All Questions Flashcards

1
Q

hyperphalangism

A

inc. # of phalanges

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2
Q

brachydactyly

A

abnormal shortness of toes

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3
Q

syndactyly

A

fusion or fleshy webbing b/w digits in hands or feet

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4
Q

hemimelia

A

absence of all or part of the distal limb, the proximal limb is normal

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5
Q

amelia

A

congenital ABSENCE of limb or limbs

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6
Q

phocomelia

A

congenital absence of the proximal limbs, such as hands or feet that are attached to the trunk by an anomolous segment

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7
Q

sympodia

A

fusion of the lower extremities

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8
Q

polydactyly

A

presence of supernumerary digits on the hands or feet

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9
Q

most deformed bone in clubfoot deformity

A

Talus

  • the foot is rotated medially beneath the talus
  • head of talus is palpable on lateral aspect of dorsum of the foot (due to inward/backward displacement of the navicular)
  • head of the talus is adducted and plantarflexed (*head of the talus is most deformed bone)
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10
Q

mechanical methods of hemostasis

A
  • direct pressure
  • vessel ligation (sutures, staples, ligating clips)
  • bone wax
  • tourniquet application
  • compressive dressings
  • acrylates
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11
Q

acrylates

A

adhere to the tissue and provide a mechanical blockage of hemorrhage

(mechanical method of hemostasis)

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12
Q

aluminum chloride hexahydrate:

use

A
  • chemical cautery solutions to control bleeding after minor surgical procedures
  • cause hemostasis by precipitating proteins in the tissues and occluding smaller vessels

Others include: ferric subsulfate solution and silver nitrate

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13
Q

thermal/energy methods of hemostasis

A
  • electrosurgery (high-frequency alternating current for cutting, coag, and vaporizing tissues)
  • ultrasonic devices
  • lasers
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14
Q

chemical methods/topical

methods of hemostasis

A
  • pharmacologic agents
  • topical hemostatic products
  • passive hemostasis
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15
Q

pharmacologic agents

for hemostasis

A
  • epinephrine
  • vitamin K
  • protamine
  • desmopressin
  • lysine analogues
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16
Q

topical hemostatic products

A
  • passive
    • e.g. bovine collagen, cellulose, porcine gelatins, polysaccharide spheres
  • active
    • topical thrombins
    • e.g. bovine, pooled human plasma, recombinant
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17
Q

in lateral projection of foot, which structure is targeted by the x-ray beam?

A

third to fifth metatarsal bases

  • Film cassette is placed vertically, one-half of the exposable portion of the orthoposer slot
  • medial aspect of the foot is next to the film and the opposite in angle and base of gait
  • tube is angled 90 degrees from vertical or perpendicular to the cassette and targeted at 3-5 met bases
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18
Q

what is the talar neck view

on x-ray called?

A

modified AP (Canale, Kelly)

  • helpful to assess degree of fx displacement and adequacy of reduction
  • best to demonstrate talar neck, varus angulation, and medial malposition or dorsal displacement of the neck
  • lateral border rotated 15 degrees off table
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19
Q

what agents are BEST for use in

PMMA antibiotic beads?

A

vancomycin and aminoglycosides (gentamycin, tobramycin, cefazolin)

  • broad spectrum of activity
  • low incidence of rxn
  • heat stability
  • extensive research
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20
Q

what agents can be used with PMMA antibiotic beads?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • vancomycin
  • cefazolin, cefotetan, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime
  • penicillin V
  • nafcillin
  • amoxicillin
  • ticarcillin, piperacillin
  • doxycycline
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21
Q

if patient has elevated liver enzymes pre-op,

which anesthetic has lowest liver metabolism?

A

Desflurane

*in clinical practice, patients with end-stage liver disease are most commonly treated with nitrous oxide gas, isoflurane, desflurane, and sevoflurane

22
Q

which anesthetic agents have the HIGHEST liver metabolism?

(and should be avoided in patients with end-stage liver disease)

A

Halothane has the highest liver metabolism

23
Q

large D-shaped osseous structure adjacent to navicular tuberosity with cartilaginous attachment b/w accessory navicular and tuberosity;

what is the classification based on Lawson?

A

Type 2

(type 2 accessory navicular is larger, semi-circular in shape, and lies immediately next to tuberosity)

24
Q

Lawson classification

A

differentiates the various forms of accessory navicular

types I-III

25
Q

hx and MOI of:

peroneal subluxation and traumatic rupture of peroneal retinaculum

A

rapid forced dorsiflexion of the inverted foot -→ leads to superior peroneal retinaculum tear

  • pain lateral aspect of ankle, heard sound
  • palpable cord w/ forced inversion & DF of ankle lateral to lateral mall
  • xrays are negative
26
Q

if xrays are negative following suspected tendon injury, what next?

A

MRI without contrast of left lower extremity

27
Q

where are macrovascular occlusive lesions more likely to be found in diabetics, as compared to non-diabetics?

A

Tibial arteries

  • in diabetics, occlusive lesions commonly involve the infragenicular (tibial) arteries
28
Q

where are macrovascular occlusive lesions more likely to be found in non-diabetic patients?

A

more likely to have occlusive lesions involving the superficial femoral or popliteal arteries

29
Q

sniffing position

A

extend the head and flex the neck

  • best position to place the patient’s head & neck into for anesthesia
  • allows for alignment and is easiest to position the laryngoscope
30
Q

if you don’t hear breath sounds after intubating a patient,

what is the most likely cause?

A

if you hear no breath sounds, you are most likely intubated in the esophagus

If you hear breath sounds, but only on the right and not the left -→ you are most likely in the R main stem bronchi

31
Q

proper intubation aims for which level?

A

placed into the windpipe (trachea) through the mouth or nose

32
Q

HPI:

painful “growth” following a trauma over a year ago;

cancellous bone growing from base of DP w/o destructive changes

A

subungual exostosis

  • bony growth most commonly found on hallux
  • MC in young adults, often assoc w/ hx of trauma or infxn
  • radiographically appear as cancellous bone growth w/o destructive changes
33
Q

subungual osteochondroma:

radiographic presentation

A

appear as confluent w/ that of the underlying bone

  • rare, benign bony tumor that usually involves the phalanges of the toes or fingers
  • MC in adolescents
34
Q

bone marrow signal changes on MRI in:

osteomyelitis

A
  • LOW signal on T1
  • HIGH signal on T2 and STIR

same changes as in ACUTE neuroarthropathy

35
Q

bone marrow signal changes in:

chronic neuroarthropathy

A

Normal/Low signals on both T1 and T2

differentiates from acute neuroarthropathy & OM, which have high signals on T2 & STIR

36
Q

what angle for AP radiograph?

A

AP radiograph requires an angle of ~10-15° to be perpendicular to the metatarsals;

  • dorsiplantar projection
  • central ray parallel to medial and intermediate cuneiform and medial lisfranc joint space
  • high arch requires >15 degree angle
37
Q

hypothyroidism

(elevated TSH, dec. T4 and T3)

is characterized by:

A
  • bradycardia
  • cold intolerance
  • lethargy and fatigue
  • weight gain (despite decreased appetite)
  • constipation
38
Q

what is an alternative to ankle fusion

in the case of a severely arthritic ankle?

A

ankle arthrodiastasis

39
Q

ankle arthrodiastasis

A
  • an effective joint-sparing technique indicated for end-stage ankle arthritis;
  • generally better for younger individuals in 20-40s
40
Q

contraindications for

ankle arthrodiastasis

A
  • active infection
  • vascular impaired limb
  • poor soft tissue envelope
  • significant planar deformities
41
Q

vascular pattern in children

A

does NOT penetrate the growth plate, therefore blood-borne organisms CANNOT cross into the epiphysis of the tubular bone

therefore in hematogenous OM in a child, only the diaphysis and metaphysis are affected

42
Q

lag effect:

3 criteria

A
  1. screw in the near fragment (threaded or non-threaded), must glide freely in the near side screw hole w/o engaging the bone
  2. threads in far side fragment screw hole must continue to progress thru the bone as screw turns and must firmly grip the bone w/o stripping
  3. advancement of the head of the screw must be solidly arrested on surface of NEAR side
43
Q

peroneus longus tendon transfer:

procedure

A

involves severing peroneus longus tendon as it crosses over cuboid bone → transferring it under extensor retinaculum to the region of the 3rd cuneiform → distal remnant of the peroneus longus is then tenodesed into peroneus brevis

44
Q

peroneus longus tendon transfer:

indications

A
  • peroneus longus overdrive
    • due to a sub-first metatarsal diabetic foot ulcer
  • anterior muscle group weakness or paralysis
  • drop foot
  • chronically varus unstable ankle w/ anterolateral dislocation of the talus, resulting in chronic peroneal dysfunction
45
Q

total ankle arthroplasty:

absolute contraindications

A
  • high physical demands
  • poor vascular status
  • significant neuropathy
  • infection
  • neuromuscular deficits
  • avascular necrosis of the talar body
  • chronic pain syndrome
  • noncompliance
46
Q

total ankle arthroplasty:

indications

A
  • patients who have an adequate bone stock
  • intact neurovascular status
  • neutral ankle alignment
  • intact deltoid ligaments
  • not immunosuppressed
47
Q

total ankle arthroplasty:

relative contraindications

A
  • obese patient (the increased forces make it prone to failure)
  • poor bone stock
  • immunosuppression
  • smoking
  • ankle malalignment
  • history of septic arthritis
  • diabetes
48
Q

dropfoot caused by Charcot-Marie-Tooth:

best tendon for transfer?

A

tibialis posterior

considered a “workhorse” tendon in cavus foot deformity (one of the last to atrophy); by transferring tendon through interosseous membrane to dorsum of the foot, supination is decreased and foot can actively dorsiflex

49
Q

pre-operative EKG is recommended for which patients?

A

those with intermediate risk surgical procedures when patient has at least 1 known risk factor;

risk factors include: cerebrovascular disease, CHF, creatine levels > 2.0 mg/dL, insulin-dependent DM, or ischemic cardiac disease

50
Q

what foot type can be caused by an accessory navicular?

A

flexible flatfoot

(increase in hindfoot valgus)

51
Q

life-threatening risk factor with IM nailing

A

fat embolism