all of it Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

5 primary movements

A
bend and lift
single leg
push
pull
rotational movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

associative

A

begin to master the movement after cognitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

muscular strength v muscular endurance

A

weight v reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

blood pressure numbers

A
systolic/diastolic 
less then 120 normal
120-29 elevated
130-9 stage 1
140-49 stage 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ATP

A

type 1, slow twitch muscles, low intestine endurance muscles, hypertrophy occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ADP

A

type 2 muscles, fast twitch, anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

heart rates

A
20 years	100-170 beats per minute (bpm)	200 bpm
30 years	95-162 bpm	190 bpm
35 years	93-157 bpm	185 bpm
40 years	90-153 bpm	180 bpm
45 years	88-149 bpm	175 bpm
50 years	85-145 bpm	170 bpm
55 years	83-140 bpm	165 bpm
60 years	80-136 bpm	160 bpm
65 years	78-132 bpm	155 bpm
70 years	75-128 bpm	150 bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

average RHR

A

60-70 males, 72-80 females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cognitive

A

beginner. before associative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BMI

A
less then 18 underweight
18-24.5 normal
25-29.9 obese
20-34.9 obese 1
35-39.9 obese 2
greater then 40 iii

calculated by (weight in pounds x 703) / (height in inches x height in inches).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BODY fat

A

essential 2 to 5 in men 10 to 13 for women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

saggitall plane

A
body moves front and back
flexion and extension 
back squat
bicep curl
lunges
walking, running, jumps, calf raises, stairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

frontal plane

A

body moves from side to side
lateral arm/leg raises
adduction and abduction of should, hip
side shuffle, side lunge, side band, inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

transverse plan

A

rotations, twists, limb rotations, bench press, push ups, back flys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

elasticity

A

ballistic and dynamic stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

plasticity

A

static stretch. effective with poor posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

viscosity

A

completely dependent on time and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

self efficiency most strong affected by

A

past performance experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the following best describes perception that they can do the task

A

confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pursue welfare of client

A

compassion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dysnepea

A

shortness of breath with little exertion or at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

leptin

A

stored in fat cells. Facilitate energy intake when energy stores is low. Loves fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

500 to 1,000Kcals

A

recommended for dietary loss of 1 to 2 lbs a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Protein intake amounts

A

1.2 to 1.8 in grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

talk test

A

cardio calc in obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

150 to 250

A

weekly exercise time for maintenance. 250 to 300 for weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

intensity

A

associated muscle injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SOAP

A

Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Muscular training plan

A

2-3x a week F, 60-70% 1RM 8-12repsx2-4sets (Intensity) 20-30 mins (T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

new client, low risk, new muscle training

A

use free weights, 40-60 of 1rm, one set all major muscle groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

osteoarthritis muscular plan

A

2-3 days, 50-80%1RM, 2-4sets by 8-12 reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

primary goal around rheumatoid arthritis

A

strengthen muscles around affected joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ppl with arthritis

A

prone to cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

osteoporosis muscular training

A

3-4 days a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

duration of training for metabolic syndrome with goal of weight loss

A

50-60 mins per session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pregnant woman exercise time

A

150 mins over 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

aerobic intensity for older adults

A

5-6 moderate intensity, 7-8 vigorous intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ballistic stretching

A

push beyond comfort. Avoided in older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

static stretch

A

cool down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

passive stretch

A

relaxed. outside agent does the stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

dynamic stretch

A

active stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

bird dog

A

used for lateral muscles in the back to promote stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

knee function

A

address imbalances between left and right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

golfers elbow

A

causes pain where the tendons of your forearm muscles attach to the bony bump on the inside of your elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tennis elbow

A

pain on outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

median nerve

A

compromised during tunnel carpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

dyslipidemia

A
high cholesterol 
below 100 optional
100-129 good
130-159 iffy
160-189 high
190 go kill yourself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

FAST

A
stroke:
Facial freezing
arm can't move
Speech
Time to call 911
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

REE is what percentage of TEE

A

60 to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Waist To Hip Ratio

A

divide waist by hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

training tempos

A

6 seconds

52
Q

mcGill test

A

hip flexor endurance test

53
Q

thomas test

A

hip flexor flexibility

54
Q

dorsiflexion

A

foot up

55
Q

plantar flexion

A

food down

56
Q

android

A

WHR masculine

57
Q

Gynoid

A

WHR pear

58
Q

BMI

A

weight divided by height xheight X703

59
Q

Karvonen formula

A

target heart rate

60
Q

glycogen

A

stored in fat and liver

61
Q

goniometer measures

A

range of movement

62
Q

OARS

A

open ended questions, affirmation, reflective listening, summarizing

63
Q

Transtherorical method of behavior change TTM

A
  1. stages of change
  2. process of change
    3 self-efficacy
    4 decisional balance
64
Q

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?

A

investigative stage

65
Q

Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?

A

rapport

66
Q

Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?

A

investigative

67
Q

What can submaximal cycle ergometer testing predict?

A

VO2

68
Q

According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?

A

static posture

69
Q

n which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle?

A

preparation

70
Q

Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage of change is your client in?

A

precompenplation

71
Q

Which of the following is an example of what is generally measured in a physiologic assessment?

A

resting vital signs and joint flexibility

72
Q

During initial assessments, a client’s pulse can be manually taken at all of the following locations except:

A
Radial artery	
	b. Carotid artery	
	c. Dorsalis pedis	
check
	d. Pulmonary artery.    Answer is D
73
Q

When prescribing static stretches during a resistance training workout, when should the static stretches be performed?

A

after the workout

74
Q

resistance training at what percent

A

80 percent of 1RM

75
Q

what rep scheme to increase multiple effort power

A

3-5

76
Q

what is the rest period for muscular endurance

A

30 seconds or less

77
Q

what is the rest period to build strength

A

2 to 5 mins

78
Q

proximal stability

A

think of it as a chain

79
Q

as you progress from intermediate to advance what phenomena occurs

A

diminishing returns

80
Q

What intensity should aerobic exercise be prescribed at for individuals with type II diabetes

A

50 to 80 percent

81
Q

Where should you spot a dumbbell movement

A

at the wrists

82
Q

primary biological purpose of Leptin

A

facilitate energy intake when energy storage is too low

83
Q

recommended protein intake

A

.8 per kilogram

84
Q

which section of SOAP would be most appropriate to document a clients reporting of their own fitness levels as well as your notes

A

Assessment

85
Q

low risk coronary artery disease client wants to muscular train. what is their schedule?

A

free weights/40-60% of RM, one set of exercises for all major muscle groups

86
Q

what range for stage 2 hypertension

A

140/82

87
Q

muscular training for a person with osteoporosis

A

1-2 non consecutive days/week

88
Q

exercise induced brochioconstrition

A

temp narrowing of airways during moderate to vigorous exercise

89
Q

client has lower back pain with a goal of targeting lateral muscles in the torso

A

side bridge

90
Q

risk management approach to modify the risk of by removing part of the activity

A

reduction

91
Q

which biz practice puts a facility at risk of improperly categorizing personal trainers as independent contractors?

A

requiring personal trainers to follow same assessment and programming procedures

92
Q

personal trainers who practice outside, etc should get what kind of insurance?

A

specific insurance rider

93
Q

what is a characteristic of an independent contractor

A

serves multiple corporate clients or entities

94
Q

the following must be established to substantiate negligence

A

proximate causation

95
Q

erector spinae

A

deadlifts, back squats. prone lifts

96
Q

PARQ

A

The PAR-Q+ is a 7-step questionnaire for use with persons of all ages. It screens for evidence of risk factors during moderate physical activity and reviews family history and disease severity. If a person answers yes to one or more questions, the individual should complete a thorough follow-up of medical questions and consult a physician about beginning physical activity.

97
Q

increase awareness of lapses and bolster self efficacy

A

action stage

98
Q

kyphotic posture

A

rounding of back due to inhibited scaps

99
Q

static holds/movements

A

good regressions stabilizes and mimics movement

100
Q

mccill torso test

A

The trunk extensor endurance test is generally used to assess muscular endurance of the torso extensor muscles (i.e., erector spinae, longissimus, iliocostalis, and multifidi). This is a timed test involving a static, isometric contraction of the trunk extensor muscles that stabilize the spine.

Core Stabilizer exercises

101
Q

linear periodization

A

Linear periodization is the gradual progression model that slowly increases volume and intensity over-time throughout a mesocycle. You would accomplish this by increasing your load, volume, or intensity variables every 1 to 4 weeks, allowing your body to adapt in a safe and consistent manner.

102
Q

Nonlinear Periodization Model (Undulating

A

Example: a weightlifter following a nonlinear periodization program would perform a barbell squat two times a week. The first day he would complete sets 4 sets of 5 repetitions (of a weight that is 87% of his 1 repetition max) to accomplish strength goals. His second day he would complete 3 sets of 12 repetitions (of a weight that is 67% of his 1 repetition maximum) to accomplish hypertrophy goals.

103
Q

supersets

A

2 or more movements with little to no rest between

104
Q

double progression muscular training protocol

A

first phase is adding reps. 2nd phase is adding resistance in increments of 5 percent

105
Q

higher altitudes require

A

longer warm up and cool downs

106
Q

water intake

A

10 oz per lb

107
Q

heat stroke v heat exhaustion

A

stroke - hot dry skin with rapid pulse

108
Q

valsalva maneuver

A

breathing in a way to lower your heart rate

109
Q

quad to hammie ratio

A

2:3

110
Q

how long btw sets for muscular fitness

A

2-3 mins

111
Q

set times

A

2-3 muscular fitness
30-60 for hypertrophy
30 secs for endurance
3-5 for strength/power

112
Q

four assessments made

A

hese assessments are divided into four categories: anthropometric measurements (body size or body composition), cardiovascular assessments, muscular fitness assessments, and sport-skills assessments.

113
Q

authentic

A

Autogenic inhibition involves stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ (GTO) during a muscular contraction. The GTO is a proprioceptor responsible for sensing increases in tension during both concentric and eccentric actions. Performing a muscular action activates the GTO causing that muscle’s fibers (specifically, the agonist’s fibers) to relax. Under GTO activation, the agonist muscle is inhibited causing the fibers to lengthen.

an example would be static stretching

114
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

Reciprocal inhibition involves stimulation of the muscle spindle during the stretching of muscle fibers. The muscle spindle wraps around the muscle fibers in a parallel fashion and will stretch as muscle fibers stretch. When a muscle group is stretched, the muscle spindle activates causing the stretched muscle (agonist) to contract and the antagonist muscle group to relax. Reciprocal inhibition is also known as the stretch reflex.

115
Q

Golgi Tendon Organ

A

opposite of muscle spindle. Golgi allows the stretch. Muscle spindle retracts

116
Q

PNF

A

proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF). PNF is a stretching practice that promotes the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle. A practical example of this method is to produce a low-grade (50% of maximum force) contraction within a muscle for six to 15 seconds immediately before having a partner passively stretch the muscle. The pre-stretch contraction reduces muscle spindle activity within its associated muscle (the muscle that is about to be stretched) so that the brain more willingly accepts an increase in range of motion during the impending stretch.

117
Q

muscle spindles

A

sense muscle stretch. causes muscle activation. contraction

118
Q

Golgi tendon

A

sense muscle tension or stretch. Can sense tendon stretching. tries to protect the muscle. Let’s the muscle relax

119
Q

Phosphagen

A

as well as during short-term high-intensity activities lasting about 1 to 30 seconds in duration, such as sprinting, weight-lifting or throwing a ball.

120
Q

Anaerobic

A

requiring large bursts of energy over somewhat longer periods of time (30 seconds to three minutes max,

121
Q

aerobic

A

onger-duration, lower-intensity activities after the phosphagen and anaerobic systems have fatigued.

122
Q

Submaximal Talk Test for VT1

A

Submaximal Talk Test for VT1 is a formal assessment used to determine heart rate at VT1. This test requires preparation and equipment and continuous monitoring of heart rate to avoid missing VT1. T

123
Q

talk test

A

informal. on treadmill/bike. conversation. for rates of RPE

124
Q

closed kinetic chain

A

fixed. push up

125
Q

open kinetic

A

isolated movement. not fixed.