All concepts Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is describing the process of metastasis. Which is necessary in order for metastasis to occur?

A

Decreased Cell Adhesions

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2
Q

Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to?

A

Protect cells from injury

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3
Q

A nurse is preparing a presentation on progressive neurological disorders. Which concept should be taught?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)- degenerative disorder of both upper and lower motor neurons.

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4
Q

The postmortem decrease in a patient’s body temperature will be documented as:

A

Algor Mortis

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5
Q

Your patient hass Guillain-Barré. During the health history you should ask about a history of:

A

Respiratory or Gastrointestinal viral infections

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6
Q

The condition that occurs when a zygote is missing in each cell is referred to as ?

A

a “Monosomy”

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7
Q

During a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis, a patient is in danger of?

A

Respiratory arrest

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8
Q

A patient has multiple myeloma. Which area in the body does the nurse closely monitor for the tumer masses?

A

Bones

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9
Q

A process in which a piece of one chromosome is moved to another chromosome:

A

Translocation

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10
Q

Your patietn’s forehead hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury?

A

Frontal

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11
Q

Which information indicates that the nurse has a good understanding of clastogens? Clastogens are agents that cause:

A

Chromosomal breakage

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12
Q

Which substance is released during a viral infection and signals neighboring cells to enhance viral defenses?

A

Interferon

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13
Q

A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which organ is most affected?

A

Thymus

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14
Q

Leukemia is classified as?

A

acute or chronic

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15
Q

What term is used to describe cancer that extends to organs or tissues distant from the site of origin?

A

Metastasis

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16
Q

A nurse wants to teach about the most common primary immune deficiency condition. What deficiency should the nurse describe?

A

Common variable immune deficiency

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17
Q

You observe a platelet count of 9,000/mm3, which condition must you monitor for in this patient?

A

Spontaneous bleeding

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18
Q

For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of:

A

Surviving in the bloodstream

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19
Q

While reviewing a patient’s health history, which finding will most alert the nurse to the possible development of chronic subdural hematoma?

A

Prior brain atrophy

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20
Q

A patient is preparing to receive adjuvant therapy for cancer. What should the nurse tell the patient to reinforce teaching? this type of therapy:

A

is given after cance surgery

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21
Q

your patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity are they displaying?

A

Type 1

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22
Q

The process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis is?

A

Transcription

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23
Q

The somatic cell that contains a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called?

A

euploid cell

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24
Q

In a patient with an epidural hematoma, the nurse recalls that bleeding occurs between the skull and:

A

Dura mater

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25
Q

A patient has chronic active hepatitis B infection. Which type of cancer should the nurse assess for in this patient?

A

Liver cancer

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26
Q

Which is the chief function of ribosomes?

A

Protein synthesis

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27
Q

When an infant has been identified as having had fetal exposure to alcohol, which assessment parameters should be considered?

A

Low birth weight, mental retardation, facial anomalies

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28
Q

The best treatment for multiple myeloma:

A

Chemotherapy

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29
Q

A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks:

A

T and B lymphocytes

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30
Q

A Patient ruptured the middle Meningeal artery, resulting in an epidural hemorrhage. The nurse realizes that in this type of intracranial hemorrhage; the bleeding occurs between the dura mater and the:

A

Skull

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31
Q

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis. Which information should the nurse include?

A

This is an autoimmune disease mediated by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors, resulting in defective nerve impulses.

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32
Q

Which statement indicates that the nurse needs more teaching regarding the types of subdural hematoma?____________ is a type of subdural hematoma.

A

Intracerebral

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33
Q

An individual who is heterozygous for a gene has:

A

Alleles at a given locus that are different from one another.

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34
Q

What term is used to describe the process of endocytosis?

A

Engulfment

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35
Q

The major phagocytic cells in inflammation are:

A

Neutrophils and Macrophages

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36
Q

Which intervertebral disks should the nurse assess first for herniation?

A

L4-S1

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37
Q

Hypersplenism occurs when?

A

The spleen is overactive

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38
Q

Which symptoms should you assess for in a patient with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Night sweats, low grade fevers, and weight loss

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39
Q

A patient has a complement deficiency of C5 and C7. The nurse should monitor this patient for infections caused by:

A

Neisseria

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40
Q

During your assesment of a patient with meningitis, you want to test for nuchal rigidity. Which test will you implement?

A

Kernig

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41
Q

The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes, and the environment is called the disease?

A

Phenotype

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42
Q

Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in:

A

Cell secretions

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43
Q

What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle?

A

It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin

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44
Q

The nurse should evaluate the cancer patient with fatigue for?

A

Depression

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45
Q

Which causes metaplasia in humans?

A

Cell injury from noxious stimuli

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46
Q

cerebral thrombosis develops most often from:

A

Atherosclerosis and inflammatory disease processes (arteritis)

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47
Q

What is the leading cause of death in developed countries?

A

Cancer

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48
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by?

A

Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion

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49
Q

The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a?

A

Codon

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50
Q

When a patient has tissue iuschemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation, which of the following does the nurse expect?

A

Decreased ATP production

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51
Q

A herniated disk allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to:

A

extrude and compress the nerve root

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52
Q

A patient has Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. Which typical assessment indings should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

A

Decreased IgM and bleeding

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53
Q

Your patient with HIV has painful burning dysesthesias and paresthesias, especially in the extremities. What condition will you document in the chart?

A

HIV Neuropathy

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54
Q

What would you expect to occur when a patient’s cancer is caused by mutations of a proto-oncogene?

A

Increased cell division

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55
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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56
Q

Your patient has a brief episode of neurological deficits that resolves within 12 hours with a return to normal functioning. What diagnosis should you document on the chart?

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

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57
Q

Which statement made by the cancer patient indicates the need for more teaching? A major cause of cancer pain is?

A

Cancer cells residing in lymphnodes

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58
Q

A patient has aquired immunofeficiency syndrome(AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?

A

Lymphocyte counts

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59
Q

A patient asks the role of clotting mechanisms during inflammation. The nurse should indicate that the function of the clotting cascade during inflammation is to:

A

Trap microorganisms

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60
Q

When a patient has an extreme laceration (with a flap), which medical terms should the nurse document on the chart?

A

Avulsion

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61
Q

If a patient has Gaucher disease, which organs should the nurse monitor?

A

Liver, splee, CNS/brain

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62
Q

A couple has two offspring; one child has an autosomal recessive disease trait and one is normal. What most likely conclusions can the nurse make about the parents?

A

Both parents could be carriers

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63
Q

Which symptom will surprise the nurse when assessing a patient with cachexia?

A

Heart murmur

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64
Q

A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?

A

Spinal shock

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65
Q

What type of cell is most affected by acute leukemia?

A

Blast cell

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66
Q

Which of the following treatments to help cancer-related or chemotherapy-related anemia should the nurse discuss with the patient?

A

Erythropoietin

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67
Q

When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? The helix, guanine pairs with?

A

Cytosine

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68
Q

Irritative syndromes involve?

A

Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias

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69
Q

Which organ is most frequently affected by chronic alcohol (ethanol) injury?

A

Liver

70
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by absence or underdevelopment of which organ?

A

Thymus

71
Q

The nurse in the genetics clinic is describing a genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood. To which disease is the nurse most likely referring?

A

Huntington’s Disease

72
Q

Which statement by a nursing student indicates the need for further teaching? Free radical injury can be caused by:

A

Tissue damage by antioxidants

73
Q

If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first?

A

Brain

74
Q

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of a herniated disk. Which information should the nurse include?

A

The nucleus pulposus extrudes and compresses the nerve root

75
Q

A patient has a spinal cord tumor that originated within the neural tissues. What type of tumor is this called?

A

Intramedullary

76
Q

A patient with cancer sustains an excessive amount of tumor necrosis factor alpha. For which condition should the nurse be particularly alert?

A

Cachexia

77
Q

A patient has a vertebral disorder that involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of the affected vertebra. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

A

Spondylisthesis

78
Q

What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?

A

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

79
Q

What usually causs encephalitis?

A

A Viral infection

80
Q

What type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has diffuse brain injury?

A

Concussion

81
Q

The process by which cells program themselves to die:

A

Apoptosis

82
Q

What term does the nurse use to describe the exudate that is characterized by the movement of watery fluid, containing few cells and little protein?

A

Serous

83
Q

ALS is caused by:

A

Degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons

84
Q

A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should you assess for in this patient?

A

Infection

85
Q

The nurse on a neurological unit is caring for several patients. Which patient is at highest risk for a cerebral vascular accident (stroke)? The patient with:

A

Hypertension and diabetes

86
Q

Malignant tumors have a tendency to:

A

Invade surrounding tissues; they also grow rapidly and have a tendency to metastasize

87
Q

Most commonly reported sypmtom associated with cancer is:

A

Fatigue

88
Q

The retinoblastoma gene is what type of gene?

A

A tumor-suppressor gene

89
Q

Cellular atrophy is:

A

Decrease in cell size

90
Q

You are planning a community teaching event about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). To which population should your teaching be primarily targeted?

A

Women, 20-40 years old

91
Q

A sign associated with classic cerebral concussion is:

A

loss of consciousness

92
Q

A patient developed a subdural hematoma within 12 hours of the injury. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

A

Acute subdural hematoma

93
Q

The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is causedby:

A

Immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons

94
Q

A geneticist is teaching a class that includes information about DNA. Which information should be included? DNA contains:

A

The genetic code for all parts of the body

95
Q

Among the innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is the:

A

Skin and mucous membranes

96
Q

The nurse documents “Tattooing and stippling” in a trauma patient. Which type of injury does this patient have?

A

Gunshot wound

97
Q

While discussing the complement system, which information should the nurse include? The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by:

A

Bacteria

98
Q

When assessing a patient with SLE, you should expect to identify:

A

Arthralgia, anemia, and rash

99
Q

A patient has a thrombosis. While reviewing the history, the nurse found the patient has atherosclerosis. To which component of the Virchow triad does the atherosclerosis correlate?

A

Endothelial injury

100
Q

Subdural hematomas:

A

Bleeding between the dura mater and the brain

101
Q

A disease results in the accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the brain:

A

Tay-sachs disease

102
Q

Which information should the nurse include when teaching about focal brain injury? Most forms of focal brain injury are associated with increased:

A

Brain swelling

103
Q

Secondary hypertension is caused by:

A

An underlying disease process or medication that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output.

104
Q

The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the:

A

Macrophage

105
Q

A nurse is asked why myocardial ischemia is usually reversible within 20 minutes. What is the nurses best response?

A

Anaerobic metabolism maintains cellular integrity for approximately 20 mins

106
Q

A patient’s coronary blood flow is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the myocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process?

A

Myocardial ischemia

107
Q

A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failure does the nurse assess for in this patient.

A

Right-sided heart failure

108
Q

Prinzmetal angina is caused by?

A

Vasospasm

109
Q

If a patient’s history indicates that the cardiac valve disease is autosomal dominant, which diagnosis will the nurse observe written in the chart?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

110
Q

Mitogens, such as angiotensin II, and growth factors stimulate:

A

Smooth muscle proliferation

111
Q

One complication of sustained hypertension is:

A

Anemia

112
Q

Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:

A

Left ventricle

113
Q

High ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by:

A

Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow

114
Q

Dyspnea that occurs when an individual lies flat and is common in individuals with heart failure:

A

Orthopenea

115
Q

All disorders associated with ARDS cause massive pulmonary:

A

Inflammation

116
Q

A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment findings is typical for this patient?

A

A productive cough

117
Q

What term is used to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia?

A

Clubbing

118
Q

A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?

A

D-dimer levels

119
Q

Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?

A

Feelings of shortness of breath

120
Q

A patient in the emergency room reports coughing up blood, night swears, and recently “feeling tired all of the time.” The patient is feverish. What medical condition does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

A

Tuberculosis

121
Q

An area where alveoli are ventilated but not perfused is termed:

A

Alveolar dead space

122
Q

Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow results in:

A

Decreased perfusion and a high V/Q ratio

123
Q

Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?

A

Thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning

124
Q

A primary care provider tells the nurse that a patient has a shift to the left. Which type of patient will the nurse be caring for? A patient with a:

A

bacterial infection

125
Q

Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Schizocytes/Schistocytes

126
Q

A patient has hypersplenism. How should the nurse explain this to the patient? In this disease, which is related to the spleen, the spleen is:

A

overacting

127
Q

A patient has acute leukemia. A nurse recalls the cell most affected by this disease is a:

A

blast cell

128
Q

A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?

A

lymphocyte counts

129
Q

Which assessment finding is typical in a patient with multiple myeloma (MM)?

A

Hypercalcemia

130
Q

A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which condition is a priority to assess?

A

Pulmonary embolism

131
Q

Which symptoms should the nurse assess for in a patient with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss

132
Q

A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelia injury will the nurse observe written in the history?

A

Autoimmunity

133
Q

If a patient has secondary hypertension, the nurse realizes that the patient has an abnormal blood pressure caused by:

A

an underlying disease

134
Q

Which principle should the nurse use to guide nursing care for a patient with aortic stenosis? Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:

A

left ventricle

135
Q

A nurse is teaching about obesity and adipokines. Which information should the nurse include? Obesity causes a decrease of:

A

adiponectin

136
Q

A nurse is asked what causes Prinzmetal angina. How should the nurse respond? Princmetal angina is caused by:

A

vasospasm

137
Q

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis. Which information should the nurse include? The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the:

A

macrophage

138
Q

A nurse is asked why myocardial ischemia is usually reversible within 20 minutes. What is the nurse’s best response?

A

Anaerobic metabolism maintains celllar intergrity for approximately 20 minutes.

139
Q

Which laboratory results will cause the nurse to suspect coronary artery disease (CAD) in a patient?

A

Elevated level of LDL and decreased level of HDL

140
Q

If a patient’s history indicates that the cardiac valve disease is autosomal dominant, which diagnosis will the nurse observe written in the chart?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

141
Q

A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures does the nurse assess for in this patient?

A

Right-sided heart failure

142
Q

A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment finding is typical for this patient?

A

Productive cough

143
Q

Pulmonary edema and atelectasis are examples of ________ pulmonary disease.

A

restrictive

144
Q

Underlying the pathophysiology of ARDS is massive pulmonary:

A

inflammation

145
Q

A patient asks the nurse what is most closely associated with the development of lung cancer? How should the nurse respond?

A

Cigarette smoking

146
Q

A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus, Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?

A

D-dimer levels

147
Q

Which term will the nurse use to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia?

A

clubbing

148
Q

A patient has adenocarcinoma of the lungs, What type of cancer does this patient have?

A

A tumor arising from the lung glands

149
Q

A patient has a pneumothorax. Which action by the nurse is most important for this patient?

A

Monitoring the chest tube

150
Q

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which information should the nurse include? All disorders associated with ARDS cause massive pulmonary:

A

inflammation

151
Q

Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?

A

felling short of breath

152
Q

The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by:

A

Immunologi and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons

153
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by:

A

Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion

154
Q

While reviewing a patient’s health history, which finding will most alert the nurse to the possible development of chronic subdural hematoma?

A

prior brain atrophy

155
Q

Acquired chronic autoimmune disease mediated by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction:

A

Myasthenia gravis

156
Q

A patient has a saccular aneurysm. What term can the nurse use to describe this type of aneurysm?

A

Berry

157
Q

The nurse suspects that the spinal cord-injury patient is experiencing autonomic hyperreflexia. Which symptoms would support this suspicion?

A

headache and hypertension

158
Q

In classic cerebral concussion, consciousness is lost for up to how many hours?

A

6

159
Q

A degenerative disorder of both upper and lower motor neurons that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting:

A

Amyotrophic lteral sclerosis (ALS), also know as Lou Gehrig disease

160
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury. Which term should the nurse use when describing the injury?

A

blunt trauma

161
Q

A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. What term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?

A

Spinal shock

162
Q

A 14-year-old girl has failed to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics. What term is used to describe this condition?

A

primary amenorrhea

163
Q

What term is used when describing the occurrence of sexual maturation in girls before the age of 6 and in boys before the age of 9?

A

precocious puberty

164
Q

Dermoid cysts are tumors that contain elements of skin, hair, glands, muscle, cartilage, and bone that can eventually develop into:

A

ovarian cancer

165
Q

Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include:

A

obesity, early menarche, and late menopause

166
Q

Exposure in utero to non-steroidal estrogens (diethylstilbestrol [DES]) also has been identified as a risk factor for:

A

vaginal cancer

167
Q

Which cancer is the nurse testing for when the Papanicolaou test (Pap Smear) is used for routine screening?

A

Cervical cancer

168
Q

An abnormal dilation of a vein withing the spermatic cord that can lead to infertility is known as a:

A

varcocele

169
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome results in stimulation of follicle growth without ovulation and generally leads to:

A

infertility

170
Q

Benign ovarian cysts are classified as:

A

Follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid

171
Q

What intervention is recommended for patients with benign breast disease?

A

monitoring the intake of caffeine and chocolate