All subjects Flashcards

1
Q

Common rash-first few days after birth

Small blotchy erythematous areas with a raised yellow/white center***

May be anywhere, including palms and soles, esp. on trunk

Usually in first week to ten days of life; up to 4 weeks ***

Dissipate without treatment in 5-7 days***

Cause is unknown

Harmless
Biopsy shows eosinophil’s

A

erythema toxicum

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2
Q

what is moniliasis

A

beefy red with satellite lesions
diaper rash
use nystatin ointment

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3
Q

3-5% of children 6 mo to 10 yr

Ill-defined, red, pruritic, papules/plaques

Diaper area spared***

Acute: erythema, scaly, vesicles, crusts

the itch that rashes

A

this is atopic dermatitis (eczema)

Chronic: scaly, lichenified, pigment changes

Cause: unknown; ? combo dry, irritated skin w/ malfunction of immune system; ?genetic basis ?food causes flare

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4
Q

treatment of atopic dermatitis

A

gets better with steroid cream (topical steroids)

Antihistamines for itching
After showers, moisturize with thick ointments QUICKLY afterwards, don’t wipe completely dry

Vaseline, Aquaphor, Cetaphil, Eucerin, Vanicream
Dove unscented

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5
Q

Abdominal pain, rash on legs (nonblanching and raised), arthritis in ankles

Laboratory tests are usually normal (platelets, complement level, and antinuclear antibodies) except for the urinalysis, which may be positive for blood or protein in 50% of the patients

A

Henoch shonlein purpura

HSP is a systemic vasculitis** of small** vessels characterized by 2- to 10-mm erythematous hemorrhagic papules in a symmetric acral distribution, over the buttocks and extremities – palpable purpura***

Patients with HSP limited to the skin and joints can be managed as outpatients. Severe abdominvolvement inal pain, gastrointestinal hemorrhage, intussusception, and severe renal are indications for admission.

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6
Q

what is the most frequent and serious complication of HSP

A

Renal involvement is the most frequent and serious complication and usually occurs during the first month. It commonly manifests itself as acute glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is uncommon

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7
Q

Still’s murmur?

A

Still’s: low-pitched sounds heard at the lower left sternal area, “musical.” These most commonly occur between age 3 and adolescence. Low pitched - best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. Can change with alteration of position and then can decrease or disappear with the Valsalva maneuver (valsalve decreases preload) . No clicks are present.

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8
Q
Bounding pulse, murmur
Tachypnea
Poor feeding habits
Shortness of breath
Sweating while feeding
Tiring very easily
poor growth
A

patent ductus arteriosus

Failure of closure of ductus arteriosus within a few days after birth
Girls>boys
More common in premature infants, neonatal respiratory distress, infants w/ genetic d/o (such as Down syndrome) & those w/ congenital heart lesions
Small PDAs usu. asymptomatic

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9
Q

5 T’s of cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

	1. VSD
	2. Overriding aorta
	3. RV outflow obstruction
	4. RV hypertrophy

Transposition of the Great Arteries
TAPVR- total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid Atresia

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10
Q

steeple sign

most common cause of inspiratory stridor *** in peds at rest

viral in origin

A

laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

subglottic narrowing of the trachea = steeple sign

Coryza 1-2d prior to croupy cough, hoarseness, & stridor

treat with inhaled epi and oral steroids

pt’s that have the bacterial form are WORSE and get intubated

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11
Q
Typically has an abrupt onset of symptoms
Typically the school aged child
Sore throat
Fever
Headache
GI symptoms: abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting 
Poor oral intake 
NO cough or rhinorrhea!!
A

strep pharyngitis (no viral symptoms)

Exudative pharyngitis or erythema of posterior orophayngeal mucosa
Enlarged tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
Palatal petechiae
Inflamed uvula
Scarlatiniform rash- little bumps all over
Pastia’s lines- AC fossa

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12
Q

Important cause of chronic cough in toddler***

A

foreign body

Nasal
Unilateral purulent drainage
Foul smelling

Lower respiratory tract
DDx: recurrent viral infections and asthma

PE and CXR may be unrevealing
Hyperlucency of right hemithorax & shift of mediastinal structures to left on expiration (foreign body in right mainstem bronchus).

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13
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea in young children throughout the world

A

rotavirus

there is a vaccine for this

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14
Q

how do you treat labial adhesions

A

Tx: mechanical separation then petroleum ointment to diminish irritation

use estrogen creams (Premarin)- causes atrophy of the tissue and makes it unfused

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15
Q

simple febrile seizure

A

Lasts a few seconds to 5-10 minutes

Followed by a period of drowsiness or confusion (30 minutes post-ictal)

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16
Q

complex febrile seizure

A

lasts longer than 15 minutes
In just one part of the body
Occurs again during the same illness.

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17
Q

gower maneuver

A

duchene’s muscular dystrophy
Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
1:3500 male births
X-linked recessive
Early onset, symmetrical, begins w/ pelvic/pectoral girdle involvement
Confined to wheelchair by adolescence
Death from cardioresp. Insufficiency by age 20

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18
Q

Traction apophysitis of tibial tubercle

PE: tenderness/swelling at tibial tuberosity

A

osgood schlatter disease

M>F
Cause:
Differential rates of osseous & soft tissues
Stress on apophyses by vigorous physical activity
Pain often relieved w/ rest

Duration: 6-24 months
Tx: rest, NSAIDS, cast/splint (if severe)
Steroid contraindicated***

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19
Q

Coxsackie A 16

Painful, shallow, yellow ulcers surrounded by red halos

Found on buccal mucosa, tongue, soft palate, uvula and anterior tonsillar pillars

Exanthem involves palmar, plantar and interdigital surfaces of the hands and feet +/- buttocks

A

hand foot mouth disease

At risk: preschoolers
Highly contagious
Incubation: 4-6 days
Prodrome: 1-2 days before rash

Low grade fever, anorexia, malaise, sore throat

Oral lesions without the exanthem = herpangina

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20
Q
At risk: school age children (4-10)
Season: sporadic
Incubation: 4-14 days
Infectious: until the onset of the rash
Rash on face is characteristic “slapped cheek” appearance***
A
Erythema infectiousum (5th disease)
parvovirus B19

> 50% asymptomatic
Prodrome
Mild fever (15-30%), sore throat, malaise
Dangerous for pregnant women in 1st trimester
Can cause hydrops fetalis***

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21
Q

High fever for 3-4 days

Abrupt drop in fever with appearance of rash

A

Roseola infantum- human herpes virus 6,7

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22
Q

fussy baby not consolable

A

rule out meningitis

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23
Q

Begins distally (erythematous, blanching, fine, maculopapular)**

Spreads centripetally & becomes petechial

Often see conjunctival erythema, edema and photophobia w/ rash

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

rickettsia

Must treat immediately if suspected
Doxycycline (in all children)

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24
Q

Maculopapular rash beginning on the face and spreading to the trunk and extremities***

A

meningococcemia

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25
Q

Maculopapular rash beginning on the face and spreading to the trunk and extremities***

A

meningococcemia

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26
Q

what is a full neuro exam

A

A “top to bottom” approach: the cortex to the brainstem, the cerebellum, the spinal cord, and the peripheral nerves

  1. Mental status examination
  2. Cranial nerves
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Strengths
  5. Deep tendon reflexes
  6. Sensory testing, as needed
  7. Gait, if possible
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27
Q

what are the components of a mental status exam

A

Level of consciousness

orientation

language

attention

memory

executive/intellectual function

non-dominant hemisphere

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28
Q

difference b/w LOC that is lethargic vs. stuporous

A
  • LETHARGIC: Patient prefers to sleep, but will stay awake with minimal verbal or physical stimulation
  • STUPOROUS: Patient requires repeated physical stimulation to stay awake
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29
Q

what are some causes of stupor or coma in a pt that was previously alert

A

something is seriously wrong

    1. The patient has had a new problem such as a decline in the function of an organ system: CNS, heart, lungs, kidneys, liver
    1. A new medication has produced an adverse effect
    1. The bacterial infection has spread to the blood: sepsis
    1. The patient’s hematocrit, glucose or partial pressure of oxygen has declined, or the partial pressure of carbon dioxide has risen
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30
Q

what is included in orientation

A

person, place , time

  • Not always valuable in localizing brain disease, but traditionally tested in virtually all patients
  • May be affected by any of the medical conditions that cause delirium or dementia
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31
Q

what does aphasia mean

A

• Aphasia is ALWAYS an indication that the patient’s DOMINANT HEMISPHERE is impaired: stroke, hemorrhage, seizure, or trauma, if it is a sudden result, or a tumor or dementia, if GRADUAL over many months or years

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32
Q

difference b/w broca’s and wernicke’s aphasia

A
  • BROCA’S APHASIA: frontal lobe, usually accompanied by hemiplegia, retained understanding, brief “telegraphic” output
  • WERNICKE’S APHASIA: less common, superior temporal lobe, fluent, poor understanding. No weakness
  • Both have ANOMIA, or inability to name objects, and inability to repeat
  • Both usually have limitations in writing, AGRAPHIA
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33
Q

what does dysarthria indicate

A

• DYSARTHRIA, or slurred or thick speech, may be due to disease of either hemisphere, and sometimes the brainstem, or may be due to a decline in consciousness or medication effect, or diseases of the larynx or mouth

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34
Q

what are the steps in testing language function

A
  • First of all, listen to patients, beginning with your history taking
  • Have patients REPEAT words or simple phrases
  • Have patients READ a paragraph
  • Have patients WRITE a sentence
  • Have patients carry out two or three step functions you read to them: “Close your eyes, stick out your tongue, and raise your right arm”
  • Have patients NAME some simple objects, such as a pen, a comb, a cup, etc.- dollar bill
  • Anomia – inability to name simple things
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35
Q

what is apraxia and why does it occur

A
  • Partial damage to the dominant lobe, resulting in the loss of complex, multi-step actions, such as combing the hair, brushing the teeth, shaving or putting on makeup, or even getting dressed
  • Patients cannot carry out these tasks, even though they have sufficient motor and sensory functions to do them
  • Likely due to damage to connections between different sites in the cerebral cortex
  • Common in stroke survivors and in severely demented people
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36
Q

what is Gerstmann syndrome and what causes it

A

• Most patients with apraxia have a lesion of the dominant parietal lobe, leading Gerstmann to name a syndrome specifically found from damage to the angular gyrus of the dominant PARIETAL lobe:

    1. ACALCULIA: Inability to understand numbers or to calculate
    1. AGRAPHIA: Inability to write
    1. Inability to distinguish the left and right sides of the patient (or of the examiner)
    1. Inability to distinguish the individual fingers
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37
Q

how do you test attention

A

Three easy tests for attention (sometimes called concentration)

    1. Digit repetition, generally 7 forward and 5 backwards
    1. Serial sevens, subtracting seven starting from 100
    1. Read a series of letters, asking the patient to raise his hand when he hears the letter “A”
    1. Have the patient spell “WORLD” forwards and backwards
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38
Q

The disoriented patient, who can suddenly no longer give you his location or the approximate date or time…
OR:
The inattentive patient, who cannot stick to the subject at hand, fails to do serial sevens, or cannot spell a word forwards or backwards…

may have…

A

delirium

• Patients with delirium can not reliably be tested for any parts of the MSE beyond attention, or certainly not beyond language

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39
Q

what is delirium

A
  • Now often called ACUTE CONFUSIONAL STATE, or ENCEPHALOPATHY
  • There may be agitation (aggressive and dangerous behavior), sometimes hallucinations, tremors, wide fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate
  • Usually there is hyper-reactivity to environmental stimulation, or at other times, extreme sleepiness
  • Suggests in most cases a diffuse systemic problem is affecting large sections of the brain, such as both hemispheres or the entire brainstem
  • Often due to serious infections sometimes with sepsis, new medications, impairment of respiration, hepatic or renal function, or a widespread stroke, infection or infections within the brain, or alcohol or narcotic withdrawal
  • Localizes to widespread dysfunction of the entire brain
  • Patients with delirium can not reliably be tested for any parts of the MSE beyond attention, or certainly not beyond language
  • They are too inattentive to understand memory testing, and to recall the words they hear
  • Very poor at executive functions, because of lack of concentration, and functions of the nondominant hemisphere
  • The physician cannot conclude that a delirious patient has these other MSE abnormalities until the delirium clears
  • However, patients with prior dementia are more vulnerable to delirium
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40
Q

anterograde

A

recent memory

recent memory, or the ability to store new information, up to a few days

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41
Q

retrograde

A

distant memory

including autobiographical (dates of graduation, marriage, etc.) or historical (date of wars, elections, sports, etc.). Less commonly lost

test by:
Less often tested, mostly for confirming a diagnosis of dementia
Examples:
• 1. When did you graduate from high school?
• 2. When did you get married?
• 3. How many children do you have?*
• 4. When did you retire?
• 5. When did the Vietnam War (or World War II) occur?
• 6. Can you name some recent presidents?

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42
Q

where does memory impairment stem from

A

• Localizes to BILATERAL medial temporal lobe damage, particularly the HIPPOCAMPUS

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43
Q

how do you test anterograde memory

A

• Testing recent memory: “Please listen to these 3 words, and then repeat them. I will ask you to remember them soon.” Memorize your OWN 3 words, and ask them in approximately 3 – 10 minutes. Some patients deserve a second try.
• Occasionally a normal patient will recall only 2/3, but recalling 0, or 1 words on two attempts is pathologic
Also tested by:
• 1. “How long have you been in the hospital?”
• 2. Giving a patient a brief story to remember, perhaps three or four sentences long
• 3. “What did you have for breakfast (or lunch, dinner)?”
• 4. Hide three objects in your examining room

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44
Q

how do you test executive intellectual function

A

Recent news events, recalling recent Presidents or the current governor of the state, general fund of knowledge (distances, geography), determining similarities of two objects, the interpretation of common proverbs

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45
Q

what is verbal fluency

A

testing of executive function

    1. Ask the patient to name as many members of a category as he can:
  • Examples: animals, girls’ or boys’ names, states in the United States, cities in Colorado, things you can buy in a grocery store or an apartment store, or words beginning with the letter A, F, S, etc.
  • Most healthy young patients can name 20 or more in one minute, while demented elderly patients will name less than TWELVE in one minute
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46
Q

what does abnormal executive function, judgment and abnormalities in nondominant hemisphere indicate

A
  • These are the indicators of DEMENTIA;
  • A more gradual, subtle loss of all of the higher cognitive abilities, which develops over months or years
  • Unlike delirium, dementia is usually irreversible
  • Patients will lose their memory in most types of dementia, their ability to do the activities of daily life, their social and occupational skills, and ultimately they will be unable to live independently
  • As dementias progress over years, the earlier aspects of the mental status exam will also suffer, such as orientation and attention, language, and finally even level of consciousness
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47
Q

what is the non dominant hemisphere responsible for

parietal, temporal, occipital

A

visual-spatial and construction skills, neglect, music

• Some functions are partly or entirely localized to the right hemisphere:

  • Parietal lobe: visual-spatial skills, constructions, awareness of one’s own body or the environment, especially to the left visual field
  • Abnormalities suggest a new tumor, stroke or trauma, or part of dementia
  • Temporal lobe: loss of musical abilities and a tendency to psychiatric disturbances such as psychosis, depression and bipolar disorder, anxiety
  • Occipital lobe: left homonymous hemianopia and prosopagnosia, inability to recognize faces
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48
Q

what is • Anosognosia

A

the inability to recognize weakness in a patient’s left arm or left leg. If you hand the patient your left arm they will think it’s their arm.

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49
Q

how can you test a lack of constructional skils

A
  • Again, a sign of nondominant (right) parietal lobe damage
  • Can be tested by having the patient draw, or copy, simple and then increasingly complicated figures, such as a circle, a square, a cube, a house, or a clock with all of the numbers
  • May also reveal hemispatial neglect
  • Very much impaired in dementias such as Alzheimer’s Disease
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50
Q

pupil that does not react to light at all

A

may be caused by blindness, optic neuritis (sometimes due to multiple sclerosis), an optic nerve tumor, or when it is dilated and unreactive, due to Adie’s pupil (polyneuropathy, especially in diabetics)

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51
Q

unilateral significantly dilated pupil

A

• A unilateral significantly dilated pupil may be due to a lesion of CN III, including herniation of the ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere!

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52
Q

which types of lesions in the brain spare the pupil

A
  • Occasionally due to strokes, diabetes, or even migraine, when temporary. Basilar artery lesion
  • These disorders usually “spare the pupil,” if due to ischemia inside of the midbrain
  • The pupil is NOT spared in lesions from outside the midbrain: tumor, herniation of the ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere due to a large tumor or hemorrhage
53
Q

which artery if aneurysm occurs will disrupt CN III

A

• Also can be caused by a life threatening aneurysm, ruptured or unruptured, of the posterior communicating artery

54
Q

which CN is the only completely crossed cranial nerve

A

trochlear (CNIV)

serving the contralateral superior oblique muscle, damaged by trauma or congenital disease

55
Q

how do you test trochlear nerve

A

look down and in

this muscle moves the eye downward and out

56
Q

CN VI

A

• CN VI, the abducens nerve, serves the ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle, and can indicate localized disease of the pons or the skull, or increased intracranial pressure from tumors or trauma anywhere inside the skull

57
Q

what are the components of CNVII

A
  • Almost entirely motor, to the muscles of facial expression
  • But also taste of anterior tongue, lacrimation and salivation
  • Limitation of hearing damage from loud noise by contraction of the stapedius muscle
58
Q

peripheral 7th nerve palsy

A

lesion is in the course of the facial nerve after it has left the pons;

BOTH the upper and the lower facial muscles on that side are impaired: these are peripheral seventh nerve palsies

59
Q

central 7th nerve palsy

A

; the lesion is in the brain stem in the pons or the midbrain, or far more commonly in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere, and ONLY the lower facial muscles are impaired

60
Q

what is the laterality of cerebellar control

A
  • Mostly important for coordination of movements on the SAME SIDE: this is due to the “double cross” of cerebellar efferents crossing over in the brainstem and going to the contralateral thalamus and contralateral motor cortex; descending corticospinal fibers will cross in the medulla oblongata
  • Remember that because of the “double cross,” CEREBELLAR DISEASE IN ONE LOBE ALWAYS PRODUCES ABNORMALITIES ON THE SAME SIDE OF THE BODY
61
Q

how do you test the cerebellum

A
  • Finger to nose, extending the patient’s arms completely
  • Rapid alternating movements
  • Knee to ankle movements of the opposite leg

• Strokes and hemorrhages, or expanding tumors of one cerebellar hemisphere may cause rapid death due to BRAIN STEM DAMAGE AND BLOCKAGE OF THE FOURTH VENTRICLE’S CSF FLOW

62
Q

what is the romberg test and what is it testing

A
  • Actually, a better test of the POSTERIOR COLUMNS (gracile and cuneate fasciculi) than the cerebellum; best done after other cerebellar tests are completed
  • Upright posture requires 3 functions:
    1. Vision
    1. Cerebellum
    1. Posterior columns
63
Q

2/5 strenghth

A

• 2/5. minimal horizontal movement, but no movement against gravity

64
Q

3/5 strength

A

• 3/5. Some movement against gravity

65
Q

quadriplegia

A

• Quadriplegia: disease of the upper or mid cervical spine, or both of the corticospinal tracts of the brain stem

66
Q

hemiplegia

A

• Hemiplegia: disease of one cerebral hemisphere or one side of the brainstem along the corticospinal tract

67
Q

paraplegia

A

• Paraplegia: disease of the spinal cord in the thoracic or high lumbar regions

68
Q

DTR’s and ratings

A

All DTRs are traditionally graded 0 – 4
• 0: no reflex
• 1: diminished reflex
• 2: average reflex
• 3. increased reflex, but only one beat
• 4. increased reflex with CLONUS: two or more beats
A reflex of 0 is usually pathologic, but a reflex of 4 is always pathologic

69
Q

what is the babinski sign …. not test

A

• There is NO Babinski TEST!!!
• There is a plantar reflex, in which the sole of each foot is quickly stroked from the heel to the toes
• The Normal Plantar Reflex is FLEXION of the big toe
• The Abnormal Plantar Reflex is EXTENSION of the big toe, sometimes with separation or “fanning out” of the smaller toes
This Abnormal response, with big toe extension, is called a: BABINSKI SIGN
Indicates UMN lesion

70
Q

upper motor neuron injury

A

• Increased reflexes, spasticity, only delayed atrophy of muscles, Babinski signs

71
Q

lower motor neuron injury signs

A

• Decreased reflexes, atrophy within weeks, sometimes fasciculations, no Babinski signs

72
Q

what are some causes of decreased DTR’s

A

• If decreased, may be due to diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, vitamin B12 deficiency, exposure to heavy metals or some organic chemicals, increased production of immunoglobulins, auto-immune diseases

73
Q

when should you perform the sensory exam

A

I recommend it be your final, or next-to-last area in the neurological examination

74
Q

sensory loss seen in cerebral hemisphere damage

A

numbness of the entire contralateral face, arm or leg

75
Q

what is spastic gait

A

• Spastic gait: Limited ability to bend at the hips and knees

76
Q

what is spastic gait

A

• Spastic gait: Limited ability to bend at the hips and knees

77
Q

normal CSF pressure

A
78
Q

where is the end of the spinal cord

A

L2

keep taps below this

79
Q

when you want to do a spinal tap, what should you do first

A

CT

unless meningitis is suspected

80
Q

what causes low spinal fluid pressure

A

spinal cord tumor

spinal fluid leak

hypo production

81
Q

what causes high spinal fluid pressure

A

Hyper-production

Proximal to Occlusion

Malabsorption of spinal
fluid

Obesity. Pseudo tumor
cerebri

you will see papilledema

82
Q

xanthochromic csf

A

Old blood pigments

Remote bleeding

83
Q

macrophages (monocytes) in CSF?

A

CHONIC CONDITIONS- brain abscess

84
Q

CSF glucose levels?

A

CSF GLUCOSE LAGS ONE HOUR BEHIND BLOOD GLUCOSE NEVER
LOWER THAN 80% OF BLOOD GLUCOSE

High spinal fluid glucose may want to check for diabetes

85
Q

protein CSF

A
86
Q

what is the epidural space

A

EPIDURAL SPACE IS A POTENTIAL SPACE THAT CONTAINS NO FLUID OR BLOOD ONLY ACCESS
TO THE NERVE ROOTS & DISC MATERIAL

87
Q

does a negative EEG rule out seizure disorder

A

no

88
Q

what is the use of X-rays in neuro

A

screen for fx’s

when looking at the cervical spine region look at the cervical lines there should be 4

89
Q

uses of non contrast ct

A

hemorrhage
spinal fx
kidney stone

90
Q

contrast CT

A

tumor

abscess

91
Q

what is the use of PET scans

A

FDG put into pt’s

METOBOLISM OF FDG IN THE GLUCOSE PATHWAY GIVES OFF POSITRON + GAMMA RADIATION

CANCER CELLS USE MORE GLUCOSE THAN NORMAL CELLS
AND EMIT MORE
GAMMA RADIATION

92
Q

T1 MRI

A

RELAXATION
LONGITUDINAL TO
THE MAGNETIC FIELD

93
Q

T2 MRI

A

RELAXATION
TRANSVERSE
TO THE MAGNETIC
FIELD

94
Q

in T2 images, what is bright

A

water (CSF)

edema, tumor, infarct, inflammation, infection, subdural collection

gray matter is brighter than white matter

looking for water that is not supposed to be there

95
Q

in T1 what is dark

A

water (CSF)

edema, tumor, infarct, inflammation, infection, hemorrhage

white matter is brighter than gray matter

96
Q

in T1 what is bright

A

fat

Subacute hemorrhage
Melanin
Protein-rich Fluid
Slowly flowing blood
Gadolinium
Laminar necrosis of an infarct
97
Q

what is the FLAIR image

A

MRI that is T2 weighted with spinal fluid blanked out

edema and gliosis are hyperintense

want to see fluid that is not spinal fluid

98
Q

uses of MRI

A

MS
Tumor
meningitis (edema/excess fluid)
angiography

soft tissue

NOT AS GOOD AS C.T.
FOR ACUTE STROKE

99
Q

what is the new way to measure intracranial pressure

A

ultrasound on the eye

100
Q

what is CT best for

A

acute cerebral bleeding

abcesses

fractures

101
Q

what is CT best for

A

acute cerebral bleeding

abscesses

fractures

102
Q

what is CT best for

A

acute cerebral bleeding

abscesses

fractures

103
Q

when do you suspect a nerve injury with a laceration

A
  • Suggested by sensory abnormality distal to the wound; suspicion is increased for lacerations near the course of significant nerves.
  • Examination should test light touch and motor function. Two-point discrimination is useful for hand and finger injuries.
  • Normal varies among patients and by location on injuries of the hand; comparing findings on the identical site of the uninjured side is the best control.
104
Q

complete tendon vs partial rupture in laceration signs

A
  • Complete tendon laceration usually causes a resting deformity (e.g, foot drop from Achilles tendon laceration, loss of normal resting finger flexion with digital flexor laceration) because forces from antagonist muscles are unopposed.
  • Resting deformity does not occur with partial tendon laceration, which may manifest with only pain or relative weakness on strength testing or be discovered only on exploration of the wound.
  • The injured area should be examined through the full range of motion; the injured tendon may sometimes retract and not be visible on inspection or wound exploration when the injured area is in the resting position.
105
Q

which types of wounds are liekly to have foreign bodies

A

involving glass

glass or inorganic material (eg, stones, metal fragments) is involved, plain x-rays are taken; glass bits as small as 1 mm are usually visible.

106
Q

why don’t you use betadine for cleansing a wound

A

it is for intact skin, so it can cause necrosis on open wounds

107
Q

lidocaine versus bupivacaine

A

longer acting = bupivicaine 2-4 hours

108
Q

list some absorbable suture material

A

catgut
polyglactin (vicryl)
poliglecaprone (monocryl)
polglycolic acid (dexon)

109
Q

catgut

A
  • Catgut — Catgut is a natural product derived from sheep or cattle intima. Plain catgut retains significant tensile strength for only five to seven days. Chromic gut is treated with chromium salts to resist body enzymes, thus delaying absorption time. Chromic gut retains tensile strength for 10 to 14 days.
  • The main use of chromic gut is to close lacerations in the oral mucosa. Chromic gut is more rapidly absorbed in the oral cavity than most synthetic sutures, making it ideal for this environment. It is less optimal for use in dermal (subcutaneous) and muscle layer closures because of increased tissue reactivity.
110
Q

fast absorbing gut

A

facial lacerations

• Fast-absorbing gut is a newer primarily for epidermal suturing, where sutures are only required for material not treated with chromic salts. It is heat-treated to accelerate tensile strength loss and absorption. It is used five to seven days . The use of this fast-absorbing suture was studied in 654 wounds during plastic surgery procedures. The suture was adequately dissolved in the majority of cases during follow-up visits at four to six days. Fast-absorbing gut is ideal for suturing facial lacerations when tissue adhesives cannot be used or suture removal will be difficult. However, care must be taken to be gentle with tying knots when using the smaller (6-0) fast-absorbing gut, due to its low tensile strength. It is reasonable to reinforce this suture with skin tapes.

111
Q

vicryl

A

polyglactin

• Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) — Introduced in 1974, Vicryl is a lubricated, braided synthetic material with excellent handling and smooth tie-down properties. It retains significant tensile strength for three to four weeks. Complete absorption occurs in 60 to 90 days. It has decreased tissue reactivity compared with catgut as well as improved tensile strength and knot strength. Vicryl is an ideal choice for subcutaneous sutures***

112
Q

monocryl

A

poliglecaprone

• Poliglecaprone 25 (Monocryl) — Monocryl is a monofilament suture that has superior pliability for easier handling and tying of knots. Its monofilament quality gives it a theoretical advantage over braided sutures for contaminated wounds requiring deep sutures. This suture is often used by plastic surgeons at our institution for facial lacerations closed with subcuticular running sutures.

All of its tensile strength is lost by 21 days postimplantation [12].

113
Q

what are some common non absorbable sutures

A
silk
nylon
polypropylene
cotton
stainless stel
114
Q

silk sutures

A

• Silk – Silk is a natural product that is renowned for its ease to handle and tie. It has the lowest tensile strength of any nonabsorbable suture. It is rarely used for suturing of minor wounds because stronger synthetic materials are now available. Body might recognize as foreign body→ inflammatory response

115
Q

nylon

A

• Nylon (Dermalon, Ethilon) – Nylon was the first synthetic suture introduced; it is popular due to its high tensile strength, excellent elastic properties, minimal tissue reactivity, and low cost. Its main disadvantage is prominent memory that requires an increased number of knot throws (3 to 4) to hold a suture in place [13].

116
Q

polypropylene

A

• Polypropylene (Surgilene, Prolene) – Polypropylene is a plastic, synthetic suture that has low tissue reactivity and high tensile strength similar to nylon. It is slippery and requires extra throws to secure the knot (4 to 5). Prolene is especially noted for its plasticity, allowing the suture to stretch to accommodate wound swelling. When wound swelling recedes, the suture will remain loose. The cost of Prolene is approximately 13 percent more than nylon [5]. Prolene can be purchased in a blue color, which can be advantageous in localizing sutures in the scalp and dark-skinned individuals.

117
Q

pro cons of interrupted

A
  • Easy to learn and do but poor cosmetic result b/c of all the different sutures with different amounts of tensions
  • Allows for removal of only some of the sutures in cases of infection
  • Better for wounds that are jagged or irregular
  • If a suture breaks, the remaining sutures remain in place
118
Q

continuous suture

A
  • Also called a baseball stitch
  • Closes the wound quickly
  • Generally gives a better cosmetic result since tension is spread uniformly along the wound edges
  • If the suture breaks the entire wound opens
119
Q

horizontal mattress

A

• A horizontal mattress suture is usually best for high-tension wounds or wounds with fragile skin. Placed over joints and areas with a lot of motion

120
Q

vertical matress

A

good for everting

121
Q

in what pt’s must you not use dermabond

A
  • Immunosuppressed patients
  • Diabetics

dont use in wounds:
• Contaminated
• Complex
• Jagged

• They should also be avoided on mucosal surfaces
and areas that maintain moisture, such as the groin or axillae.

122
Q

excisional biopsy

A

L 3 or 4 times W

30 degree or less angles

123
Q

when do you obtain surgical consult in wounds

A

• Deep wounds of the hand or foot
• Full-thickness lacerations of the eyelid, lip, or ear
• Lacerations involving nerves, arteries, bones, or joints
• Penetrating wounds of unknown depth
• Severe crush injuries
• Severely contaminated wounds requiring placement of a drain
• Wounds leading to a strong concern about
cosmetic outcome

124
Q

when do you not close a wound

A
wound open >6 hrs 
foreign debris in the wound that cannot be completely removed e.g., a wound with a lot of embedded dirt that you cannot clean completely
•	Active oozing of blood 
•	Dead space under the skin closure
•	Too much tension on the wound
125
Q

delayed primary closure of a wound

A
  • Delayed primary closure is a compromise between primary repair and allowing an acute wound to heal secondarily. It may be considered for a wound over 6 hours old even though primary closure is preferable such as a large wound or a wound near a skin crease
  • In delayed primary closure, you initially treat the wound with wet-to-dry dressing changes for a few (2–3) days with the hope of being able to suture the wound closed within 3–4 days.
  • During the few days of dressing changes, the reasons for not closing the wound initially may resolve. The dressings should clean the wound, the tissue swelling caused by the trauma may subside, and all bleeding may be fully controlled.
  • If the wound shows no signs of infection and can be closed without tension, it may be possible to close the wound primarily within a few days.
126
Q

face timing of removal

A

three to five days

127
Q

scalp and arms removal of sutures

A

7-10 days

128
Q

trunk, legs, hands or feet removal of sutures

A

10-14 days

129
Q

palms or soles suture removal

A

14-21 days