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VTNE Prep > All Questions > Flashcards

All Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Decresed function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransofrmation of most drugs?

A

liver

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2
Q

A prescription reads ‘2 tab q4h po pen until gone’. The translation of these instructions is

A

Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hours by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone

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3
Q

What is the ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic dose of a drug and is used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment?

A

Therapeutic index

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4
Q

Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators?
A. They prevent the female from laying eggs
B. They effectively kill all adult stages.
C. They prevent replication with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals.
D. They are neurotoxic to mammals.

A

They prevent replication with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals.

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5
Q

A 50 lb. dogs is to be given 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams are to be given?

A

22.7 mg

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6
Q

A 3 mo. old Chow Chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of warfarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be most useful to treat this toxicity?

A

Vitamin K

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7
Q 
What drug is not an NSAID?
A. Predinone
B. Flunixin meglumine
C. Phenylbutazone.
D. Aspirin
A

Prednisone

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8
Q

You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. You are very sure the veterinarian will not be using what tranquilizer for this procedure?

A

Acepromazine

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9
Q

Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for the use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety?

A

Clomicalm

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10
Q

How many milliliters of a 50% dextrose solution are needed to make 100 ml of a 5% dextrose solution?

A

100

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11
Q

The primary function of insulin is to do what?

A

Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells.

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12
Q 
Which of the following drugs is considered a biologic response modifier?
A. Interferon
B. Streptokinase
C. Cephalosporin
D. EDTA
A

Interferon

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13
Q

Th number of species of bacteria that are affected by an antibiotic is known as the antibiotic’s what?

A

Spectrum

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14
Q

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub of the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on what?

A

Combination of contact time and scrubbing action

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15
Q

Which of the following statements would be false after serious oral surgery, such as a mandibular fracture repair or oral nasal tumor resection?
A. The patient may refuse to eat.
B. The patient may needed a gastrostomy tube.
C. The patient may refuse to drink.
D. The patient will no longer be in pain.

A

The patient will no longer be in pain.

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16
Q

If a prescription call for one tablet to be given for 3 days bid, then one tablet for 5 days sid, then one half tablet given every other day for 2 weeks, who many tablets should be dispensed?

A

15

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17
Q 
A semi-permanent feeding tube may be placed in any of the following ways except...
A. Through the nose
B. Through a pharyngostomy site
C. Through a gastrostomy site
D. Through the mouth.
A

Through the mouth

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18
Q

Proptosis of the globe…
A. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
B. Is not considered an emergency.
C. Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds.
D. Is most commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis.

A

Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

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19
Q

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technical should do all of the following except…
A. Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument
B. Pass the instrument in the open position
C. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon’s hand
D. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon’s hand with the concave side up

A

Pass the instrument in open position

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20
Q 
A chest tube is placed when an animal has...
A. Subcutaneous emphysema
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Ascites
D. Pneumothorax
A

Pneumothorax

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21
Q 
A declaw is also known as an
A. Orchidectomy
B. Onychectomy
C. Ovariohysterectomy
D. Onychotomy
A

Onychectomy

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22
Q 
Which of the following forceps has the most crushing action?
A. Rochester-Carmalt
B. Rochester-Pean
C. Ochsner
D. Crile
A

Rochester-Carmalt

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23
Q

What suture pattern is commonly used to close the sin of cattle following a rumenotomy?

A

Continuous horizontal mattress

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24
Q

What is an important measure that can help prevent myositis during equine surgery?

A

Providing proper padding

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25
Q

A dog consumes five bowls of water in a 24 hour period. Each bowl contains 100 ml. If you collect 475 ml of urine over the same 24 hour period approximately how many milliliters constitute insensible loss?

A

25

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26
Q 
Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissor?
A. Mayo
B. Metzenbaum
C. Iris
D. Lembert
A

Lembert

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27
Q 
Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an overiohysterectomy?
A. Decreased heart rate.
B. Pale mucous membranes
C. Slow recovery from anesthesia
D. Slow capillary refill time
A

Decreased heart rate

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28
Q

Using the dissection method, which parts of the distal forelimb are removed in an onychectomy?

A

Distal phalanx and nail

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29
Q 
Anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the...
A. Elbow
B. Stifle
C. Hip
D. Hock
A

Stifle

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30
Q 
If a fracture is found on the proximal part of the tibia, it is...
A. Distal to the femur
B. Proximal to the femur
C. In the middle of the bone
D. Distal to the metatarsus
A

Distal to the femur

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31
Q

Which of the following is not a primary concern when assisting a surgeon performing a pyometra surgery?
A. Providing preoperative and intraoperative antibiotics for the patient
B. Genel handling of the febrile tissue to prevent rupture
C. Fluid therapy to diurese the kidneys
D. Lidocaine infusion to prevent venricular arrythmias

A

Lidocaine infusion to prevent venricular arrythmias

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32
Q 
What drug is in the same class as thiopental?
A. Ketamine
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Atropine
A

Phenobarbital

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33
Q

Which statement regarding first intention wound healing is false?
A. It occur without infection
B. It occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition
C. It usually has some degree of suppuration
D. It occurs with minimal scar formation

A

It usually has some degree of suppuration

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34
Q

An anesthesia machine is set to deliver 1 L/min oxygen and 3% isoflurane. Approximately how many vaporized milliliters of isoflurane will be used for a 1-hour procedure?

A

1800

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35
Q

What items should personnel wear when entering the operation room?

A

cap, mask, booties, and clean scrubs or gown

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36
Q

Metzenbaum scissors are used only for what?

A

cutting tissue

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37
Q

In general, the difference between disinfectant and an antiseptic is what.

A

Disinfectants are a agents used on inanimate objects and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue.

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38
Q

How can you help prevent “strike through” during surgery?

A

make sure sharp instruments are protected so they do not puncture the wrap and cause contamination

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39
Q

The agent used in gas sterilization is what?

A

Ethylene oxide

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40
Q 
A Buhner needle is used...
A. In repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses
B. In enucleations on dogs
C. In intestinal anastomosis surgeries
D. In orthopedic sugeries
A

In repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses

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41
Q

What does the medical term ovariohysterectomy mean?

A

removal of the ovaries and uterus only

42
Q

A pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long?

A

6 to 7 weeks

43
Q

Which of the following best describes the location of an incision through the skin and line alba extending from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus?

A

ventral midline

44
Q

The term that means “surgically opening the abdominal cavity” is….

A

laparotomy

45
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

hospital-squired infection

46
Q

What is the proper term for microorganisms that gain entrance into an incision during a surgical procedure?

A

contamination

47
Q 
What is the significance of ventral midline surgical wound dehiscence of ht muscle, subcutaneous tissue and skin layers?
A. Emergency
B. Cosmetic only
C. Minor significance
D. Serous but not an emergency
A

Emergency

48
Q

You have an injectable calcium solution that is 30 mg/ml. How many milliliters would you add to 1 L of lactated Ringers solution to deliver 4 mg/hr of calcium at a rate of 30 ml/hr?

A

4.4

49
Q

Why is a recent surgical wound usually slightly warmer than the surrounding normal tissues?

A

inflammation

50
Q

What is the purpose of using a subcuticular suture pattern for a final closure?

A

to keep tissues apposed for quick healing

51
Q

What teeth on each side of the mouth on a dog have three roots?

A

maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molar

52
Q

The level of clid in the 1L IV bag reads halfway between the 4 and 5 marks. How much fluid remains in the bag?

A

550

53
Q

The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the….

A

buccal surfaces of upper cheek teeth

54
Q

You have an instrument in your hands that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a…

A

universal curette

55
Q

To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should….

A

use contestant irrigation

56
Q

Another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is…

A

feline external odontoclastic resporptive lesions

57
Q

For dental radiography of the canine tooth of a cat, you should use what size of dental film to ensure that the whole tooth is included?

A

2

58
Q

The following statements are all true except…
A. Sulcus depth is measure using the probe
B. A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat
C. A sulcus depth greater then 3 mm indicates periodontal disease

A

A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat

59
Q

The furcation is best described as..

A

The space between two roots where they meet they meet the crown

60
Q

A biopsy report confined that an oral mass is an acanthomaus epulis. What can be said about this growth?

A

It is a nonmalignant tumor

61
Q

When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed what is the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed?

A

Tooth extraction or pulp capping

62
Q

The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus?

A

maxillary

63
Q

The instrument used to measure pocket depth is a periodontal…

A

probe

64
Q

Prevention of periodontal disease involves all of the following except…
A. Daily teeth brushing or mouth rinsing
B. Regular exercise
C. Routine professional scaling and polishing

A

regular exercise

65
Q

What is the proper dilution of chlohexidine solution for use in the mouth?

A

0.2%

66
Q

What tooth has three roots?

A

upper fourth premolar

67
Q

What term identifies the instrument used for removal of supragingival calculus?

A

scaler

68
Q

A monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as…

A

cells with no overlapping or touching

69
Q

If the potassium is labeled 5 mEq/5ml, how many milliequivalents of potassium are delivered in 2 ml?

A

2.0 mEq

70
Q 
Which of these cells is not an epithelial cell type found in urine sediment?
A. Squamous
B. Transitional
C. Renal
D. Trigeminal
A

trigeminal

71
Q

What anticoagulant is the first choice for coagulation studies?

A

sodium citrate

72
Q

Centrifuging blood that has been collected in a plain (red top) vacuum tube and allowed to clot produces:

A

serum

73
Q

How much sodium chloride is required to produce 5 L of 0.85% saline solution?

A

42.5 mg

74
Q

The blood chemistry unit of measurement for the electrolytes - sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and chloride is….

A

mEq/L

75
Q

What stain is referred to as a supra vital stain?

A

New methylene blue

76
Q

Where is the storage pool of granulocytes found?

A

bone marrow

77
Q

Reticulocytes are never found in the peripheral blood of…

A

horses

78
Q

Reticulocytes are reported as…

A

%

79
Q

If you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count?

A

4%

80
Q 
In a blood smear of a horse which of these is an artifact?
A. Agglutination
B. Crenation
C. Rouleaux
D. Schistocyte
A

Crenation

81
Q

What structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells?

A

nucleolus

82
Q

What nucleated erythrocyte is the first one you’ll see in peripheral blood if an animal has used all of its reserves of mature erythrocytes in bone marrow?

A

metarubricyte

83
Q

When using the 100x oil-immersion lens with the standard 10x ocular, what is the magnification of cells observed through the microscope?

A

1000x

84
Q

Where does neutrophil production take place in a health adult sheep?

A

red bone marrow

85
Q

What volume of water must be added to 12.5 ml of a 6% stock solution to produce a 0.5% solution?

A

137.5 ml

86
Q 
Which of these cells is the most immature?
A. Rubricyte
B. Metarubricyte
C. Prorubricyte
D. Reticulocyte
A

prorubricyte

87
Q

An erythrocyte that does not contain its full amount of hemoglobin will appear as _______ on a stained peripheral blood smear.

A

Hypochromasia

88
Q

T killer cells function to…

A

recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them

89
Q

In most areas of the world rats are the reservoir host of the plague organism. However, in the Western United States, the most common species harboring this organism is…

A

prarie dogs

90
Q

Flotation solutions usually have a specific gravity between…

A

1.200 and 1.250

91
Q

Which of the following is not a fecal flotation solution?

A

sodium sulfate

92
Q

A puppy with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heart worm microfilariae until it is __________ old.

A

6 to 7 months

93
Q

Which stage of a tick life cycle has six legs?

A

larval

94
Q

A flea is the intermediate host for…

A

Diplidium caninum

95
Q

The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is…

A

Hypoderma species

96
Q

The ruminant parasite also known as the hookworm is…

A

Bunostomum species.

97
Q

The parasite that matures in the lungs is…

A

Dictyocaulus species

98
Q

The parasite also known as a liver fluke is…

A

Fasciola species

99
Q

All of the following are assessed in a routine urinalysis, except

A

Blood urea nitrogen

100
Q

What cells respond more quickly to a second antigen exposure than to the initial exposure?

A

Memory B cells

VTNE Prep (1 decks)

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