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1
Q

Guanosine Tri-phosphate is a

A

nucleotide

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2
Q

a class of hydrolase responsible for the cleavage of phosphate bonds

A

phosphatase

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3
Q

protein translation mostly occurs where?

A

in the endoplasmic reticulum

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4
Q

Eukaryotes have a _____, but viruses, bacteria, and archaea don’t

A

Golgi apparatus

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5
Q

Lactate, oxaloacetate, glycerol, and alpha-ketoglutarate are used as starting materials in

A

gluconeogenesis

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6
Q

What is the enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis)?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

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7
Q

_____ is involved in the pentose phosphate pathway, not involved in gluconeogenesis

A

Phosphogluconate

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8
Q

catalyze the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate

A

Kinase

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9
Q

catalyzes the removal of phosphate groups

A

Phosphatase

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10
Q

increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthase will likely result in increased levels of

A

succinate and increased levels of GTP

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11
Q

What does the pentose phosphate pathway result in the generation of?

A

NADPH (which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes)

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12
Q

The Vmax of an enzymatic reaction is altered by which inhibitors?

A

Noncompetitive, uncompetitive, and Mixed

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13
Q

What is the goal of glycolysis?

A

Formation of acetyl-CoA for use in the citric acid cycle

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14
Q

What is the goal of gluconeogenesis?

A

The regulation of blood glucose levels

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15
Q

used by cells to restore NAD+ in order to continue anaerobic metabolism

A

Fermentation

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16
Q

the conversion of a substance from the liquid or solid phase into the gaseous phase

A

Vaporization

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17
Q

the conversion between the solid and the gaseous phases of matter

A

Sublimation

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18
Q

the conversion of a gas directly to a solid

A

deposition

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19
Q

the conversion of a solid to a liquid is called

A

fusion

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20
Q

Reacting H2 and Pd reduces alkenes to

A

alkanes

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21
Q

P=V^2/R

A

Power

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22
Q

V=IR

A

Current is in amperes

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23
Q

_____ is a non-conservative force, and gravity and electrostatic forces are conservative

A

friction

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24
Q

____ hormones like estrogen are hydrophobic (nonpolar)

A

steroid

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25
Q

_____ hormones like insulin are hydrophilic (polar)

A

peptide

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26
Q

In a gel electrophoresis, the farther a substance migrates means it is more

A

compact

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27
Q

the removal of introns and splicing of exons is a step in the production of mature mRNA from the transcript produced from

A

DNA (pre-mRNA)

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28
Q

In oxidative phosphorylation, Cytochrome c is a __-electron carrier since it cycles between a ferrous and ferric state

A

1-electron

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29
Q

suitable primers have a high __ content and have _ or _ base pairs at the 5’ and 3’ ends

A

GC content, G, C

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30
Q

the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during anaphase I of meiosis or the failure of sister chromatids to separate during anaphase II of meiosis

A

Nondisjunction

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31
Q

_____ stimulates cellular uptake of glucose resulting in lower blood glucose levels

A

Insulin

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32
Q

is not dependent on the conc. of the amino acid transport protein

A

Kt

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33
Q

Km is equal to the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is 1/2?

A

1/2 Vmax (Km=1/2Vmax)

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34
Q

__ isomers are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis

A

L

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35
Q

An organism that has a low____ will best suited to withstand periods of nutrient deprivation

A

metabolic rate

Having a low metabolism will result in weight coming off slower

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36
Q

In aerobic conditions, cellular respiration is used and it nets ___ ATP/glucose

A

38

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37
Q

in anaerobic conditions, fermentation is used and it nets __ATP/glucose

A

2 ATP/glucose

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38
Q

is a housekeeping gene that is expressed continuously

A

GADPH

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39
Q

in a loose confirmation and is readily accessible for transcription

A

Euchromatin

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40
Q

Actin filaments are

A

microfilaments

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41
Q

the visual receptor cells in the retina that absorb light

A

photoreceptors

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42
Q

a specialized adipose tissue that contains large numbers of mitochondria that generate heat during thermogenesis

A

brown adipose tissue

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43
Q

The _______, but not tissue cells, can survive independently for an extended period of time

A

Paramecium

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44
Q

in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to _____ in the cytoplasm and isn’t transported to the mitochondria to be converted to acetyl-CoA

A

lactate

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45
Q

What is a fatty acid composed of?

A

a long hydrocarbon tail and a head consisting of a carboxyl group

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46
Q

Systemic veins carry

A

high CO2 levels

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47
Q

systemic arteries carry

A

low CO2 levels

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48
Q

Gases enter and exit the RBC through diffusion across the

A

RBC plasma membrane

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49
Q

disrupts alpha helices which are a form of secondary structure

A

Proline

50
Q

The lower the Kd, the ___ effective it will be

A

more effective it will be

51
Q

Hydrolytic cleavage is most likely catalyzed by a

A

protease

52
Q

____ has the epidermis of skin, lining of mouth and anus, cornea and lens of eye, nervous system, adrenal medulla, the brain

A

ectoderm

53
Q

_____(middle layer)
blood cells, vessels, heart, kidney, skeletal muscle, bone, muscles, tendons, reproductive system, muscular layer of stomach and intestine

A

mesoderm

54
Q

______ epithelial lining of the digestive tract, lining of the respiratory system, lining of urethra, urinary bladder, and reproductive system, liver, pancreas, thymus, thyroid and parathyroid glands

A

endoderm

55
Q

The electron transport chain uses the free energy from redox reactions to pump protons from the mitochondrial matrix to the _______

A

intermembrane space

56
Q

The intermediate compound between succinate and malate is _____ in the citric acid cycle

A

Fumarate (stop flipping moving)

57
Q

a technique used to detect a particular sequence in a sample of DNA. Can not be used to analyze gene expression

A

Southern blotting

58
Q

SNOW DROP

A

southern blotting-DNA
Northern blotting-RNA
Western blotting-proteins

59
Q

can be either a sperm or an egg or an early embryo

A

a germ cell

60
Q

a cell that makes the body tissues of multicellular organisms and doesn’t have the ability to transfer gene information to offspring. Can cause injuries like cancers

A

somatic cells

61
Q

Somatic cells are produced by _____, and germ cells are produced by _____

A

mitosis, meiosis

62
Q

Where do leukocytes gravitate toward?

A

An inflammation

63
Q

the blood plasma and the lymph is considered the

A

extracellular fluid

64
Q

Where is the cytoplasm located?

A

Within the cell

65
Q

Why is water lost through the skin?

A

To keep the body at normal temperature

66
Q

a recombinant process that depends on the F factor plasmid

A

Conjugation

67
Q

process whereby genes are transferred by a virus

A

transduction

68
Q

a term used in biology to describe movement from one place to another

A

translocation

69
Q

inflation of the lungs is accomplished by

A

negative pressure pumping action

70
Q

a measure of the enzyme units per mg of total protein in a solution

A

specific activity

71
Q

A size-exclusion chromatography allows larger molecules to pass more freely through the column matrix and hinders the passage of

A

smaller molecules

72
Q

Which is smaller:

Urea, 10kDa, 40 kDa?

A

Urea

73
Q

Each double bond (unsaturated) in an acyl chain removes __ H atoms when compared to saturated chains

A

two H atoms

74
Q

A tri-unsaturated chain would have how many less hydrogens than a saturated chain?

A

(3 double bonds x 2 H/bond)=6 more hydrogen atoms

75
Q

is produced from cytosine as a result of a conversion of an amine group to a carbonyl group

A

Uracil

76
Q

disruption of two disulfide bonds with a protein requires

A

two molecules of NADH

77
Q

are 1-ring structures, and ___ are 2-ring structures

A

Pyrimidines, Purines

78
Q

this amino acid side chain contains a sulfhydryl group

A

Cysteine

79
Q

Complexes (I-IV) of the electron transport chain work independently or do they work with each other?

A

with each other, so they affect one another

80
Q

When a macrophage ingests foreign material, the material is initially trapped in a phagosome. This phagosome fuses with a

A

lysosome

81
Q

inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by ATP is an example of:

A

allosteric regulation and feedback inhibition

82
Q

If potassium ion channels are blocked:

A

the membrane would fail to repolarize, extending the length of the action potential and simulating excessive muscle contractions

83
Q

Secretory proteins are synthesized, and folded in the

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

84
Q

If a protein has an isoelectric point around 9, it will be ____ charged at physiological pH

A

positively-charged

85
Q

Transcription occurs in the

A

nucleus (c in transcription and c in nucleus)

86
Q

Ubiquination targets a protein for degradation by a

A

proteasome

87
Q

Transmembrane domains are likely to have a higher proportion of ____ residues,

A

hydrophobic (nonpolar)

88
Q

if subunits can be separated with reducing agents, this shows that the subunits are linked by

A

disulfide bonds (found in the thiol groups of cysteine residues)

89
Q

is a glycolytic enzyme that catalyzes the reversible conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

A

GADPH

90
Q

Southern blotting-
Northern blotting-
Western blotting-

A

DNA
RNA
Proteins

(SNOW DROP)

91
Q

post-translational modification of proteins such as histone acetylation is analyzed by

A

Western blotting

92
Q

regulates the fusion of aquaporins with the apical membranes of the collecting duct epithelial cells

A

Vasopressin

93
Q

part of the kidney that filters glucose, salts, potassium, amino acids, phosphates, and more in the blood

A

proximal tubule

94
Q

a cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine

A

Bowman’s capsule

95
Q

a major resorptive segment of the nephron and accounts for resportion of nearly a quarter of the filtered load of sodium, chloride, and potassium ions

A

Ascending loop of Henle

96
Q

are the myelin-forming cells in the peripheral nervous system

A

Schwann cells

97
Q

a type of neuroglia located throughout the brain and spinal cord. Serve as the first form of active immune defense in the central nervous system

A

Microglia

98
Q

a sub-type of glial cells in the central nervous system. Star-shaped, their many processes envelop synapses made by neurons

A

Astrocytes

99
Q

a type of neuroglia whose main functions are to provide support and insulation to axons in the central nervous system of some vertebrates

A

Oligodendrocytes

100
Q

an abnormally folded protein that induces a normally folded protein to adopt the abnormal structure

A

Prion

101
Q

If S. typhi enters the bloodstream from the small intestine, the first organ it would encounter is the

A

liver

102
Q

affects estrogen levels

A

LH (Luteinizing hormone)

103
Q

internalization of viral particles through endocytosis is mediated by

A

endosomes

104
Q

What do proteases do?

A

They digest proteins into smaller fragments

105
Q

A frameshift mutation results in an

A

aberrant carboxy-terminal

106
Q

Which molecule is not formed during the citric acid cycle?

Malate, succinate, alpha-ketoglutarate, or phosphoenolpyruvate

A

Phosphoenolpyruvate (it is a product of glycolysis, not the citric acid cycle)

107
Q

Avogadro’s number

A

6.02x10^23

108
Q

both eggs and sperm contain a haploid # of chromosomes, so they are similar in their

A

genome size

109
Q

Mysosin Va is a

A

motor protein

110
Q

Motor proteins such as myosin Va move along _____ through interaction with actin

A

microfilaments

111
Q

Actin binds with

A

myosin

112
Q

membrane-bound organelles that contain hydrolytic enzymes activated by low pH

A

Lysosomes

113
Q

Microtubules are cellular structures that originate from

A

centrosomes

114
Q

an intracellular organelle that is responsible for the packaging and transport of protein products

A

Golgi apparatus

115
Q

a disc-shaped protein structure associated with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers attach during cell division to pull sister chromatids apart

A

kinetochore

116
Q

target virus-infected cells by recognizing the viral antigen presented on the cell surface

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

117
Q

Where are sperm produced?

A

in the seminiferous tubules of the testes

118
Q

Sperm complete maturation and become motile where?

A

The epididymis

119
Q

What do sperm travel through?

A

The urethra

120
Q

During normal muscle contraction, ___ is required to break the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head

A

ATP

121
Q

Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′?

A

3’-GCUAUG-5’

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