All Questions Flashcards
Decresed function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransofrmation of most drugs?
liver
A prescription reads ‘2 tab q4h po pen until gone’. The translation of these instructions is
Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hours by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone
What is the ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic dose of a drug and is used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment?
Therapeutic index
Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators?
A. They prevent the female from laying eggs
B. They effectively kill all adult stages.
C. They prevent replication with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals.
D. They are neurotoxic to mammals.
They prevent replication with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals.
A 50 lb. dogs is to be given 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams are to be given?
22.7 mg
A 3 mo. old Chow Chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of warfarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be most useful to treat this toxicity?
Vitamin K
What drug is not an NSAID? A. Predinone B. Flunixin meglumine C. Phenylbutazone. D. Aspirin
Prednisone
You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. You are very sure the veterinarian will not be using what tranquilizer for this procedure?
Acepromazine
Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for the use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety?
Clomicalm
How many milliliters of a 50% dextrose solution are needed to make 100 ml of a 5% dextrose solution?
100
The primary function of insulin is to do what?
Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells.
Which of the following drugs is considered a biologic response modifier? A. Interferon B. Streptokinase C. Cephalosporin D. EDTA
Interferon
Th number of species of bacteria that are affected by an antibiotic is known as the antibiotic’s what?
Spectrum
The effectiveness of a surgical scrub of the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on what?
Combination of contact time and scrubbing action
Which of the following statements would be false after serious oral surgery, such as a mandibular fracture repair or oral nasal tumor resection?
A. The patient may refuse to eat.
B. The patient may needed a gastrostomy tube.
C. The patient may refuse to drink.
D. The patient will no longer be in pain.
The patient will no longer be in pain.
If a prescription call for one tablet to be given for 3 days bid, then one tablet for 5 days sid, then one half tablet given every other day for 2 weeks, who many tablets should be dispensed?
15
A semi-permanent feeding tube may be placed in any of the following ways except... A. Through the nose B. Through a pharyngostomy site C. Through a gastrostomy site D. Through the mouth.
Through the mouth
Proptosis of the globe…
A. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
B. Is not considered an emergency.
C. Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds.
D. Is most commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis.
Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technical should do all of the following except…
A. Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument
B. Pass the instrument in the open position
C. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon’s hand
D. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon’s hand with the concave side up
Pass the instrument in open position
A chest tube is placed when an animal has... A. Subcutaneous emphysema B. Pulmonary edema C. Ascites D. Pneumothorax
Pneumothorax
A declaw is also known as an A. Orchidectomy B. Onychectomy C. Ovariohysterectomy D. Onychotomy
Onychectomy
Which of the following forceps has the most crushing action? A. Rochester-Carmalt B. Rochester-Pean C. Ochsner D. Crile
Rochester-Carmalt
What suture pattern is commonly used to close the sin of cattle following a rumenotomy?
Continuous horizontal mattress
What is an important measure that can help prevent myositis during equine surgery?
Providing proper padding
A dog consumes five bowls of water in a 24 hour period. Each bowl contains 100 ml. If you collect 475 ml of urine over the same 24 hour period approximately how many milliliters constitute insensible loss?
25
Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissor? A. Mayo B. Metzenbaum C. Iris D. Lembert
Lembert
Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an overiohysterectomy? A. Decreased heart rate. B. Pale mucous membranes C. Slow recovery from anesthesia D. Slow capillary refill time
Decreased heart rate
Using the dissection method, which parts of the distal forelimb are removed in an onychectomy?
Distal phalanx and nail
Anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the... A. Elbow B. Stifle C. Hip D. Hock
Stifle
If a fracture is found on the proximal part of the tibia, it is... A. Distal to the femur B. Proximal to the femur C. In the middle of the bone D. Distal to the metatarsus
Distal to the femur
Which of the following is not a primary concern when assisting a surgeon performing a pyometra surgery?
A. Providing preoperative and intraoperative antibiotics for the patient
B. Genel handling of the febrile tissue to prevent rupture
C. Fluid therapy to diurese the kidneys
D. Lidocaine infusion to prevent venricular arrythmias
Lidocaine infusion to prevent venricular arrythmias
What drug is in the same class as thiopental? A. Ketamine B. Diazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Atropine
Phenobarbital
Which statement regarding first intention wound healing is false?
A. It occur without infection
B. It occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition
C. It usually has some degree of suppuration
D. It occurs with minimal scar formation
It usually has some degree of suppuration
An anesthesia machine is set to deliver 1 L/min oxygen and 3% isoflurane. Approximately how many vaporized milliliters of isoflurane will be used for a 1-hour procedure?
1800
What items should personnel wear when entering the operation room?
cap, mask, booties, and clean scrubs or gown
Metzenbaum scissors are used only for what?
cutting tissue
In general, the difference between disinfectant and an antiseptic is what.
Disinfectants are a agents used on inanimate objects and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue.
How can you help prevent “strike through” during surgery?
make sure sharp instruments are protected so they do not puncture the wrap and cause contamination
The agent used in gas sterilization is what?
Ethylene oxide
A Buhner needle is used... A. In repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses B. In enucleations on dogs C. In intestinal anastomosis surgeries D. In orthopedic sugeries
In repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses
What does the medical term ovariohysterectomy mean?
removal of the ovaries and uterus only
A pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long?
6 to 7 weeks
Which of the following best describes the location of an incision through the skin and line alba extending from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus?
ventral midline
The term that means “surgically opening the abdominal cavity” is….
laparotomy
What is a nosocomial infection?
hospital-squired infection
What is the proper term for microorganisms that gain entrance into an incision during a surgical procedure?
contamination
What is the significance of ventral midline surgical wound dehiscence of ht muscle, subcutaneous tissue and skin layers? A. Emergency B. Cosmetic only C. Minor significance D. Serous but not an emergency
Emergency
You have an injectable calcium solution that is 30 mg/ml. How many milliliters would you add to 1 L of lactated Ringers solution to deliver 4 mg/hr of calcium at a rate of 30 ml/hr?
4.4
Why is a recent surgical wound usually slightly warmer than the surrounding normal tissues?
inflammation
What is the purpose of using a subcuticular suture pattern for a final closure?
to keep tissues apposed for quick healing
What teeth on each side of the mouth on a dog have three roots?
maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molar
The level of clid in the 1L IV bag reads halfway between the 4 and 5 marks. How much fluid remains in the bag?
550
The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the….
buccal surfaces of upper cheek teeth
You have an instrument in your hands that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a…
universal curette
To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should….
use contestant irrigation
Another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is…
feline external odontoclastic resporptive lesions
For dental radiography of the canine tooth of a cat, you should use what size of dental film to ensure that the whole tooth is included?
2
The following statements are all true except…
A. Sulcus depth is measure using the probe
B. A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat
C. A sulcus depth greater then 3 mm indicates periodontal disease
A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat
The furcation is best described as..
The space between two roots where they meet they meet the crown
A biopsy report confined that an oral mass is an acanthomaus epulis. What can be said about this growth?
It is a nonmalignant tumor
When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed what is the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed?
Tooth extraction or pulp capping
The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus?
maxillary
The instrument used to measure pocket depth is a periodontal…
probe
Prevention of periodontal disease involves all of the following except…
A. Daily teeth brushing or mouth rinsing
B. Regular exercise
C. Routine professional scaling and polishing
regular exercise
What is the proper dilution of chlohexidine solution for use in the mouth?
0.2%
What tooth has three roots?
upper fourth premolar
What term identifies the instrument used for removal of supragingival calculus?
scaler
A monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as…
cells with no overlapping or touching
If the potassium is labeled 5 mEq/5ml, how many milliequivalents of potassium are delivered in 2 ml?
2.0 mEq
Which of these cells is not an epithelial cell type found in urine sediment? A. Squamous B. Transitional C. Renal D. Trigeminal
trigeminal
What anticoagulant is the first choice for coagulation studies?
sodium citrate
Centrifuging blood that has been collected in a plain (red top) vacuum tube and allowed to clot produces:
serum
How much sodium chloride is required to produce 5 L of 0.85% saline solution?
42.5 mg
The blood chemistry unit of measurement for the electrolytes - sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and chloride is….
mEq/L
What stain is referred to as a supra vital stain?
New methylene blue
Where is the storage pool of granulocytes found?
bone marrow
Reticulocytes are never found in the peripheral blood of…
horses
Reticulocytes are reported as…
%
If you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count?
4%
In a blood smear of a horse which of these is an artifact? A. Agglutination B. Crenation C. Rouleaux D. Schistocyte
Crenation
What structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells?
nucleolus
What nucleated erythrocyte is the first one you’ll see in peripheral blood if an animal has used all of its reserves of mature erythrocytes in bone marrow?
metarubricyte
When using the 100x oil-immersion lens with the standard 10x ocular, what is the magnification of cells observed through the microscope?
1000x
Where does neutrophil production take place in a health adult sheep?
red bone marrow
What volume of water must be added to 12.5 ml of a 6% stock solution to produce a 0.5% solution?
137.5 ml
Which of these cells is the most immature? A. Rubricyte B. Metarubricyte C. Prorubricyte D. Reticulocyte
prorubricyte
An erythrocyte that does not contain its full amount of hemoglobin will appear as _______ on a stained peripheral blood smear.
Hypochromasia
T killer cells function to…
recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them
In most areas of the world rats are the reservoir host of the plague organism. However, in the Western United States, the most common species harboring this organism is…
prarie dogs
Flotation solutions usually have a specific gravity between…
1.200 and 1.250
Which of the following is not a fecal flotation solution?
sodium sulfate
A puppy with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heart worm microfilariae until it is __________ old.
6 to 7 months
Which stage of a tick life cycle has six legs?
larval
A flea is the intermediate host for…
Diplidium caninum
The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is…
Hypoderma species
The ruminant parasite also known as the hookworm is…
Bunostomum species.
The parasite that matures in the lungs is…
Dictyocaulus species
The parasite also known as a liver fluke is…
Fasciola species
All of the following are assessed in a routine urinalysis, except
Blood urea nitrogen
What cells respond more quickly to a second antigen exposure than to the initial exposure?
Memory B cells
