudostratified epithelium

245
Q

What are the 3 parts of the male urethra? (You already said two of them on previous cards :] )

A

prostatic, membranous, penile

246
Q

Describe the female urethra

A

short with transitional epithelium

247
Q

List the main features of the cortex of the ovary

A

CT stroma containing follicles

simple cuboidal epithelium

tunica albuginea

248
Q

List the main features of the medulla of the ovary

A

loose CT

elastic and smooth muscle fibers

blood vessels

lymphatics

nerves

249
Q

Before birth, the mesoderm at the surface of the ovaries forms what kind of epithelium?

A

germinal epithelium

250
Q

Where do the oogonia develop and where do they migrate before birth?

A

develop in the yolk sac

migrate to the ovary

251
Q

Once in the ovary, what happens to the oogonia? What forms? (still before birth)

A

the oogonia divide many times and enlarge to form primary oocytes

252
Q

The primary oocytes become enclosed by what kind of epithelium? What do they then form? (still before birth)

A

become enclosed by simple squamous epithelium to form primordial follicles

253
Q

The primordial follicles enter which meiosis? Which stage? How many oocytes remain at birth?

A

enter meiosis 1 and rest in prophase until puberty

1 million oocytes remain at birth

254
Q

List the order of maturation of an ovarian follicle

A
  1. primordial follicle (squamous)
  2. primary follicle (cuboidal)
  3. secondary follicle
  4. Graafian follicle
255
Q

During the maturation of an ovarian follicle in the follicular phase, what stimulates the primary oocyte growth in the primordial follicle? (What hormone)

A

FSH - follicle stimulating hormone

256
Q

During the follicular phase, the follicular cells form several layers that form what?

A

Zona granulosa

257
Q

During the follicular phase, the granulosa cells formm what?

A

the zona pellucid which provides nutrients

258
Q

After the zona pellucida forms, what else forms in the granulosa?

A

an antrum forms in the granulosa

259
Q

Following the formation of an antrum, what else forms?

A

theca folliculi

260
Q

What are the divisions of the theca folliculi?

A

theca interna

theca externa

261
Q

What is the function of the theca interna?

A

secretory function - secretes estrogen

262
Q

What is the theca externa? Describe it.

A

it is connective tissue

263
Q

After how many days is the ovarian follicle fully mature?

A

10-14 days

264
Q

Which cells in produce estrogen during this maturation?

A

granulosa cells (secreted by theca interna)

265
Q

What is the first step in the process of ovulation?

A

Graafian (mature) follicle bulges on the ovary surface

266
Q

After the Graafian follicle bulges on the ovary surface, what is the second step of ovulation?

A

the surface layers rupture

267
Q

After the surface layer ruptures, what is the final stage of ovulation?

A

the ovum is released and drawn into the oviduct by its fimbriae

268
Q

What is fertilization?

A

the sperm fertilizes the egg once it is in the ampulla

269
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

is the collapsed follicle after ovulation

270
Q

What is the function of the corpus luteum?

A

secretes mostly progesterone and some estrogen

271
Q

If fertilization occurs, how many months does the corpus luteum last?

A

6 months

272
Q

6 months after fertilization, what happens to the corpus luteum?

A

declines gradually to a corpus albicans

273
Q

If fertilization doesn’t occur, how many days before the corpus luteum generates the corpus albicans?

A

14 days

274
Q

What is an atretic follicle?

A

the follicles that do not mature become a CT scar

275
Q

What is the corpus albicans?

A

after birth, the corpus luteum becomes a CT scar

276
Q

What transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus?

A

the oviduct

277
Q

What epithelium does the oviduct have?

A

simple columnar epithelium with some ciliated cells and others for nutrient secretion

278
Q

The muscularis layer of the oviduct is divided into what layers? What are the divisions for?

A

inner circular and outer longitudinal layer to move the fertilized ovum to the uterus

279
Q

The oviduct has how many segments?

A

4

280
Q

What are the segments of the oviduct? Give a unique feature for each

A

Infundibulum - has fimbriae

Ampulla - longest part, where fertilization occurs

Isthmus - medial narrow third

Intramural part - crosses the uterine wall to open into the uterine cavity

281
Q

Describe the perimetrium of the uterus

A

typical serosa that’s continuous with the broad ligament

282
Q

Describe the myometrium

A

3 smooth muscle layers with a thick circular middle layer that aids in fetal expulsion at birth (oxytocin acts on this layer for contraction)

283
Q

Describe the endometrium

A

simple columnar w/ two types of cells - ciliated and secretory

284
Q

What kinds of glands are present in the endometrium? What do they secrete?

A

tubular glands that secrete glycogen

285
Q

Which layer changes during the menstrual cycle?

A

endometrium

286
Q

What layer of the endometrium remains after menstruation?

A

stratum basale (basal layer)

287
Q

Which layer of the endometrium is lost after menstruation?

A

stratum functionale (functional layer)

288
Q

What is used to regenerate the stratum functionale?

A

the stratum basale

289
Q

Which artery is destroyed during menstruation?

A

spiral artery

290
Q

What is the spiral artery branching off of?

A

Straight artery that comes from the stratum basale

291
Q

The proliferative phase goes from which day to which day?

A

day 4-14

292
Q

What happens during the proliferative phase?

A

endometrium thickens; glands are straight/narrow

293
Q

In the proliferative phase, how are the coiled arteries positioned?

A

do not extend beyond the lower half of the functional layer

294
Q

The secretory phase lasts how many days?

A

12-14 days

295
Q

In the secretory phase, what happens to the glands? What about secretions?

A

become tortuous with accumulating secretions

296
Q

In the secretory phase, how are the coiled arteries positioned?

A

extend into the superficial endometrium

297
Q

In the last 2-3 days of the secretory phase, what happens to the arteries?

A

arteries become constricted due to a decrease in estrogen and progesterone

298
Q

What accumulates, specifically, in the epithelium during the secretory phase?

A

glycogen

299
Q

How many days does the menstrual phase last?

A

4 days

300
Q

What structures are lost in the menstrual phase?

A

stratum functionale along with its part of the spiral arteries are lost

301
Q

What is supplying the stratum basale after the stratum functionale and it’s associated arteries are lost?

A

now the spiral arteries only supply the basal layer of the endometrium, specifically the straight artery

302
Q

What is the initial trigger for the onset of the menstrual phase?

A

ischemia during the end of the secretory phase due to a decrease in estrogen and progesterone

303
Q

What happens following the initiation step of the menstrual phase?

A

blanching of the superficial zone of the endometrium occurs

progesterone and estrogen increase and the constricted arteries dilate causing blood and tissue fluid to lift the endometrium

304
Q

What are the two main divisions of the cervix?

A

Endo and exocervix

305
Q

What makes up the lower segment of the endocervix?

A

a fibromuscular wall with dense CT and smooth muscle

306
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix?

A

simple columnar epithelium with cilia

307
Q

What kind of glands are present in the endocervix?

A

tubular branched glands

308
Q

What kind of cysts are present on the uterine surface?

A

mucus-filled cysts called Nabothian cysts

309
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the exocervic? Does it share this epithelium with another structure?

A

stratified non-keratinized epithelium

Yes, it’s epithelium is like the Vagina

310
Q

Does the vagina have any glands?

A

No

311
Q

If it doesn’t have glands, then how is the vagina lubricated?

A

by cervical secretions

312
Q

These are found on each side of the vaginal orifice (outside) and they secrete mucous

A

Bartholin’s glans

313
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the vagina? What is found in the superficial layer in large amounts?

A

stratified non-keratinized epithelium with large amounts of glycogen in the superficial layers

314
Q

In the vagina, how does Estrogen form lactic acid? What aids it?

A

forms lactic acid from glycogen and is aided by Lactobacillus bacteria

315
Q

The lamina propria of the vagina has what in it?

A

lymphocytes and lymph nodules

316
Q

What are the 3 layers of the testis?

A

tunica vaginalis
tunica albuginea
tunica vasculosa

317
Q

What is the tunica vaginalis?

A

cells of peritoneal origin

318
Q

What is the tunica albuginea?

A

dense CT and smooth muscle region to help move sperm

319
Q

Invaginatons in the tunica albuginea form what?

A

form the mediastinum that split the testis into lobules

320
Q

What is the tunica vasculosa?

A

blood vessel network that helps maintain temperature

321
Q

The radial septa of the tunica albuginea forms roughly how many lobules in the testis?

A

250 lobules

322
Q

What is contained in each lobule in the testis?

A

1-4 seminiferous tubules

323
Q

Within the lobules of the testis, describe the seminiferous tubules and what kind of epithelium lines them

A

are highly convoluted and lined by germinal epithelium

324
Q

Do the seminiferous tubules anastomose with each other?

A

YES

325
Q

Each seminiferous tubule is surrounded by what?

A

by CT and contractile myoid cells to help move the spermatozoa because they are not motile yet

326
Q

In spermatogenesis, spermatogonia are adjacent to what?

A

the basement membrane

327
Q

What are the different types of spermatogonia?

A

Type A Dark
Type A Pale
Type B

328
Q

What do the Type A dark spermatogonia serve as?

A

serve as stem cells

329
Q

When dividing by mitosis, what can the Type A dark spermatogonia form?

A

2 Type A Dark

or

2 Type A Pale

330
Q

Are the Type A Pale spermatogonia committed to differentiating into other cell types?

A

YES

331
Q

After undergoing several mitotic divisions, what type do Type A Pale spermatogonia become?

A

Type B

332
Q

What Type represents the last stage of the spermatogonia?

A

Type B

333
Q

What are primary spermatocytes? Where are they found? Which meiotic division do they undergo?

A

large, spherical cells, in the middle zone of epithelium

undergo first meiotic division

334
Q

What are the secondary spermatocytes? Where are they located and what meiotic division do they undergo?

A

smaller and closer to the lumen

undergo second meiotic division

335
Q

What is a spermatid?

A

even smaller than a secondary spermatocyte, and is next to the lumen

It is spherical with round nuclei

336
Q

List the order of spermatogenesis from start to finish

A
  1. spermatogonia
  2. primary spermatocyte
  3. secondary spermatocyte
  4. spermatid
  5. immature spermatozoa
  6. mature spermatozoa
337
Q

What is the structure of the Sertoli cells?

A

tall and irregular cells with a central pale nucleus

338
Q

The Sertoli cells give nutrition to what cells?

A

germ cells

339
Q

What barrier do Sertoli cells form?

A

blood-testis barrier

340
Q

Sertoli cells aid in the release of what?

A

spermatozoa

341
Q

Sertoli cells produce what protein that maintains testosterone concentration in tubules?

A

androgen binding protein

342
Q

How many phases/steps are there in spermiogenesis?

A

4

343
Q

What are the 4 steps/phases of spermiogenesis?

A
  1. Golgi Phase
  2. Cap Phase
  3. Acrosomal Phase
  4. Maturation Phase
344
Q

What is happening in the Golgi phase of spermiogenesis?

A

proacrosomal vesicles are produced by the Golgi

centrioles move to opposite poles of cell and a flagellum forms

345
Q

What is happening in the Cap phase of spermiogenesis?

A

an acrosome forms (head-cap) over the nucleus

346
Q

What is happening in the Acrosomal phase of spermiogenesis?

A

reorientation of spermatid, so that the flagella faces the lumen

production of flagella

347
Q

What is happening in the Maturation phase of spermiogenesis?

A

mitochondria regroup around the flagellum

surplus cytoplasm is cast off as residual body and phagocytized by the Sertoli cell

348
Q

What are three divisions that make up the structure of the mature sperm?

A

Head
Neck
Tail

349
Q

Describe the Head of the mature sperm

A

condensed to reduce size, acrosome contains hyalurodinase (released at ovum) that helps sperm pass through corona radiata prior to fertilization

350
Q

Describe the Neck of the mature sperm

A

contains 2 centrioles

351
Q

What are the divisions of the tail of the sperm?

A

Mid piece
Principal piece
End piece

352
Q

Describe the Mid-piece of the tail of the sperm

A

contains axoneme of 9 x 2 microtubules and 9 outer dense fibers

353
Q

Describe the Principal piece of the tail of the sperm

A

absent mitochondria, outer dense fibers continue to fibrous sheath

354
Q

Describe the End piece of the tail of the sperm

A

microtubule continuation, no fibrous sheath

355
Q

Where are the Leydig cells found and what do they do?

A

are interstitial cells between the seminiferous tubules

produce testosterone

356
Q

Which ducts do sperm pass through?

A 
Tubuli recti
Rete testis
Ductuli efferentes
Ductus epididymis
Ductus deferens
357
Q

What is the Tubuli recti?

A

merging of the seminiferous tubules at the apex of each lobule, has Sertoli cells

358
Q

What is the Rete testis?

A

combines spermatozoa from different tubules; anastomoses the channels

359
Q

What is the Ductuli efferentes?

A

spiral ducts emerge on the testis surface; with ciliated columnar epithelium with smooth muscle

360
Q

What is the Ductus epididymis?

A

single coiled tube, site of sperm storage and maturation; “swimming lessons”; has smooth muscle

361
Q

What is the Ductus deferens?

A

from epididymis to seminal vesicle, has pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia; also has 3 layers of muscle

362
Q

What is the function of the seminal vesicle? What epithelium is it lined with?

A

produce fructose to provide energy for the sperm

has pseudostratified epithelium with secretion granules

363
Q

What is the function of the prostate gland?

A

has secretions that help transport sperm and neutralize lactic acid in vagina (calcification of prostatic secretions can occur)

364
Q

What is another name for the Bulbourethral glands?

A

Cowper’s glands

365
Q

What are the Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands?

A

lie lateral to the base of the penis, produce a clear viscous secretion (pre-ejaculate) to lubricate the urethra and neutralize acidic urine

366
Q

When viewed in cross section, what two structures are visible in the penis?

A

two corpora cavernosa with a deep artery in the center of each

367
Q

The two corpora cavernosa of the penis are enclosed by what?

A

tunica albuginea

368
Q

When viewed in cross section, what single structure that has the urethra at its center can be seen in the penis?

A

one corpus spongiosum

369
Q

What encloses the corpus spongiosum?

A

tunica albuginea

370
Q

When viewed in cross section, what 3 blood vessels are visible in the penis?

A

at the top, there are 2 dorsal arteries and 1 dorsal vein

371
Q

The erectile tissue has many what that fill with blood during a(an)?

A

has many vascular spaces that fill with blood during an erection

372
Q

In the penis, which arteries give rise to the deep and dorsal arteries?

A

internal pudendal arteries

373
Q

What arteries arise from the deep and dorsal arteries in the penis?

A

helicine arteries

374
Q

In the penis, where do the helicine arteries go?

A

go to cavernous spaces (blood sinuses)

375
Q

In the penis, where do the helicine arteries drain into?

A

the deep dorsal vein

376
Q

To become erect, what impulses are activated and by which division of the nervous system?

A

vasodilator impulses activated by the parasympathetic nervous system

377
Q

During an erection, blood flow in which arteries increases in the penis?

A

in the deep artery and the helicine arteries

378
Q

Which muscle relaxes during an erection and what spaces fill in the penis?

A

the cavernous smooth muscle relaxes; the cavernous spaces fill

379
Q

To become flaccid, what impulses are activated and by which division of the nervous system?

A

vasoconstrictor impulses are activated by the sympathetic nervous system

380
Q

When becoming flaccid, blood flow in which arteries decreases in the penis?

A

in the deep artery and helicine arteries

381
Q

When becoming flaccid, which muscle contracts and which spaces empty?

A

the cavernous smooth muscle contracts and the cavernous spaces empty

HISTO BLOCK 3 OBJECTIVES (1 decks)

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