All CWI's Flashcards

1
Q

What are the indications for the CT6 splint?

A
  • Middle third femur fractures, including compound.

* Upper two-third tibia fractures, including compound.

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2
Q

What are the contraindications for the CT6

A

• Knee or ankle/foot trauma: May increase pain and worsen other injuries.

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3
Q

What are the precautions for CT6 splinting

A

• Pelvic trauma: Pelvic splinting is a higher clinical priority than splinting of limb factures. Traction splints may apply pressure on the pelvis in order to achieve traction, potentially worsening an injury. Splinting can still be used in pelvic trauma/fracture though
anatomical splinting may be better depending on pelvic injury and severity.

• Realign long bone fractures in as close to normal position as possible.

• Open fractures with exposed bone should be irrigated with a sterile isotonic solution prior to realignment and
splinting.

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4
Q

What is the placement and landmarks for the CT6

A
  • Ischial cap should be in line with the patients illiac crest
  • Ankle hitch should be approx 15cm beyond patients foot
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5
Q

What are the indications of a pelvic splint

A
  • Suspected pelvic fracture.
  • An awake patient complaining of pain to pelvic area including lower back (sacroiliac joint), groin or hips.
  • An unconscious or altered conscious state patient with significant mechanism of injury.
  • In the case of traumatic cardiac arrest, a pelvic splint should be applied as a matter of clinical priority if mechanism of injury is suggestive of a pelvic fracture.
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6
Q

Contraindications of pelvic splint

A

• Impaled object preventing application.

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7
Q

Precautions of pelvic splint

A
  • The pelvic splint should be appropriately sized for the patient. Smaller paediatrics may require a sheet/towel/pillow-case as a pelvic wrap.
  • A traction splint to limbs should not be applied until after the pelvis has been stabilised.
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8
Q

WHere should the pelvic splint be anatomically located?

A

Centred to the greater trochanter.

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9
Q

What are the indications for a rigid c collar

A

• Major trauma patient following blunt force trauma to the head or trunk.

• Any awake patient complaining of traumatic pain to cervical area including neck and/ or upper thoracic area
unable to be spinally cleared using the modified NEXUS criteria.

  • Unconscious or altered conscious patient with a significant mechanism of injury.
  • Neurological deficit or changes.
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10
Q

What are the contraindications for rigid c collar

A
  • Vertebral column unable to be neutrally aligned due to disease or anatomical deformity.
  • Application of the cervical collar causes an increase in pain or neurological symptoms.
  • Unable to size appropriately.
  • Patient non-compliant.
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11
Q

WHat are the precautions for the rigid c collar

A
  • Patients with a history of bone or muscle weakening disease/injury or age >65 years have an increased risk of spinal injury.
  • Patients who are drug or alcohol affected may be difficult to assess and a high index of suspicion is required for potential spinal injury.
  • Patients who are nauseated or vomiting are at risk of aspiration if they are not in a position where they can clear their airway.

• Cervical collars that are poorly applied or do not fit well due to patient anatomical features may expose the
patient to risk of pressure injury. Issues of discomfort from patient should be fully investigated.

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12
Q

Indications for a torniquet

A
  • Uncontrolled haemorrhage from a limb despite direct pressure
  • Multiple casualty scenes where patient numbers dictate that simple haemorrhage control measures cannot be individually applied
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13
Q

Contraindications for a torniquet

A

• Bleeding that can be controlled using basic first aid measures

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14
Q

Precautions for a tourniquet

A
  • Do not apply the tourniquet over a wound or a joint
  • Once applied the tourniquet must be visible – it cannot be covered by any clothing or other bandages
  • This piece of equipment will be deployed in critical situations and requires regular practice to maintain familiarity and skill at quickly applying it whilst under stress
  • The primary reason for failure of the CAT is excess slack in the strap when first applied*. Other reasons for sub-optimal results are too few turns of the windlass and failure to correctly work the strap-buckle mechanism.
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15
Q

Indications for quickclot dressings

A

• Uncontrolled haemorrhage from a non-compressible wound site

• Any traumatic haemorrhage that is not controlled by basic haemorrhage control measures such as direct
pressure with a pad and bandage

• Severe limb wounds not controlled by two Combat Application Tourniquets

• Multiple casualty scenes where patient numbers dictate that simple haemorrhage control measures cannot
be individually applied

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16
Q

contraindications for quickclot dressings

A
  • Bleeding that can be controlled using basic first aid measures
  • Ocular trauma
  • Haemostatic dressings are not to be used for haemorrhages where they are unlikely to contact the point of bleeding such as PV or PR haemorrhage, or posterior epistaxis
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17
Q

indications for airway clearance by backblows?

A

• Conscious adult, child or infant with severe foreign body airway obstruction with ineffective cough and unable
to speak

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18
Q

contraindications for airway clearance by backblows?

A
  • Newborns: not recommended at all - suction is preferred

* Unconscious patient: Not preferred option

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19
Q

indications for airway clearance by chest thrusts?

A

• Conscious adult or child with severe foreign body airway obstruction with ineffective cough, unable to speak
and unable to dislodge the obstruction with back blows

20
Q

contraindications for airway clearance by chest thrusts?

A

• Newborns: not recommended at all - suction is preferred

21
Q

precautions for airway clearance by chest thrusts?

A

• When applying chest thrusts do not apply pressure below the sternum because of the risk of damage to internal organs

22
Q

Indications for a BVM

A
  • apnoea

- inadequate ventilation

23
Q

Contraindications for CPAP

A
  • inability to manage own airway
  • upper airway obstruction
  • hypoventilation
  • untreated TPT
  • Haemodynamic instability
  • Injuries precluding mask application
24
Q

indications for laryngoscopy

A
  • altered conscious state, requiring inspection of the airway
25
Q

contrainidications for layngoscopy

A

none

26
Q

Indications for nasal capnography

A
  • post sedation

- altered conscious state in the setting of alcohol/drug intoxication

27
Q

Indications of NPA

A

Support airway patency in the nconscious patient

  • preferred for pts with trismus, gag reflex, oral trauma
28
Q

contras for NPA

A

none

29
Q

precautions for NPA

A
  • facial fracture or suspected basal skull fracture

- TBI/nTBI

30
Q

Indications for OPA

A
  • SUpport airway patency in the unconscious patient

- bite block in the intubated patient

31
Q

contras for OPA

A
  • trismus
  • Gag reflex
  • TBI/nTBI with adequate ventilation/oxygenation
32
Q

Indications for removal of foreign body with magills

A
  • Foreign body airway obstruction with altered conscious state
33
Q

Indications of suction

A

suspected fluid obstruction in the airway or airway device

34
Q

contras for suction

A

none

35
Q

precautions for suction

A

epiglottitis

croup

36
Q

Contraindications for SGA

A
  • intact gag reflex
  • strong jaw tone or trismus
  • suspected epiglottitis or UAO
37
Q

precautions for SGA

A
  • inability to prepare pt in the sniffing position
  • Pts who require high airway pressures
  • Paediatric pts who may have enlarged tonsils
  • vomit in the airway
38
Q

side effects of SGA

A

correct placement does not prevent passive regrgitation or gastric distention

39
Q

indications of SGA

A
  • unconscious pt without gag reflex
  • ineffective ventilation with BVM< and basic airway management
  • > 10 minutes assisted ventilation required
  • Unable to intubate
40
Q

Indications for TPT decompression with ARS

A

• Suspected tension pneumothorax including in Traumatic Cardiac Arrest.

41
Q

contraIndications for TPT decompression with ARS

A

• The Air Release System (ARS) may not be appropriate for paediatric/small patients (use 14G or 16Gdecompression needle depending on patient’s size).

42
Q

precautions for TPT decompression with ARS

A

• If both sides of the chest are being decompressed, the patient’s right side should be decompressed first to
minimise the risk of the needle puncturing the heart.

  • Once inserted, if air escapes, or air and blood bubbles through the cannula, or no air/blood detected, leave insitu. If copious blood flows out, remove the cannula and cover the insertion site with an occlusive dressing.
  • There is a risk of body fluid being expelled under pressure when the procedure is initially done, or if CPR issubsequently performed.
43
Q

Indications for PEEP

A
  • all patients receiving intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) with a cardiac output
  • all neonatal patients recieveing IPPV
44
Q

contraIndications for PEEP

A

adult and paed pts in cardiac arrest. No pulse no peep

45
Q

precautions for peep

A

pts with the following should be monitored for haemodynamic compromise or TPT following peep:

  • hypovolaemia/severe hypotension
  • TPT (current or post chest decompression)
  • Elevated intracranial pressure
  • Right ventricular failure