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ALL CPT Flashcards

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1
Q

List four guidelines a trainer must adhere to protect the public and the profession

A
  1. Not diagnose or treat illness or injury unless for basic first aid or if the Certified Professional is legally licensed to do so an is working in that capacity at that time.
  2. Not train clients with a diagnosed health condition unless the Certified Professional has been trained to do so
  3. Not begin to train a client prior to receiving and reviewing a current health-history questionnaire signed by the client.
  4. Hold a current cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and automated external defibrillator (AED) certification from NASM-approved provider at all times.
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2
Q

Describe “forecasting” as it applies to the business fundamentals of professional fitness.

A

Making informed predictions based on previous performance indicators and existing trends.

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3
Q

List 5 tips that can enhance the quality of communication.

A
  • Use of appropriate body language
  • Provide an explanation of important concepts
  • Show empathy and compassion
  • Use positive reinforcement
  • Use positive greeting protocols
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4
Q

Describe non-verbal communication and how it takes effect.

A

Visual and auditory expressions of intent and feelings that exist outside of written or spoken speech.

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5
Q

Define “active listening”

A

Listening style that involves having genuine interest in what the speaker is saying; requires listener to fully concentrate to understand the speakers message.

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6
Q

What is an open-ended question?

A

Allow the questioned party to elaborate with detail.

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7
Q

What is a closed-ended question?

A

Only require a yes or no answer.

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8
Q

Define “reflecting” with regards to trainer-client communication

A

Relaying back your interpretation of what the client has communicated.

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9
Q

Define “summarizing” with regards to trainer-client communication

A

Making brief reflections of what has been communicated to indicate that information has been taken on board.

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10
Q

What does the “S” stand for in SMART goals?

A

Specific

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11
Q

What does the “M” stand for in SMART goals?

A

Measurable

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12
Q

What does the “A” stand for in SMART goals?

A

Attainable

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13
Q

What does the “R” stand for in SMART goals?

A

Realistic

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14
Q

What does the “T” stand for in SMART goals?

A

Timely

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15
Q

what is the precomtemplation stage in the stages of change model?

A

the individual does not exercise and is not planning to start exercising within the next 6 months.

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16
Q

what is the contemplation stage in the stages of change model?

A

the individual does not currently exercise but is planning to start within 6 months

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17
Q

what is the preparation stage in the stages of change model?

A

the individual is planning to begin exercising soon and has taken steps toward it and may even be sporadically exercising

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18
Q

what is the action stage in the stages of change model?

A

the individual has been exercising for less than 6 months

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19
Q

what is the maintenance stage in the stages of change model?

A

the individual has been exercising consistently for 6 months or more

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20
Q

What is instrumental support?

A

The actions that directly facilitate a behaviour to happen. For example: driving a person to the gym or paying for their gym membership.

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21
Q

What is emotional support?

A

the encouragement and positive reinforcement that is provided from an individual to another, which includes being caring, empathetic, and showing concern

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22
Q

What is informational support?

A

Providing accurate, current, and informative information.

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23
Q

What is companionship support?

A

When someone engages in a behavior with an individual. This type of support is often observed in an exercise setting where people exercise with a friend or partner.

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24
Q

List four potential psychological benefits of exercise.

A
  • Promotes positive mood
  • Improves the quality and quantity of sleep
  • Reduces stress
  • Reduces indicators and risk factors of anxiety and depression
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25
Q

List five common barriers to successful behavioural change.

A
  • Time constraints
  • Setting unrealistic goals
  • Inadequate social support
  • Social anxiety and low self-esteem
  • Convenience or addictiveness of current behavioural patterns
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26
Q

Define “golgi tendon organ”

A

a specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change

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27
Q

Define “muscle spindle”

A

sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of change

they run parallel to the muscle fibers

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28
Q

What are the three main functions of the nervous system?

A

Sensory, integrative, and motor functions.

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29
Q

Define “sensory functions”

A

is the ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment.

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30
Q

Define “integrative function”

A

is the ability of the CNS to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces an appropriate response.

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31
Q

Define “motor function”

A

is the body’s response (via the efferent pathway) to the integrated sensory information, such as causing a muscle to contract when stretched too far or changing one’s walking pattern when transitioning from walking on a sidewalk to walking in the sand

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32
Q

Define “tendons”

A

a fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone

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33
Q

Define “fascia”

A

Connective tissue that surrounds muscles and bones

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34
Q

Define “fascicles”

A

largest bundles of fibers within a muscle. Fascicles are surrounded by perimysium.

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35
Q

Define “muscle fiber”

A

cylindrical cells that produce and resist force through mechanical contraction allowing organisms to move and reposition

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36
Q

Define “sarcomere”

A

the muscle fiber’s fundamental contractile unit consisting of protein filaments actin and myosin

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37
Q

what is the sliding filament theory?

A

the series of steps in muscle contraction involving how myosin (thick) and actin (thin) filaments slide past one another to produce a muscle contraction, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere

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38
Q

What are type I muscle fibers?

A

Slow twich

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue

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39
Q

What are type II muscle fibers?

A

fast twitch

muscle fibers that are larger in size, generate higher amounts of force, and are faster to fatigue

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40
Q

Define “motor unit”

A

the smallest functional unit of a muscle and motor unit system

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41
Q

Define “neural activation”

A

the nervous system’s signal that tells a muscle to contract

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42
Q

Define “neurotransmitters”

A

chemical messages that cross the synapse between neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission

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43
Q

What is fascia?

A

It is the first layer of connective tissue that surrounds skeletal muscle and connects them to other surrounding muscles.

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44
Q

What is epimysium?

A

The layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle, commonly referred to as “deep fascia”

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45
Q

What are fascicles?

A

Within the muscle, they are the largest bundles of fibers. Fascicles are surrounded by a layer called perimysium.

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46
Q

What is perimysium?

A

Connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle

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47
Q

What is endomysium?

A

Connective tissue that wraps around individual muscle fibers within a fascicle.

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48
Q

Correct order of the vertebral column?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

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49
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

it is made up of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

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50
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

it is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic gurdle.

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51
Q

How many bones are there in the human body?

A

206

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52
Q

Define the “cervical spine”

A

C1-C7
first seven vertebrae starting at the top of the spinal column

form a flexible framework and provide support and motion for the head

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53
Q

Define “thoracic spine”

A
  • T1-T12
  • twelve vertebrae located in the upper and middle back behind the ribs
  • each vertebrae articulates with a rib helping form the rear anchor of the rib cage
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54
Q

Define “lumbar spine”

A
  • L1-L5
  • five vertebrae of the low-back below the thoracic spine
  • largest segments in the spinal column
  • support most of the body’s weight and are attached to many back muscles
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55
Q

Define “sacrum”

A

Triangular bone located below the lumbar spine.

Composed of 5 vertebrae that fuse together as the body develops into adulthood

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56
Q

Define “coccyx”

A

located below the sacrum, more commonly known as the tailbone

composed of three to five small fused bones

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57
Q

Define “joints”

A

the sites where two bones meet and movement occurs as a result of a muscle contraction

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58
Q

What are some characteristics of long bones?

A

Long, cylindrical shaft with irregular or widened ends

ex: humerus, and femur

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59
Q

What are some characteristics of short bones?

A

similar in length and width, and appear somewhat cubical in shape

ex: carpals of wrist

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60
Q

What are some characteristics of flat bones?

A

thin, protective surfaces that provide broad surfaces for muscles to attach

ex: scapulae, sternum, and ribs

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61
Q

What are some characteristics of irregular bones?

A

unique shape and function from all other bone types

ex: vertebrae

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62
Q

What are some characteristics of sesamoid bones?

A

small, often round bones embedded in a joint capsule or found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint

ex: patella

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63
Q

What is a depression?

A

flattened or indented portions of the bone

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64
Q

What are two common types of depressions?

A

fossa and sulcus

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65
Q

What is a process?

A

projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments can attach

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66
Q

What are some common types of processes?

A

process, condyle, epicondyle, tubercle, and trochanter

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67
Q

What are the main functions of the skeletal system?

A

Providing shape and form of our bodies, supports and protects our internal organs, provides structure from which movement is created, produces blood for the body, and stores minerals.

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68
Q

Define “non-synovial joints”

A

joints that have no joint capsule, fibrous connective tissue, or cartilage in the uniting structure

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69
Q

Define “synovial joint”

A

a joint with a fluid-filled joint capsule

most common joints associated with human movement

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70
Q

Define “osteokinematics”

A

movement of a limb that is visible

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71
Q

Define “arthrokinematics”

A

the description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin

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72
Q

What are the three main joint movements?

A

Roll, slide, and spin

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73
Q

What are the five types of synovial joints?

A

gliding, condyloid, hinge, saddle, pivot, and ball-and-socket

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74
Q

Define the “endocrine system”

A

the system responsible for the production and secretion of hormones

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75
Q

Define “testosterone”

A

a hormone producing secondary male sex characteristics

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76
Q

Define “estrogen”

A

a hormone producing secondary female sex characteristics

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77
Q

Define “growth hormone”

A

an anabolic hormone produced by the pituitary gland that is responsible for growth and development

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78
Q

Define “anabolic”

A

metabolic process that synthesizes smaller molecules into larger units used for building and repairing tissues

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79
Q

Define “insulin”

A

a hormone secreted by the pancreas that is responsible for glucose metabolism

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80
Q

Define “the cardiorespiratory system”

A

system comprising of the heart and blood vessels (circulatory) and lungs (respiratory)

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81
Q

Define “cardiovascular system”

A

composed of the heart, blood, and blood vessels

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82
Q

Define “respiratory system”

A

lungs and breathing system

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83
Q

Define “cardiac muscle”

A

cardiac muscle is the muscle of the heart, and it is involuntary

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84
Q

What is the role of the right atrium?

A

gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body

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85
Q

What is the role of the left atrium?

A

gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs

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86
Q

Where is the sinoatrial (SA) node located?

A

it is located in the right atrium

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87
Q

What is the role of the SA node?

A

it initiates the electrical signal that causes the heart to beat

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88
Q

Where is the atrioventricular (AV) node located?

A

it is located between the atria and the ventricles

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89
Q

What is the role of the AV node?

A

it delays the impulse before allowing it to move on to the ventricles. This allows the ventricles to fill up with blood from the atria prior to contracting.

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90
Q

How does the signal get from the SA node to the AV node?

A

internodal pathways

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91
Q

What is the role of the right ventricle?

A

it receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to be saturated with incoming oxygen

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92
Q

What is the role of the left ventricle?

A

it receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and proceeds to pump it through the entire body

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93
Q

Define “arteries”

A

vessels that transport blood away from the body

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94
Q

Define “veins”

A

vessels that transport blood back to the heart

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95
Q

Define “arterioles”

A

small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries

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96
Q

Define “venules”

A

small veins that allows blood to drain from capillaries into larger veins

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97
Q

Define “capillaries”

A

the smallest blood vessels and the site of exchange between the blood and the tissues

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98
Q

Define “Stroke volume”

A

amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

end-diastolic volume - end-systolic volume = stroke volume

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99
Q

Define “heart rate (HR)”

A

the measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

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100
Q

Define “cardiac output”

A

is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

HR x stroke volume = cardiac output

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101
Q

Define “inspiration”

A

the process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body

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102
Q

What are the primary inspiratory muscles?

A

External intercostals and diaphragm

103
Q

What are the secondary inspiratory muscles?

A

scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor

104
Q

Define “expiration”

A

the process of actively or passively relaxing the inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body

105
Q

What are the expiratory muscles?

A

abdominals and internal intercostals

106
Q

What is the resting oxygen consumption (VO2)?

A

amounts to 3.5ml/min/kg of body mass and is the equivalent of 1 metabolic equivalent (MET)

107
Q

What is the maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)?

A

maximum oxygen consumption rate at peak exercise intensity

108
Q

What is dysfunctional breathing?

A

Irregular breathing patterns characteristic of stress and anxiety

109
Q

Describe the training effects of cardiorespiratory exercise

A

Increases: metabolic activity, mental alertness, cardiac function, respiratory function
Decreases: resting heart rate, LDL cholesterol, blood pressure, risk of cardiovascular disease

110
Q

What are the three main functions of blood?

A
  1. Transport: oxygen, nutrients, and hormones
  2. Regulation: temperature, fluid balance, pH
  3. Protection: immune system, clotting
111
Q

Define “bioenergetics”

A

the study of energy in the human body

112
Q

Define “metabolism”

A

all of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself

113
Q

Define “aerobic”

A

processes relating to, involving, or requiring oxygen

114
Q

Define “anaerobic”

A

processes relating to the absence of oxygen

115
Q

Define “adenosine triphosphate (ATP)”

A

a high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body

116
Q

Define “ventilatory threshold”

A

the point during exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionally to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production

117
Q

Define “excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)”

A

the state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise

118
Q

What are the components and the function of the ATP-PC energy system?

A

an energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10-15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism

high-intensity

119
Q

What are the components and the function of the glycolysis energy system?

A

a metabolic process that converts glucose into pyruvate and ADP.

anaerobic, moderate to high intensity, lasts up to 30-50 seconds

120
Q

What are the components and the function of the oxidative energy system?

A

a series of reactions inside the mitochondria that uses oxygen to produce ATP.

aerobic, krebs cycle, electron transport chain

long-term energy

121
Q

Describe the process of the oxidative energy system

A

refer to pictures

122
Q

Define “biomechanics”

A

the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces

123
Q

Define “force”

A

an influence applied by one object to another, which results in acceleration or deceleration of the second object

124
Q

Define “torque”

A

a force that produces rotation; common unit of measurement is the Newton meter (Nm)

125
Q

Define “levers”

A

rigid rods where muscles attach

126
Q

What are the three classes of levers? Describe each.

A

1st class: fulcrum in the center
2nd class: resistance in the center
3rd class: effort in the center

F-R-E-1-2-3

127
Q

Define “local muscular system”

A

local muscles generally attach on or near the vertebrae and serve the primary purpose of stabilizing the trunk of the body

128
Q

Define “global muscular system”

A

is comprised of larger muscles that initiate movements and tend to function across one or more joints

129
Q

What movement patterns does the frontal plane include?

A

Adduction/abduction, lateral flexion, eversion/inversion

exercise examples: lateral raise, lateral lunge, lateral shuffle

130
Q

What movement patterns does the sagittal plane include?

A

flexion and extension

exercise examples: bicep curl, hamstring curl

131
Q

What movement patterns does the transverse plane include?

A

rotation, horizontal abduction/adduction

exercise example: throwing motion

132
Q

Define “concentric muscle action”

A

a muscle action that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle

133
Q

Define “eccentric muscle action”

A

a muscle action that occurs when a muscle develops tension while lengthening

134
Q

Define “isometric muscle action”

A

when a muscle is exerting force equal to the force being placed on it leading to no visible change in the muscles length

135
Q

Define “length-tension relationship”

A

the resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at its resting length

136
Q

Define “force-couple relationship”

A

the synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint

137
Q

Define “force-velocity curve”

A

an increase in velocity correlates to a decrease in concentric force and an increase in eccentric force

138
Q

Define “neuromuscular efficiency”

A

the degree at which force can be produced, reduced, and stabilized across all 3 movement planes

139
Q

Define “structural effieciency”

A

the degree of optimal alignment of the musculoskeletal system towards the most ideal centre of mass distribution for a given body

140
Q

Define “Davis’s Law”

A

states that soft tissue models along the line of stress

141
Q

Define “autogenic inhibition”

A

the process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles

142
Q

Define “reciprocal inhibition”

A

when an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen

143
Q

Define “relative flexibility”

A

the process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance during functional movements

144
Q

Define “pattern overload”

A

consistently repeating the same pattern of motion over long periods of time that can lead to a dysfunction or injury

145
Q

Define “postural distortion patterns”

A

predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

146
Q

Define “altered reciprocal inhibition”

A

occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist

147
Q

Define “synergist dominance”

A

when a prime mover’s function is taken over by a synergist

148
Q

Define “muscle imbalance”

A

when muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships

149
Q

What are the components of the cumulative injury cycle?

A

Cumulative injury cycle -> tissue trauma -> inflammation -> muscle spasm -> adhesions -> altered neuromuscular control -> muscle imbalance -> back to the start

150
Q

Define “the OPT model”

A

NASM’s Optimum Performance Training model aimed at enhancing the body through the correction of deficiencies, and improvement of the fundamentals of stabilization, strength, and power.

151
Q

What are the three pillars of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization
Strength
Power

152
Q

What are the 5 stages of the OPT model?

A
  1. Stabilization endurance
  2. Strength endurance
  3. Muscular development
  4. Maximal strength
  5. Power
153
Q

Define “stability”

A

The ability to achieve and maintain postural equilibrium through all planes of motion.

154
Q

Define “strength”

A

The degree to which muscular tension can produce force.

155
Q

Define “strength endurance”

A

The length of time muscular tension can be sustained.

156
Q

Define “maximal strength”

A

The maximum amount of force that can be produced through muscular contraction.

157
Q

Define “muscular hypertrophy”

A

The increase in mass and volume of muscle tissue due to the growth stimulated by metabolic and/or mechanical response. May lead to corresponding increase in strength and power.

158
Q

Define “power”

A

The rate of strength output over time.

159
Q

Define “motor behaviour”

A

Motor response to internal and external stimuli.

160
Q

Define “motor control”

A

The integration of present sensory stimuli with previous experiences via the CNS.

161
Q

Define “motor learning”

A

Incorporation of motor control patterns into adopted movement systems through repetition.

162
Q

Define “motor development”

A

The lifelong progression of motor skill behaviour.

163
Q

Define “sensorimotor integration”

A

The integration of sensory input with the appropriate motor response.

164
Q

Define “muscle synergies”

A

Muscles collaboratively recruited by the CNS to produce movement.

165
Q

Define “proprioception”

A

The ability to interpret sensory input from the mechanoreceptors in order to maintain balance and postural equilibrium.

166
Q

What are the two main types of motor feedback?

A

Internal feedback and external feedback.

167
Q

Define “internal feedback”

A

Sensory input data resulting from the corresponding internal response to motor function and its outcomes.

168
Q

Define “external feedback”

A

Explicit data provided by external validators such as a coach, video playback or readings on a measuring implements.

169
Q

Describe “carbohydrates”

A

Primary energy source macronutrients that includes sugars, starches, and fiber.

170
Q

Define “monosaccharide”

A

A single unit of sugar (eg. fructose, glucose)

171
Q

Define “disaccharides”

A

A double sugar molecule (eg. lactose, sucrose, and maltose)

172
Q

Define “fiber”

A

Complex polysaccharide found in plant tissue. Assists in gut health, glucose uptake regulation, and the nourishment of gut microbiota.

173
Q

Define “soluble fiber”

A

Soluble fiber dissolves in water

174
Q

Define “insoluble fiber”

A

Insoluble fiber remains solid/in suspenston in water

175
Q

Define “glucose”

A

The most basic molecular structure of a carbohydrate.

176
Q

Define “glycogen”

A

Carbohydrate storage unit stored in liver and muscle tissue.

177
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

The glycemic index refers to the numbers (0-100) assigned to a food source that represents the rise in blood sugar after consuming the food.

178
Q

Describe “lipids”

A

Lipids are organic compounds made of glycerol and fatty acids that are hydrophobic. They include oils, fats, waxes, and steroids and contain roughly twice the energy yield per unit mass of carbohydrates.

179
Q

Define “triglyceride”

A

The most common lipid structure consists of glycerol and 3 fatty acids.

180
Q

Define “saturated fat”

A

A lipid where all the fatty acid chains have single bonds. Solid at ambient temperature.

181
Q

Define “trans-fat”

A

Hydrogenated unsaturated fat used for large scale industrial food production. Known to pose tremendous health risks.

182
Q

Define “unsaturated fat”

A

A lipid where there is one or more double bond in the fatty acid chain.

183
Q

Define “monounsaturated”

A

A lipid with only one double bond

184
Q

Define “polyunsaturated”

A

A lipid with more than one double bond.

185
Q

Give examples of food sources with saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fats.

A

Saturated fat: meat, dairy products, coconut oil
Monounsaturated fat: tree nuts, flaxseed, sunflower seeds
Polyunsaturated fat: fatty fish, olive oil

186
Q

Define “protein”

A

A nitrogen-based organic molecule comprised of one or more amino acid chains.

187
Q

Define “amino acids”

A

Sub molecules of proteins containing amine and carboxyl group

188
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that are both necessary to normal life function and cannot be naturally produced in the body. They must therefore be ingested through an inclusive diet.

189
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

9

190
Q

What are non-essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that are either unnecessary to normal health, or are necessary, but are naturally produced in adequate quantities and don’t need to be ingested through an inclusive diet.

191
Q

How many non-essential amino acids are there?

A

11

192
Q

What is a complete protein?

A

A protein or protein source that includes all essential amino acids

193
Q

What is an incomplete protein?

A

A protein or protein source that does not possess all necessary amino acids.

194
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

Inorganic molecules that drive important life functions and are only needed in trace quantities. These include vitamins and minerals.

195
Q

What is toxicity?

A

A substance’s ability to have a negative impact on health.

196
Q

What approximate percentage of the body is made of water?

A

Approximately 60%

197
Q

What is the daily recommended water intake for men and what is it for women?

A

3L for men

2.2L for women

198
Q

What is the benefit of drinking cold water?

A

Cold water is well known to assist in digestive health.

199
Q

What should one drink during exercise that exceeds 1 hour?

A

A beverage containing up to 8% carbohydrates.

200
Q

For an overweight person, how much extra water is recommended for every 25lbs overweight?

A

Approximately 8oz.

201
Q

What are the two adverse effects of dehydration?

A

Fatigue decreased performance
and
circulatory deficiency

202
Q

What is a calorie?

A

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree celsius.

203
Q

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?

A

Amount of energy expended during rest and inactivity.

204
Q

What is the thermic effect of food (TEF)?

A

The energy expenditure through the process of digestion accounting for 6-10% of total expenditure.

205
Q

What is the estimated amount of energy expended through deliberate physical activity?

A

Approximately 20% of total energy.

206
Q

List the 3 ideal protocols when using carbs for performance.

A
  • High carb consumption two to four hours before physical activity
  • Consume 1.5g of carbs per kg of body weight to maximize glycogen reserves
  • For activity lasting more than 1 hour, consume 30-60g of carbs per hour
207
Q

What are dietary reference intakes (DRIs)?

A

The guidelines for the ideal intake of a given nutrient.

208
Q

Define the “recommended dietary allowance (RDA)”

A

The mean daily nutritional requirements for an individual of normal health.

209
Q

Define “tolerable upper intake (UL)”

A

The maximum intake level with no perceived health risks.

210
Q

What is adequate intake (AI)?

A

The ideal recommended nutrient intake for individuals of normal health.

211
Q

What are the daily recommendations for clients with a weight loss goal?

A
  • No more than 10% fat
  • Distribute all macronutrients through the day
  • Consume four to six meals per day to control hunger and cravings
  • Avoid calorically-dense processed foods
  • Hydrate with approx. 9 to 13 cups of water per day
  • Measure food portions
  • Seek professional supervision for diets under 1200calories
212
Q

What are the daily recommendations for a client with hypertrophy goals?

A
  • Eat 4 to 6 meals per day
  • Spread protein intake throughout the day
  • Consume carbs and protein within 90 minutes of physical activity for optimum protein synthesis
  • Maintain healthy ratios of carbs and fats
213
Q

What is an ergogenic aid?

A

A substance or drug used in athletic performance enhancment.

214
Q

Where is creatine made?

A

Made in the body via the ATP-PC system

215
Q

What are the main benefits of creatine supplementation?

A

Can boost anaerobic performance and strength output during exercise. Can increase muscle mass over the long term.

216
Q

What is a recommended pre-workout consumption of caffeine for an increase in performance?

A

Consuming 3-6mg/kg of body weight 1 hour before physical activity

217
Q

What status do pro-hormones and anabolic sterioids have in competitive sports?

A

They are categorically illegal and prohibited by the World Anti-Doping Agency.

218
Q

List the 3 purposes of the PAR-Q

A
  1. Determines risk level of exercise for an individual
  2. Identifies the need for medical evaluation in an individual
  3. Leads to physician referral if the answer is yes to one or more of the questions
219
Q

What are the risks associated with extended periods of sitting?

A
  • Tightening of the hip flexors

- Weakening of posterior chain muscles

220
Q

What are the risks associated with repetitive movement patterns?

A

Can lead to pattern overload and overuse injuries.

221
Q

What are the risks associated with over-wearing of dress shoes?

A

The sustained plantar-flexion can lead to tight calf muscles, leading to over-pronation and weakened dorsiflexion.

222
Q

What risks are elevated due to mental stress?

A
  • Cardiovascular disease

- Respiratory complications

223
Q

What risks are elevated due to past risks/injuries?

A
  • Future re-injury
  • Neural overcompensation
  • Loss of neural control
  • Altered neural control
224
Q

What common medications can affect exercise performance?

A
  • Beta-blockers

- Heart and blood pressure medication

225
Q

What chronic conditions can affect exercise performance?

A
  • Arthritis
  • Asthma
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Obesity
  • Cardiovascular conditions
  • Stroke
  • Cancer
  • Pregnancy
226
Q

What are cardiorespiratory assessments used to determine?

A

Used to estimate an individuals VO2 max.

227
Q

How do you calculate the maximal heart rate?

A

The straight percentage method: HRmax = 220 - age

The regression formula: HRmax = 208 - (0.7 x age)

The straight percentage formula is an easier calculation, while the regression formula gives a more accurate reading.

228
Q

What is the process of the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A
  1. Execute 96 steps/min, on a 12-inch step, over a 3min period.
  2. Take a 60-second recovery pulse within 5 seconds of stopping.
  3. Refer to the chart and match recovery pulse to it.
  4. Assign the correct heart rate zone. (Zone 1: poor-fair, zone 2: average-good, zone 3: very good)
229
Q

What is the process involved in the Rockport walk test?

A
  1. Document weight
  2. 1-mile treadmill walk
  3. Document time
  4. Record heart rate immediately after
  5. Use the VO2 formula to calculate the VO2 score.
  6. Use chart to match score with age and sex.
  7. Assign the correct heart rate zones.
230
Q

How do you measure the radial pulse?

A

Place index and middle fingers on the wrist proximal to the thumb.

231
Q

How do you measure carotid pulse?

A

Less preferred for clients, more suitable for emergency response.
Located on the side of the neck.

232
Q

What is the resting heart rate (RHR) and how do you determine it?

A

The heart rate experienced at rest. It can be determined as an average of 3 consecutive morning heart rate readings.

233
Q

What is the average RHR for men and for women?

A

Avg RHR men: 70bpm
Avg RHR women: 75bpm
The healthy adult range sits between 70-8-bpm.

234
Q

What are the two blood pressure readings?

A

Systolic and diastolic

235
Q

Define “systolic blood pressure”

A

Maximum arterial pressure which occurs during cardiac contraction.

Healthy normal of up to 120mm Hg

236
Q

Define “diastolic blood pressure”

A

Minimum arterial pressure which occurs during cardiac relaxation
Healthy normal of up to 9-mm Hg

237
Q

What are the kinetic chain checkpoints?

A

The body’s main joint regions such as, feet/ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head/neck.

238
Q

Define “knee valgus”

A

knees collapse inward due to hip adduction and internal rotation

239
Q

Define “knee varus”

A

knees bow outward (bowlegged)

240
Q

Define “lordosis/lordotic”

A

the normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar regions of the spine, creating a concave portion of the spine

241
Q

What are the three postural distortion patterns?

A

Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome.

242
Q

What are the characteristics of pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips

243
Q

What are the characteristics of lower crossed syndrome?

A

anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine

244
Q

What are the characteristics of upper crossed syndrome?

A

forward head and protracted (rounded) shoulders

245
Q

What are the potential overactive and underactive muscles for pes planus syndrome?

A

Overactive

  • Gastrocnemius and soleus (calves)
  • Adductor complex (inner thighs)
  • Hip flexors (muscles near front of hips)

Underactive

  • Anterior and posterior tibialis (shin muscles)
  • Gluteus maximus and medius (butt muscles)
246
Q

What are the potential overactive and underactive muscles for lower crossed syndrome?

A

Overactive

  • Hip flexors
  • Lumbar extensors (low back muscles)

Underactive

  • Gluteus maximus and medius
  • Hamstring complex
  • Abdominals
247
Q

What are the potential overactive and underactive muscles for upper crossed syndrome?

A

Overactive

  • Pectoralis major and minor (chest muscles)
  • Levator scapula and sternocleidomastoid (neck muscles)
  • Upper trapezius

Underactive

  • Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids
  • Deep cervical flexors (muscle deep within the neck)
248
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol is a lipid derivative found in the blood and produced in the liver.

249
Q

Define “HDL”

A

HDL is a high-density lipoprotein and is a form of cholesterol considered beneficial for health.

250
Q

Define “LDL”

A

LDL is a low-density lipoprotein and has been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

251
Q

What is the healthy total cholesterol level?

A

A level of no more than 200mg/dL

252
Q

How do you classify an overweight person?

A

Any person whose weight sits at no more than 25lbs above their ideal weight for their height, or anyone with a BMI of 25 to 29.9.

253
Q

How do you classify obesity?

A

A BMI of at least 30 is classified as obese.

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