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BMS 300 all exams > ALL EXAMS > Flashcards

ALL EXAMS Flashcards

1
Q

Epithelial tissue which has a single layer of flattened cells would be described as

A

simple squamous epithelium

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2
Q

Misfolded proteins are detected by chaperone proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum and trigger the endoplasmic reticulum associated protein degradation (ERAD) pathway. In ERAD, misfolded proteins are tagged with ubiquitin and sent _________ for degradation.

A

to proteasomes

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3
Q

When there is an increased mechanical stress on the bones, undifferentiated ________ which high mitotic activity can differentiate into _________.

A

osteogenic cells; osteoblasts

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4
Q

Which of the following characteristics is NOT observed in epithelial tissue?

a) polarity
b) blood vessels
c) regenerative
d) organized in layers

A

Blood vessels

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5
Q

There are a number of steps in bone remodeling. During ______ osteocytes recognize bone that needs to be repaired and can release local factors to stimulate this process

A

origination

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6
Q

The epidermis contains only one sensory receptor that functions to sense ________

A

sustained pressure

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7
Q

Long-distance transport of vesicles from the center of the cell to the cell membrane is carried out by ________.

A

kinesin on microtubules

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8
Q

The elastic tissue found in the external ear is a type of _________, while the elastic tissue found in the walls of arteries is a type of _______.

A

cartilage; dense connective tissue

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9
Q

Which of the following increases the risks of osteoporosis due to a decrease ability to absorb calcium from the intestines?

a) low vitamin D
b) obesity
c) small body frame
d) early malnutrition

A

low vit D

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10
Q

The bones of the skull are examples of _______ bones, which consist of a layer of spongy bone lined on either side by a layer of compact bone. Thus, if the outer layer of a cranial bone fractures, the brain is still protected by the intact inner layer.

A

flat bone

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11
Q

The skeletal system facilitates _______ because long bones connected to muscles function as levers.

A

movement

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12
Q

After the first domain of a transmembrane protein is translocated into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) via the signal recognition particle (SRP) and its receptor (SR), what determines the threatening of subsequent transmembrane domains into the ER membrane

A

hydrophobic domains are moved into the ER membrane via the lateral gate of the translocon

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13
Q

What type of cell junction is connected to the cytoskeleton by actin?

A

Focal adhesion

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14
Q

Mutations in COP 2 will likely affect the transport of vesicles from ______ but will likely not affect the transport of vesicles from _______

A

ER to Golgi apparatus; Golgi apparatus to ER

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15
Q

Which of the following repair mechanism is most likely to result in loss of function in the replaced tissue?

a) regeneration
b) synthesis
c) degradation
d) fibrosis

A

fibrosis

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16
Q

During appositional growth, osteoclasts resorb old bone that lines the medullary cavity, while osteoblasts, via ______ ossification, produce new bone tissue beneath the _______

A

intramembranous; periosteum

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17
Q

Melanocytes are found only in the _______, which is the deepest layer of the epidermis

A

stratum basale

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18
Q

Osteocytes release both RANK ligand (RANKL) and osteoprotegerin (OPG). RANKL-RANK interactions promote bone resorption (breaking down of bone tissue) by triggering the synthesis of _______, whereas RANKL-OPG interactions promote bone formation.

A

osteoclasts

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19
Q

The multiple layers in stratified squamous epithelium in the epidermis and lining the oral cavity ensure ______

A

protection

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20
Q

Intracellular channels permit the electrical and metabolic coupling of the cytoplasm of two adjacent cells in a _______ junction. On the other hand, ________ junctions generally act as a seal between adjacent cells.

A

gap; tight

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21
Q

Which components in areolar connective tissue deform and release water under the mechanical load to absorb shock?

A

proteoglycans

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22
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is least likely to originate in the stratum _______ of the epidermis because there are no living cells in this layer of the epithelium

A

corneum

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23
Q

Connective tissue where either chondrocytes or osteocytes are present is generally classified as:

a) connective tissue proper
b) supporting connective fluid
c) fluid connective tissue
d) loose connective tissue

A

supporting connective tissue

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24
Q

tendons link muscle sto bones. tendons are made up of dense _______ connective tissue where collagen is arranged in parallel fibers

A

regular

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25
Q

During exocytosis, the charged surface of the vesicles will be repelled by the charged surface of the plasma membrane. These repulsive forces are overcome by interactions between the ________ proteins on the vesicles and the _______ proteins on the target membrane, thereby permitting fusion of both phospholipid bilayer.

A

V-Snare; T-Snare

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26
Q

Which of the following bases is unique to ribonucleic acid?

a) uracil
b) adenine
c) cytosine
d) thymine

A

uracil

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT found in a nucleoside

a) nitrogenous base
b) pentose base
c) phosphate
d) all of the above are present in nucleoside

A

phosphate

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28
Q

According to Central Dogma, _______ is generated from translation

A

protein

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29
Q

Translation always starts in the _______

A

cytoplasm

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30
Q

The synthesis and physiological impact of Vitamin D requires the integrated functioning of several organ systems. When UVB radiation from the sun comes into contact with the epidermis of the integumentary system, it converts 7-dehydrocholesterol into D3. D3 is then sent to the liver, which is part of the _______ system. There the D3 is converted into calcidiol, which is sent to the kidneys in the _________ system and converted to calcitriol. Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D and will act on the small intestines to absorb the calcium ions from the ingested food and incorporate those ions into the bones.

A

digestive; urinary

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31
Q

Which hormone released from the parathyroid gland activates osteoclasts activity if there are low calcium levels in the blood?

A

PTH

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32
Q

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) leads to increased release of _______ which stimulates oocyte maturation by influencing the ovarian follicles

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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33
Q

Adipose tissue secretes the hormone __________ to send satiety signals to the brain and increase the rate of metabolism

A

leptin

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34
Q

Damage to the left side of the spinal cord above the level of the legs would cause which of the following clinical symptoms

a) loss of motor function on the right side
b) loss of fine touch sensations on the left side
c) loss of crude touch sensations on the left side
d) loss of crude touch sensations on the left and ride sides

A

b) loss of fine touch sensations on the left side

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35
Q

When would you assume the pineal glad would secrete the highest levels of melatonin

a) 3AM
b) 3PM
c) 12PM
d) 7AM

A

3AM

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36
Q

The corticotropin-releasing hormone (CHR) from the ________ cause the _______ to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) into capillaries, which stimulates the adrenal gland to secrete cortisol and androgens

A

hypothalamus; anterior pituitary gland

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37
Q

In voltage-gated _________ channels, the openings/closing of the _________ gate is determined by changes in the membrane potential while the opening/closing of the ________ gate is determined by randomness to an extent.

A

sodium; activation; inactivation

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38
Q

Hormones that are ________ bind to receptors on the outer surface of the plasma membrane and activate secondary messengers, whereas hormones that are ______ diffuse across the plasma membrane and bind to the receptors inside the cell

options: hydrophilic, amphipathic, hydrophobic

A

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

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39
Q

During the absolute refractory period, an action potential will not ensue regardless of stimulus strength. This is because…

a) inactivation gates for voltage-gated Na+ channels are not yet closed
b) voltage-gated K+ channels are not yet closed
c) inactivation gates for voltage-gated Na+ are closed
d) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels are not yet open

A

inactivation gates for voltage-gated Na+ are closed

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40
Q

The hypothalamus controls the endocrine function of the anterior pituitary through _______ stimulus, whereas it controls the posterior pituitary through humoral and _________ stimuli

A

hormonal; neural

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41
Q

If you encounter a bear on campus, the _______ neurons in the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system may deliver epinephrine to the target organ

A

postganglionic; sympathetic

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42
Q

Sex hormones such as testosterone and estrogen are derived from cholesterol and are classified as _______

A

lipid derivatives

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43
Q

The patellar tendon tap reflex (stretch reflex) is an example of a ________ reflex, whereas the withdraw reflex from painful stimuli is an example of a ______ reflex

A

monosynaptic reflex; polysynaptic reflex

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44
Q

One of the functions of _______ in the CNS is the regulation of neurotransmitter homeostasis, as they uptake synaptically released neurotransmitters, metabolize them, and release their precursors back to neurons.

A

astrocytes

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45
Q

In an _______ axon, an action potential moves along by continuous propagation, so it travels _______ than in a ________ axon

A

unmyelinated; slower; myelinated

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46
Q

Binding of a ligand in the postsynaptic terminal causes the efflux of K+ ions, resulting in an ______

a) action potential
b) excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
c) inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
d) depolarization

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

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47
Q

When a baby suckles at the breast, it triggers the release of oxytocin from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Therefore, a ________ stimuli is responsible for the release of oxytocin

A

neural

48
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) acts on ________ in the adrenal cortex to influences blood glucose levels

A

Zona Fasciculata

49
Q

During the resting membrane potential, ions can move in and out of the cell via ________ channels

A

leak

50
Q

The endocrine system regulates blood phosphate levels. When blood phosphate levels increase, ________ is released by the bones

A

Phosphatonin

51
Q

When epinephrine binds to a G-protein coupled receptor, the binding of ______ to the adenylyl cyclase enzyme will increase the intracellular levels of cAMP

a) G alpha s
b)G alpha i
c) G alpha q
d) all the above

A

G alpha s

52
Q

The endocrine system maintains calcium homeostasis. When blood calcium levels increase, the thyroid gland releases _________; then calcium levels decrease the parathyroid gland releases _________

A

calcitonin; parathyroid hormone

53
Q

Sebaceous glands are examples of ________ exocrine glands because the entire cell ruptures to release the secretion

A

Holocrine

54
Q

Somatomedins stimulates the release of growth hormone inhibitory hormone (GH-IH), which inhibits the release of ________

A

growth hormone -releasing hormone (GH-RH)

55
Q

An action potential allows the sharing of electrochemical impulses between neurons. The first step to generate an action potential is the opening of _________ in the neuronal cell body

A

ligand-gated sodium channels

56
Q

A decrease in blood pressure triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). In the system, ________ increases blood pressure by triggering thirst, causing blood vessels to contract, stimulates the releases of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and stimulates aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

A

Angiotensin 2

57
Q

Blocking ______ sodium and potassium channels can impair the propagation of an action potential along the axon.

A

voltage-gated

58
Q

Using the three-box model of a neuron, what section of the neuron receives information from other neurons?

A

cell body

59
Q

What type of glial cell functions to myelinate axon in the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

oligodendrocytes

60
Q

________ membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated neuron, whereas _________ potential is a temporary and localized change in the membrane potential in the cell body of a neuron

A

resting; graded

61
Q

The slope constructed using the end systolic volume in the PV loop indicates:

A

contractility

62
Q

Jaundice is a yellow coloration of the skin and eyes caused by the buildup of ____.

A

Bilirubin

63
Q

Isotonic concentric contraction occurs when you:

A

Raise a dumbbell by flexing the arm

64
Q

When a person is not starving, ____ would be used as fuel by fast muscle fibers, whereas ____ would be used as fuel by slow muscle fibers.

A

glycogen; fats

65
Q

Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) found on the surface of gram-negative bacteria is an example of ____, which signal the presence of pathogens to the immune system.

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

66
Q

Cardiac output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped through the circulatory system in 1 minute (ml/min). Therefore, C) is inversely associated with _____.

A

heart rate

67
Q

An abnormal antibody is unable to bind to pathogens, but it can be recognized by macrophages. It is most likely that the abnormality in the antibody is in the _____.

A

antigen binding site

68
Q

Cardinal signs of inflammation such as heat, redness, and swelling are mediated by ____ released from mast cells.

A

histamine

69
Q

The cardiac muscle is ____ sensitive to changes in muscle length than the skeletal muscle because it functions in the ____ of the force-length relationship.

A

more; ascending limb

70
Q

Fish-hunting snails inject toxins into their victims that block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction and cause muscle paralysis. The toxin is most likely blocking ___ channels.

A

voltage-gated Ca2+

71
Q

_____ triggers the hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to develop into lymphocytes.

A

GM-CSF

72
Q

_____ are white blood cells (WBC) with a multilobed nucleus which stain with a neutral dye. They arrive first at the site of injury, phagocytose bacteria, and contribute to the formation of pus.

A

Neutrophils

73
Q

Which of the following is common to skeletal and cardiac muscles, but not smooth muscles?

A

troponin-tropomyosin complex

74
Q

During isovolumetric contraction there is no change in volume because the ventricular pressure is ____ than the aortic pressure, but ____ than the atrial pressure.

A

lower; higher

75
Q

In the heart, ____ produce action potentials spontaneously. The resulting signals cause ____ to contract.

A

autorhythmic cells; cardiomyocites

76
Q

The ____ receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava.

A

right atrium

77
Q

The rapid depolarization of the pacemaker cells is due to:

A

Ca2+ channels

78
Q

The autonomic nervous system can ____ heart rate by causing greater ____ of the membrane potential of pacemaker cells.

A

increase; depolarization

79
Q

Abnormal T waves in the EKG can be MOST LIKELY indicative of defects in:

A

ventricular diastole

80
Q

Ca2+ binding to troponin C subunits permits the thin filament to transition from the ____ state.

A

Closed to open

81
Q

During rigor mortis, myosin heads remain bond to actin because ____

A

ATP is unavailable to bind myosin

82
Q

A mutation that inactivates the myosin light chain phosphatase enzyme will likely cause the following im smooth muscles:

A

regulatory light chain will not be dephosphorylated

83
Q

If you want to study how lymphocytes are formed and mature, you would most likely harvest cells from primary lymphoid organs such as ___.

A

Bone marrow

84
Q

Which of the following permits the maximum exchange of substances by slowing blood flow to the greatest extent?

A

Arterioles

85
Q

During the activation of a T helper cell, the binding of interleukin 2 (IL2) to naïve T cells leads to _____.

A

clonal expansion/ proliferation

86
Q

A person with an RQ value of 1.0 is most likely:

A

using glucose to make ATP

87
Q

Which of the following pathological outcomes can occur rapidly and without warning?

A

cardiac arrest

88
Q

Which of the following cells are most directly responsible for innate immunity?

A

macrophages

89
Q

When exercising, the glomerular filtration is under ________ because of the sympathetic fibers that innervate the kidneys

A

neural regulation

90
Q

When there is a drop in blood pressure or low blood volume, the kidneys release _______ to convert angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 1.

A

renin

91
Q

The presence of glucose in the urine may be indicative of a disorder in the:

a) pancreas
b) kidney
c) adrenal gland
d) liver

A

pancreas

92
Q

_______ uses ATP to move molecules against the concentration gradient

A

Active transport

93
Q

Hypocapnia refers to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in atrial blood. When hypocapnia is detected, the respiratory system will respond by DECREASING the rate of ____________

A

diaphragm contraction

94
Q

In the three steps of urine formation in the nephron, blood is filtered in the _________

a) proximal convoluted tubule
b) distal convoluted tubule
c) glomerular capsule
d) papillary duct

A

glomerular capsule

95
Q

Kwashiorkor is characterized by impaired immunity because proteins are unavailable to make ________

A

antibodies

96
Q

Which of the following has the greatest influence on the glomerular filtration rate?

a) capsular hydrostatic pressure
b) glomerular hydrostatic pressure
c) tubular hydrostatic pressure
d) blood colloidal osmotic pressure

A

glomerular hydrostatic pressure

96
Q

A mutation that decreases the release of secretin will most likely result in impaired ________

A

neutralization of acidic chyme

97
Q

The _______ stores urine temporarily and the lumen of this organ is lined by ________ epithelium to permit distension/stretching

a) kidney; simple cuboidal
b) ureter; stratified stratified squamous
c) urethra; stratified squamous
d) bladder; transitional

A

bladder; transitional

98
Q

The _______ is lined with stratified squamous epithelium because it is shared by the digestive and respiratory system

A

oropharynx

99
Q

Breathing in air through the nose rather than the mouth is important because the incoming air will be _________.

a) filtered by the nasal hair
b) humidified
c) warmed
d) all the above

A

all the above

100
Q

________ is a hormone that is synthesized by the alpha cells in the pancreas and it stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

A

Glucagon

101
Q

Saliva has antimicrobial properties due to the presence of ______

A

lysozyme

102
Q

During inspiration, the atmosphere pressure is _______ than pressure in the alveoli. Moreover, the pressure in the alveoli is ________ than pressure in the intrapleural space.

a) greater; lesser
b) lesser; greater
c) greater; greater
d) lesser; lesser

A

greater; greater

103
Q

Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) are produced in the ________ and they carry fat to various tissues in the body

A

liver

104
Q

The rate of gastric emptying will be increased by _______.

a) increased gastric pressure
b) a salty meal
c) a high fat meal
d) a high fiber meal

A

increased gastric pressure

105
Q

______ law helps us understand the relationship between pressure and volume in the lungs when breathing. During inspiration, the volume of the lungs increases which results in lower pressure inside the lungs

a) Boyle’s
b) Henry’s
c) Dalton’s
d) Fick’s

A

Boyle’s

106
Q

_________ pH and ________ temperature would decrease the affinity of oxygen binding to hemoglobin and make more oxygen available in the plasma

options: decreased, increased (in any order)

A

decreased; increased

107
Q

During swallowing the _____ prevents food from entering the trachea

A

epiglottis

108
Q

The brain sends signals to the intercostal muscles located between the ribs via the _______ nerves, allowing for control of breathing

A

intercostal

109
Q

Thinking about food triggers the ______ phase but the ______ phase begins with the bolus enters the stomach

a) cephalic; intestinal
b) cephalic; gastric
c) gastric; intestinal
d) intestinal; gastric

A

cephalic; gastric

110
Q

Countercurrent multiplication occurs in the ________ and thus helps establish the medullary osmotic gradient in the filtrate.

A

nephron loop/ loop of Henle

111
Q

The ______ are found in the respiratory portion of the respiratory system

A

respiratory bronchioles

112
Q

You just started eating a delicious meal. Which of the following biological processes would most likely occur in your body as you eat?

a) gastrin secretions decrease
b) secretions by accessory organs are inhibited
c) intestinal secretions are inhibited
d) salivary amylase breaks down starch in the mouth

A

salivary amylase breaks down starch in the mouth

113
Q

________ is the process of moving waste products and other substances from the peritubular capillaries into the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron

A

tubular secretion

114
Q

The rate of oxygen diffusion across the air-blood barrier is explained by ______ law

a) Boyle’s
b) Henry’s
c) Dalton’s
d) Fick’s

A

Fick’s

BMS 300 all exams (2 decks)

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