ALL CORRECTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Investigations for sarcoidosis

A

Increased ESR
Hypercalcaemia
Raised ACE

Diagnostic CXR- bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Staging for sarcoidosis

A

stage 1 - BHL
stage 2 - BHL and parenchymal disease
stage 3 - parenchymal disease only
stage 4 - end stage lung - pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for sarcoidosis

A

stage 2 and above
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Henoch schonlein purpura

A

IgA deposits on blood
Iga nephropathy ( nephritis) arthralgia, abdo pain and purpura

Childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drugs cause SLE

A

Sulfalazine
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of SLE

A

malar rash
discoid rash
worse on sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

antibodies for SLE

A

ANA– sensitive
Anti-dsDNA- more specific
Anti-smith - more specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wegeners granulomatosis -

A

cANCA
saddle shaped nose
epistaxis

cough
haemoptysis

NEPHRITIC SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Involvement in microscopic polyangiitis

A

lower resp tract involvement and glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is churg strauss and antibodies

A

pANCA
Eosinophilic and autoimmune
Accompanied by asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is amyloidosis

A

starch like deposits in the tissue
Cause nephrotic syndrome
Can cause hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where can amyloidosis cause abnormalities in the body

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy
arrhythmia

Intestines- splenomegaly , hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diagnostic for amyloidosis

A

Renal biopsy and congo red stain- pink
under polarised light - apple green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sjogrens syndrome antibody ?

A

Anti - Ro and Anti-La

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Systemic sclerosis antibodies

A

Limited - anti centromere
CREST SYNDROME - hands, face and feet

Systemic - anti-Scl-70
Anti-RNA polymerase
WIDESPREAD ORGAN INVOLVEMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa cause

A

after Hep B
necrotising inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosis of polyarteritis nodosa

A

MRA- string of pearls appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa presentation

A

systemic features
LIVEDO RETICULARIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Triad of behcets disease

A

recurrent aphthous ulcers
genital ulcerations
erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Polymyositis T cells involvement

A

CD8 T+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dermatomyositis T cells involvement

A

CD4 T+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antibodies in poly/dermatomyositis

A

Anti -jo1 , Anti-Mi2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica- symptoms?

A

Bilateral pain and stiffness
NO WEAKNESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What extrapulmonary feature is seen in sarcoidosis

A

LUPUS PERNIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Management for psoriasis

A

potent corticosteroid and vit D analogue ( Calcipotriol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nail changes seen in psoriasis

A

subungal hyperkeratosis
pitting nails
nail thickening
onycholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How to treat dermatitis herpetiformis

A

dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum

A

high dose prednisolone and dressings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What patients is lupus vulgaris found in

A

TB
brown,firm, translucent nodules
Full RIPE for a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rash seen in lyme disease

A

erythema chronicum migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for shingles

A

oral antivirals within 72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hypercalcaemia of malignancy treatment vs hypercalcaemia treatment

A

Malignancy - IV rehydration and pamidronate
Hypercalcaemia - IV rehydrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma treatment

A

chemo - very sensitive to chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome

A

carcinoid tumours w liver mets - PATIENTS ARE SYMPTOMATIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can lung adenocarcinomas cause

A

HPOA-
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
causes inflammation of bones and joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is toxoplasmosis

A

HIV patients presents as encephalitis - multiple ring enhancing lesions( hallmark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Copper poisoning presentation

A

profuse emesis , diarrhoea, abdo pain
Metallic taste in mouth and green discolouration in gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Copper poisoning treatment

A

D-penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Risk factor for gastric ulcers

A

Use of NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Amitriptyline toxicity presentation and ECG changes

A

pupil dilation
skin flushing
seizures

Prolonged QRS and tachyarrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What will cause bilateral adrenal atrophy

A

exogenous steroid use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What will be heard in a patient with atrial myxoma

A

LOUD S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Choice of antihypertensive in pregnant woman

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

LVH ECG changes

A

increased amplitude of QRS complexes
non-specific T wave inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Antibody for Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What sign is consistent with acute liver pathology

A

tender smooth hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What electrolyte side effect can SSRIs cause

A

hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is charcot’s joint

A

destruction of weight bearing joint secondary to sensory neuropathy
affects ankles and knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does charcot marie tooth disease present-
nerve biopsy diagnosis

A

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
-symmetrical distal slowly progressive muscle wasting

CHAMPAGNE BOTTLE APPEARANCE

motor and sensory neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is enteropathic arthritis

A

associated with IBD
asymmetrical oligoarthritis - larger joints of lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Papillary carcinoma of thyroid presentations

A

younger females
moves with swallowing
spreads to lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid presentation

A

older people
acute
most aggressive
Hard symmetrical rapidly enlarging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pulmonary hypertension management drugs

A

Prostacyclin analogues - eroprestenol
endothelin analogues- bosentan
phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors- sildenafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

PMR vs fibromyalgia bloods

A

PMR - Raised ESR
Fibromyalgia - normal ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Choice of antibiotic for severe campylobacter

A

clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis treatment

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What vaccine should you offer men who sleep with other men

A

Hep A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Anterior uveitis treatment

A

Steroid and cycloplegic /mydriatic( dilates pupil which relieves pain )eye drops-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Anal fissure management if conservative fails

A

sphincterectomy

60
Q

Guillian barre syndrome diagnostic investigation

A

Lumbar puncture
high protein
normal WCC

61
Q

Acute angle glaucoma treatment

A

Pilocarpine and beta blocker eye drops

62
Q

What medications should be avoided in a patient with MG

A

Beta blockers - worsens MG - leads to decreased FVC

63
Q

What part of brain is damaged in alzheimer’s

A

widespread cerebral atrophy
cortex and hippocampus

64
Q

most common causative organism of bullous impetigo

65
Q

Choice of management for neuropathic bladder

A

intermittent self catheterisation

66
Q

What kind of liver pathology can co-amoxiclav cause

A

cholestatic picture

67
Q

What can a large PE cause on an ECG

68
Q

What is the cause of a painful 3rd nerve palsy

A

posterior communicating artery
Pupil dilation

69
Q

How does a phyllodes breast tumour look on histology

A

mixed epithelial and connective tissue

RARE

70
Q

Description of peau d’orange

A

cutaneous lymphoedema w/ dimpling

71
Q

Basal atelectasis presentation

A

Respiratory alkalosis
pO2 much lower than expected
decreased breath sounds on auscultation post operatively -

CHEST PHYSIO

72
Q

Treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis

A

compression stockings and NSAIDs can be used

73
Q

In BPH where in the prostate is affected

A

hyperplasia in transitional zone

74
Q

Myelofibrosis - hallmark features on investigations

A

dry tap
dacrocytes/ tear drop cells

75
Q

CK level in rhabdomyolisis

A

CK > 10,000

76
Q

Most common organism that causes cellulitis

A

strep pyogenes

77
Q

Meningeal signs

A

Kernig’s sign – pain on passive extension of knee

Brudzinski sign - flexion of neck causes flexion of hips

78
Q

Conjunctiva presentations depending on causative organisms

A

Viral - most common
Allergic - bilateral
Bacterial - unilateral

79
Q

Orbital cellulitis management

A

Hospital admission for IV cefotaximine

80
Q

What treatment can be used for chronic Hep C

A

interferon alpha

81
Q

Treatment for aspiration pneumonia

A

metronidazole

82
Q

What is boutonneire deformity

A

flexed at PIJ
hyperextended at DIPJ

83
Q

What is swan neck deformity

A

hyperextended at PIPJ
flexed at DIPJ

84
Q

RBBB changes on ECG

A

RSR1 pattern in V1 and V2
large S waves in V6
wide QRS complexes

85
Q

Skin changes that can be seen in reactive arthritis

A

keratoderma blenorrhagicum - pustular crusty yellow brown seen on soles of feet

Circinate balanitis - annular lesions on penis

86
Q

Most common eye symptoms in RA

A

dry eye syndrome

87
Q

Mode of inheritance for alpha 1- antitrypsin deficiency

A

autosomal recessive

88
Q

What is brugada syndrome

A

Young males history fo sudden death

COVED ST ELEVATION ON ECG

89
Q

What does bacterial keratitis cause

A

entropion ( in turning of lower eyelid)

90
Q

How do you treat a benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

91
Q

Initial management of rhabdomyolysis

A

administer IV fluids

92
Q

Most common organism that causes acute bacterial prostatitis

A

e.coli
dysuria, urinary frequency , tender prostate gland

93
Q

Treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

oral ciprofloxacin

94
Q

What is a side effect of sodium valproate

A

hepatic dysfunction -
deranged LFTs

95
Q

What virus is mollacusum contagiosum associted with

96
Q

Treatment for giardia lamblia infection

A

metronidazole

97
Q

Conditions associated with erythema multiforme

A

HSV
Mycoplasma pneumonia
strep
TB

98
Q

Choice of imaging for TIA

A

MRI brain with diffusion weighted imaging

99
Q

Posterior MI ECG changes

A

ST depression
Tall R waves in V1-V2

100
Q

What is Charles bonnet syndrome

A

Intact cognition , ocular pathology , visual hallucinations

INSIGHT IS PRESERVED

101
Q

What JVP changes are seen in tricuspid stenosis

A

GIANT A WAVES

102
Q

How does a pontine haemorrhage present

A

low GCS
quadriplegia
miosis
absent horizontal eye movement

103
Q

How does a lacunar infarct present

A

ISOLATED HEMISENSORY LOSS

104
Q

First line for focal seizures

A

lamotrigine/ levetiracetam

105
Q

Most common causative organism of infective exacerbations of COPD

A

H. influenzae

106
Q

3rd degree heart block JVP signs

A

Canon A wave

107
Q

AF JVP signs

A

Absent A wave

108
Q

What will lead poisoning lead to

A

microcytic anaemia and motor neuropathy

109
Q

HSV in pregnancy management

A

Oral acyclovir and plan C section for delivery

110
Q

What is post exposure prophylaxis for HIV

A

oral anti-retroviral therapy for 4 weeks and then retest at 12 weeks

111
Q

Thyroid eye disease treatment

A

smoking cessation
1st line - oral steroids
2nd line - rituximab
3rd line - radiotherapy

112
Q

Hyperparathyroidism common X ray finding

A

pepperpot skull

113
Q

Most common organism that causes peritoneal dialysis associated peritonitis

A

S. epidermidis

114
Q

What kind of signs does cerebellar syndrome cause

A

unilateral lesions that cause ipsilateral signs

Dysdiachokinesia, dysmetria
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Slurred staccato speech
Hypotonia

115
Q

What is the management of an acute anal fissure

A

Dietary advice
bulk forming laxatives- first line - isphagula husk

116
Q

Mitral valve prolapse signs

A

characteristic mid systolic click and systolic murmur

117
Q

Management of chronic anal fissure

A

topical GTN
not effective after 8 weeks - sphincterectomy

118
Q

What is the diagnostic imaging for diverticular disease

A

CT abdo with oral and IV contrast

119
Q

When do you admit patients for IV antibiotics in diverticulitis

A

if symptoms do not settle within 72hrs or patient initially presents with more severe symptoms

120
Q

How do thrombosed haemorrhoids present

A

significant pain
purplish, oedematous tender subcutaneous perianal mass

121
Q

How should thrombosed haemorrhoids be managed

A

patient presents within 72 hrs
referral for excision

otherwise can use stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia

122
Q

What is the grading of internal haemorrhoids

A

Grade 1- do not prolapse out of anal canal

Grade 2- prolapse on defecation but reduce spontaneously

Grade 3- can be manually reduced

Grade 4 - cannot be reduced

123
Q

Where is ischaemic colitis most likely to occur

A

splenic flexure

124
Q

What may be seen on AXR in ischaemic colitis

A

thumbprinting

125
Q

What are some indications for surgery in a Crohn’s patient

A

complications such as fistulae, abscess formation and strictures

126
Q

What blood marker can be used in patients with medullary carcinoma

A

Calcitonin

127
Q

What marker can be used generally as thyroid cancer follow up

A

Thyroglobulin antibodies

128
Q

Hyperkalaemia ECG findings

A

peaked/tall tented T waves
loss of P waves
broad QRS complexes
sinusoidal wave pattern

129
Q

What patients are identified as being malnourished

A

BMI <18.5

unintentional weight loss >10% 3-6 months

BMI<20 and >5% unintentional weight loss 3-6 month

130
Q

Osteosarcoma key points

A

most common primary malignant bone tumour
sunburst pattern

131
Q

Ewings sarcoma key points

A

onion skin appearance
seen in children and adolescents

132
Q

Chondrosarcoma key points

A

malignant tumour of cartilage
affects axial skeleton
more common in middle age

133
Q

What is mirizzi syndrome

A

RUQ, fever and signs of systemic upset
alongside deranged LFTs

gallstone impacted in distal cystic duct

134
Q

Features of severe pancreatitis

A

age>55
hypocalcaemia
hyperglycaemia
hypoxia
neutrophilia
elevated LDH and AST

135
Q

Diagnosis of Boerhaaves syndrome

A

CT contrast swallow

136
Q

Treatment for Boerhaave’s syndrome

A

Thoracotomy and lavage

137
Q

What tumour marker is raised in cholangiocarcinoma

138
Q

What is seen in acute tubular necrosis

A

features of AKI - raised urea, creatinine, potassium

MUDDY BROWN CASTS IN URINE

139
Q

Most common cause of acute urinary retention in men

A

secondary to BPH- prostate presses on urethra

140
Q

2 main symptoms of chronic urinary retention

A

painless and insidious

141
Q

What is meant by high pressure retention

A

impaired renal function and bilateral hydronephrosis

– due to bladder outflow obstruction

142
Q

What is meant by low pressure retention

A

normal renal function and no hydronephrosis

143
Q

Describe epididymal cysts

A

seperate from body of testicle
found posterior to testicle

144
Q

Describe hydrocele

A

communicating – newborns

soft non tender swelling of hemi-scrotum

you can get above the mass

transilluminates

145
Q

What is Marjolins ulcer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

occurs at sites of chronic inflammation - burns, osteomyelitis etc

lower limb