All COMLEX STEP 2 Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What are Head CT findings in a 45 year old caucasian male w frequent sudden jerky movements of upper extremities. Irritability, does not visit family/friends, decline in professional performance. Father died in nursing home w similar symptoms.

What is tx for motor sx?

A

Huntington’s chorea - Atrophy of caudate nucleus

Tx for motor sx: Tetrabenazine
–“orphan drug” - only indication is huntington’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is dx?
Skin rash, joint pain, malaise, fatigue, hx of IV drugs, palpable purpura, hepatosplenomegaly
Urinalysis: hematuria, rbc casts, proteinuria
Serum: low complement, positive Anti-HCV

A

Mixed essential cryoglobinemia - palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria

  • cryoglobinemia - protein ppt in refrigerated serum+plasma
  • –palpable purpura, arthralgia, myalgia (small-medium vasculitis)

a/w hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the LDL goal in a patient with CAD? What is the normal

A

LDL < 100 mg/dL in CAD

100 - 129 in healthy pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are pathological q waves (what does it mean? how can you tell it’s pathological?)

A

Prior MI
Width > 1mm (1 small box)
depth >25% of QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What ECG findings are in a positive exercise stress test?

what other findings indicate a positive stress test?

A

ST segment depression = subendocardial ischemia

Decreased Thallium 201 (Dipyridamole) uptake, CP, Hypotension, Arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the standard of care for Stable Angina?

A

Aspirin + B-blocker, nitrates for CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are Unstable angina and NSTEMI differentiated? How are they similar?

A

no elevated troponin or CK-MD in Unstable angina

both do not have elevated ST segments or pathological Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the medical management of Unstable Angina?

A

Aspirin, Clopidogrel, B-blockers, LMWH (Enoxaparin), Nitrates, O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities are often seen in unstable angina?

A

Hypokalemia

Hypomagnesemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In what case can Troponin I be falsely elevated?

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do Troponin levels peak and return to normal levels?

A

increase within 3 to 5 hours
peak in 24 to 48 hours
returns to normal in 5 to 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do CK-MB levels peak and return to normal. How often should they be measured?

A

peaks in 24 hours
returns to normal in 48 to 72 hours

measured upon admission and taken every 8 hours for the next 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which are the only agents shown to reduce mortality in MI?

A

Aspirin
B-blockers
ACE-i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Dx?
Pt w pmh of MI few months ago presents w fever, malaise, pericarditis, leukocytosis, pleuritis

what is Tx?

A

Dressler’s syndrome (immuno dz)

Tx: Aspirin, second line: Ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is most likely Dx:

Ovarian US - mass with thick septations, solid components, peritoneal free fluid

A

Ovarian malignancy

elevated CA-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is Hemothorax differentiated from Pulmonary contusion in a trauma patient?

A

Hemothorax - CXR shows PLEURAL EFFUSION

Pulmonary contusion - CXR shows ALVEOLAR OPACITIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the probable cause of easy bruising/epistaxis in a cystic fibrosis patient? What will be found at decreased levels

A

Vitamin K:
Factors II, VII, IX, X, C, S

Increased PT, INR
Normal PTT (unless severe deficiency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the initial Tx of most symptomatic Systolic CHF patients?

A

ACEi + Diuretic (Furosemide or HCTZ)

ACEi - reduce mortality

Hyponatremia in CHF patients parallels severity of HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common cause of death in CHF?

A

sudden death from Ventricular arrhythmias

–Ischemia provokes ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which medications are contraindicated in patients with CHF? (4)

A
  1. Metformin - can cause lethal lactic acidosis
  2. TZD’s (pioglitazone)- fluid retention
  3. NSAIDs - risk of CHF exacerbation
  4. Negative inotropic antiarrhythmics (Diltiazem, Verapamil, etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is diastolic CHF managed? what should not be used?

A

B-blockers
Diuretics (lasix)
ACEi

should NOT: Digoxin, Spironolactone,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cardiac manifestation of Marfan’s syndrome?
second?

A
  1. Mitral Valve prolapse

2. Aortic Root dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc Score?

A
Congestive Heart Failure
Hypertension
Her (female)
Age >75 - 2 points
Diabetes Mellitus
Stroke Hx
Vascular dz hx
Age 65-74 - 1 point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should the height and weight be of a 12 month old child relative to their birth weight and height?

A

weight should triple

height should increase by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are pediatric symptoms of DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

22q11.2 deletion

  1. Conotruncal heart defect (ToF, Truncus arteriosus, VSD, interrupted aortic arch)
  2. Hypocalcemia (muscle twitches)
  3. Cleft palate
  4. immunodeficiency
  5. renal abnormalities
  6. hypoplasia of thymus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dx of 3 week old?

  1. large fontanelles
  2. poor feeding, decreased activity
  3. decreased stooling
  4. macroglossia
A

Congenital hypothyroidism

poor growth, dev delay, dry skin, hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is dx in 3 month old male?

thrombocytopenia (hematochezia, melena, epistaxis), eczema, immunodeficiency

A

Wiskott- Aldrich (X-linked defect of WAsp gene)
–involved w cytoskeleton remodeling

tx: supportive, IVIG, steroids, platelet transfusions
* *Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are complications of a twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome in monochorionic twins?

A

donor twin - hypovolemia, anemia, oligohydramnios (fetus appears stuck to uterine wall), small of gestational age

recipient twin - hypervolemia, plethora, polyhydramnios, CHF, JAUNDICE (excess rbc’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
What is dx:
sensorimotor neuropathy w stocking-glove distribution
painful hypersensitivity, hyporeflexia
hypo and hyper pigmentation of skin
hyperkeratosis of palms and sole

Labs: anemia, elevated AST, ALT

what is the management?

A

Arsenic Poisoning

Tx: Dimercaprol, DMSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the following reflexes:

  1. C5
  2. C6
  3. C7
  4. L4
  5. S1
A
  1. Biceps
  2. Brachioradialis
  3. Triceps
  4. Patellar
  5. Achilles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some ways you can differentiate Squamous Cell Ca with Basal Cell Ca

A

SCC: ulcerated, occurs more commonly in IMMUNOSUPPRESSED pts, NEURO invasion (Sx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the next best step in management for:

  1. large burn that is black, dry, numb
  2. superficial, partial thickness burn
A
  1. immediate excision, skin grafting

2. silver sulfadizine, triple abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cirrhosis pt w ascites, 102 fever, Paracentesis shows pmn leukocyte count 350/mm^3

What is most appropriate management?

A

3rd gen cephalosporin (Cefotaxime)

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) - PMN count >250/mm^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pt w 2 week cough followed by vomiting or sweating. 99.3, normal cxr, leukocytosis

  1. what is dx, management?
  2. what is second line?
A
  1. Bordetella pertussis (whoop) - Azithromycin/macrolides

2. TMP-SMX - if pt allergic to macolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the management of scabies?

A

Permethrin 5% cream applied to the neck down

or Oral Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is organism/tx?
profuse watery diarrhea, fevers, abd tenderness
stool culture: H2S negative, nonmobile, non-lactose-fermenting bacteria

A

Shigella - negative: motility, H2S, lactose fermentation

Tx: Ciprofloxacin, Azithromycin, Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What empiric abx should be given to a CF child with a concurrent influenza infection and recurrent skin infections?

A

Vancomycin

–S. aureus is most common pathogenic organism in young children w CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What time period should pt respond to antidepressants before switching meds?

what additional med can be added as augmentation?

A

8 weeks - lithium can be added

also - aripiprazole, olanzepine, quetiapine, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What tests should be run before prescribing lithium to a 29 year old female?

A

BUN
Cr
Thyroid fxn studies
pregnancy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the first line treatment for OCD?

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy = Most effective

Paroxetine (SSRI) = first line medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A schizophrenic on high doses of lithium and risperidone develops tardive dyskinesia. what is the next best step?

A

Switch to clozapine if pt is symptomatic with dosage reduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which muscles should muscle energy be directed for the following ribs?

  1. first rib
  2. second rib
  3. 3-5
  4. 6-9
  5. 10-11
A
  1. Anterior Scalene
  2. Posterior Scalene
  3. Pec Minor
  4. Serratus Anterior
  5. Lat Dorsi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is a Serum Ascites Albumin gradient interpreted?

A

Paracentesis

SAAG > 1.1 = portal hypertension is extremely likely to be cause of ascites (ie CHF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is most likely dx/affected structure:

Weightloss, cheilitis, hyperglycemia, elevated serum glucagon, decreased amino acids

A

Glucagonoma - pancreatic alpha cells

amino acids are reduced from gluconeogenesis from amino acids

US/CT scan
Sx relief - octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the genetic disorder involved with Familial adenomatous polyposis?

when should screening begin in pts w a fam hx of FAP?

A

Autosomal dominant mutation in the tumor suppressor gene, APC, located on chromosome 5

Flexible sigmoidoscopy or Colonoscopy starting at PUBERTY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is likely dx?
60 yr old w hoarseness, firm solitary nodule in thyroid gland, cervical lymphadenopathy
labs show elevated calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma - originates from parafollicular cells (C cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What endocrine disorder shows
low calcium
elevated phosphate
elevated PTH?

what is associated dx? how to differentiate?

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism - target organ resistance to PTH

a/w

  1. Renal failure
  2. Albrights hereditary osteodystrophy (bone deformation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the next best step in treatment for an afib pt who overdosed on their meds. INR level is 10.1

A

Vitamin K replacement
(II, VII, IX, X, C, S)

use Fresh Frozen Plasma if there is active bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is MATERNAL AFP measured? what is it used to determine?

What is the workup for elevated AFP?

A

15-20 weeks - detect open neural tube defects, multiple gestations, abdominal wall defects

–US
then amniocentesis for AFP, Acetylcholinesterase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the treatment choice for endometriosis?

A

NSAIDs + OCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is most likely dx:
17 year old w US findings of 8cm ovarian cyst w calcifications and hyperechoic nodules

what are pt’s at higher risk for?

A

Cystic Teratoma = Dermoid Ovarian Cyst

Ovarian Torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is dx?
Fever, flank/abdominal pain, weight loss, generalized muscle ache, foot drop. lacy, red rash on extremities. arthralgia

elevated ESR, leukocytosis, Hep B Ag, proteinuria, elevated serum Cr.

A

Polyarteritis nodosa - systemic, abd pain, neuro, cardiac dz (chf, htn, arrhythmias), skin rashes

—vasculitis that affects small-medium vessels

-Strong association with Hep B*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which structure is at risk in a fracture of the humeral shaft?

A
Radial N (lies in radial groove)
--wrist drop, extensor weakness, paresthesia on back of the hand.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are electrolyte/hormonal serum findings in: (4)
55 year old smoker w 3 day hx of hematuria, fever, left flank pain. palpable flank mass. US reveals localized renal mass.

A

Renal cell Ca paraneoplastic syndromes:

  1. Polycythemia (increased EPO)
  2. Cushing’s
  3. HTN (increased renin)
  4. Hypercalcemia (PTH-like hormone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are withdrawal Sx of:

  1. cocaine
  2. opioids
A
  1. dysphoria, excessive sleep, hunger

2. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, abdominal/leg cramping. piloerection, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dilated pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

28 year old R breast mass. no fam hx. mass is 2cm, nontender, mobile, firm in RUQ.

  1. which test should be ordered?
  2. most appropriate diagnostic modality?
  3. next best step?
A

Fibroadenoma

  1. Ultrasound
  2. Fine needle biopsy/aspiration
  3. observe for 1 menstrual cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are sx of spondylolisthesis

A

Anterior displacement of a vertebrae:
low back pain
waddling gait
tight hamstrings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What of Sx of cauda equina syndrome?

A
Sciatica
Low back pain
decreased DTR
Saddle anesthesia
bladder/bowel dysfunction
motor/sensory deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Whens should colonoscopies begin i pts with Lynch syndrome (Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer)

A

every 1 to 2 years beginning at 20-25 or
10 years prior to the earliest colorectal cancer dx in the family

HNPCC: colorectal, ovarian, gastric, biliary tract, brain, prostate, skin, ENDOMETRIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are 4 manifestations of MEN Type IIB

A
  1. Marfanoid body habitus
  2. pheochromocytoma
  3. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
  4. Mucosal neuromas (ie tumor of the tongue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do you calculate Number needed to treat from Absolute risk reduction?

A

NNT = 1/ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the most common sequela after bacterial meningitis?

A

sensorineural hearing loss - children should be followed up with audiometry

other less common sequela: seizures, cranial N palsies, cognitive deficits, ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which STI is associated with Nephropathy w renal bx showing IgG and C3 deposits at basement membrane w a spike-dome appearance?

A
Syphilis - Membranous Glomerulonephritis
HBV
HCV
malaria
malignancy
SLE
gold salts
penicillamine

Tx: prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the management of Torsades de pointes in:

  1. unstable pts
  2. stable and conscious pts
A
  1. defibrillation

2. IV magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the treatment for post partum endometritis

A

Clindamycin + Gentamicin

-ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how is an exhalation dysfunction of rib 5 treated with muscle energy?

A
pt lays supine
ipsilateral hand on forehead
grab key rib angle posteriorly
pt holds breath in full inhalation + push ipsilateral elbow towards contralat ASIS
Raise key rib (push inf on rib angle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where would a chapman’s point be found in a pt with colon cancer?

A

ANTERIOR iliotibial band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is dx?
Seizure, fatigue, jaundice. hx of bloody diarrhea. Febrile, lower extremity petechiae. Hgb 9.2, mcv 90 fL, platelet count 70,000, total bilirubin 3.0 (direct 0.3) Cr 4.5. peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)/Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

FAT RN: fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal dz, Neuro dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pt has hx of spinal cord injury. He experiences diaphoresis, flushing, headache. Needs frequent catheterization.

Where is location of lesion?

A

T6 or above - autonomic dysreflexia/hyperreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the USPSTF recommendation for mammography in pt w no fam hx?
ACOG recommendation?

A

mammogram every other year starting at 50-75

ACOG suggests annually at 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are risk factors for PPROM?

what is the management?

A
genital tract infection
smoking
grand multiparity
polyhydramnios
previous PROM/PPROM
  1. <34 weeks
    - no signs of fetal compromise = Abx, steroids, surveillance
    - fetal compromise = Abx, steroids, Mg if <32 wks, delivery
  2. 34 to <37 weeks: Abx, +/- steroids, Delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are the differences in findings in Rotor syndrome and Dubin Johnson?
Urinalysis?

A

Rotor - normal liver color, elevated urine coproporphyrin
–Coproporphyrin III makes up 80% of urine coproporphyrin

Dubin-Johnson - darkly pigmented liver
–Coproporphyrin I make up 80% of urine coproporphyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the most appropriate dx test in suspected multiple myeloma?

A

urine protein electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the first line therapy for OCD?

A

CBT + clomipramine (TCA) or an SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the treatment of GBS? what is it associated with?

A

a/w influenza vaccine

Tx: Plasmapheresis or IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What medications are used to treat adrenal insufficiency (gluco/mineralo)

A

Hydrocortisone - replacement of mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid

Fludrocortisone - replaces just Mineralocorticoid

Prednisone - replaces just glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the best management in a pt w a fam hx of colon cancer. recent colonoscopy shows over 400 polyps, bx shows adenomatous

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis - Autosomal dominant

–Total colectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the 5 components of the primary respiratory mechanism?

A
  1. Inherent motion of the brain and spinal cord
  2. Fluctuation of CSF
  3. Mobility of intracranial and intraspinal membrane
  4. Articular mobility of cranial bones
  5. involuntary mobility of sacrum between ilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which vertebral segments are treated with muscle energy using patient’s head?

A

T1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the work up for a low risk patient who has 2 cm centrally located nodule with calcifications in bullseye pattern seen on CT/

A

low risk pt (no smoking, under 50)

-2 years of serial chest CTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are components of MEN type 1 (Wermer’s syndrome)

A

Autosomal dominant
tumors of:
1. parathyroid (hyperparathyroidism)
2. pancreatic islet cells (insulinomas, gastrinomas)
3. pituitary gland (hyperprolactinemia, GH secretion, gynecomastia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is dx:

pt started on haloperidol three days ago presents w oculogyric crisis

A

Acute dystonia - hours to days after starting antipsychotic (neuroleptic) drugs

-extrapyramidal movement disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is dx: pt on fluphenazine for 15 months w involuntary tapping of lower extremities, abnormal twisting movement of the right leg

A

Tardive dyskinesia

–TIMING is important (months or years after start of meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are 3 adverse affects of oxytocin overdose?

A
  1. Uterine Tachysystole
  2. Hyponatremia - oxytocin has similar structure to ADH = water retention
  3. Hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the indications/contraindications for:

  1. Tamoxifen
  2. Raloxifene
A
  1. decreases post menopausal osteoporosis, increases risk for endometrial carcinoma, Hot flashes
  2. same as tamoxifen, does NOT increase risk for endometrial carcinoma, also DECREASES breast cancer risk.

both are contraindicated if hx of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Minimal change dz:

  1. Sx
  2. Light microscopy findings
  3. electron microscopy findings
  4. Tx
A
  1. edema, fatigue, abdominal pain, PROTEINURIA in children (usually <10)
  2. normal
  3. diffuse effacement of foot processes of podocytes (Tcell mediated)
  4. Corticosteroids (bx is reserved for steroid resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of Tardive dyskinesia

A

A/w dopamine blocking agents (antipsychotics)

- dopamine receptor supersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the cause of an anion gap acidosis in a pt who just experienced a general tonic clonic seizure. What is the next step

A

Postictal lactic acidosis - from skeletal muscle hypoxia

–Observe and repeat labs in 2 hours, usually self limited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does the following measure:

  1. PT, INR
  2. PTT
A
  1. Extrinsic system (Tissue factor, VII)

2. Intrinsic system (XII, XI, VIII, IX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How is multifocal atrial tachycardia identified on EKG?

A
  • 3 or more different P-wave morphologies in the same lead
  • HR greater than 100 beats per minute
  • irregularly irregular rhythm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are CBC findings of Polycythemia Vera?

A

Increased phenotypically normal RBC’s, granulocytes, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the viscerosomatic levels for lower ureters and bladder?

A

T11-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing RSV, parainfluenza?

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoantibodies against NICOTINIC post-synaptic acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What type of psychiatric medication can cause hyperprolactinemia?

A

Antipsychotics - especially typical

–ie fluphenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the mechanism involved in symptoms relief with parkinson’s medication?

A

supplement dopamin
decrease cholinergic activity
(Benztropine + trihexyphenidyl = anticholinergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the difference between ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning

A

methanol - optic disc hyperemia, eye damage

ethylene glycol - kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the mechanism of thyrotoxicosis in a new born to a mother with graves disease?

A

Transplacental TSH-receptor ANTIBODY

–Methimazole + B blocker is given to symptomatic pt’s until condition self resolves in few weeks/months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which vitamin deficiency can result in neutropenia

hypochromic anemia

A

Copper deficiency - occurs in premature infants, absorption disorders, genetic disorders

Sx: anemia, osteoporosis, leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is a dx of a 45 year old pt w depressed mood for a year after her son moved out. Weight gain, sleep for 15 hours. briefly cheers up when son visits her.

A

Atypical Depression - mood reactivity + 2 of the following:

–weight gain, increased appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, sensitivity to rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is dx:

45 year old female w abd pain, diarrhea, steatorrhea, cholelithiasis and diabetes mellitus

A

Somatostatinoma - somatostatin secreting tumors of the duodenum of delta cells of pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is dx:

35 year old pt w 7 year hx of ocp use has 2 cm hepatic tumor. No abd pain. US shows central scar on tumor

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia - “CENTRAL SCAR”

benign - continue oral contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What occurs at each axis of the sacrum:

  1. superior transverse axis
  2. Middle transverse axis
  3. Inferior transverse axis
A
  1. respiratory and inherent sacral motion
  2. postural motion (bending over)
  3. innominate rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the empirical treatment of bacterial meningitis in a nonimmunocompromised host? Close contacts? Where are organisms usually carried in close contacts

A

Neisseria = Petechial rash

Vancomycin
Ceftriaxone
Steroids

Ciprofloxacin, Ceftriaxone, or Rifampin for close contacts - organisms in NASOPHARYNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the causative organism of Tinea Versicolor? KOH findings?

Tx?

A

Malassezia globosa
-Spaghetti & meatball pattern of hyphae and yeast

Tx: topical ketoconazole, topical terbinafine, selenium sulfide lotion/shampoo

or oral -azole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

5 year old pt w enlargement of clitoris. puberty tanner stage 4. Lab studies show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia. What is the most appropriate test to order?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

–order Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is dx classification and treatment? 17 year old w cough that occurs throughout the day and awaken at night every night. Pt is dx w asthma

A

Severe Persistent Asthma

Tx: inhaled high dose glucocorticoids, inhaled LABA, SAB2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the appropriate next step in a 52 year old male that has 2 cm central nodule in L lung, 3 cm central nodule in R lung. Bx shows Small cell carcinoma

A

Chemotherapy - SCLC located centrally, considered a systemic disease
(surgical tx is uncommon cause SCLC is usually spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is most likely organism:
5 year old male w maculopapular rash that started on face, spreading to neck and extremities. Says he is experiencing “bone pain” Suboccipital lymphadenopathy

A

Rubella (Togavirus/German measles)

  • -suboccipital/postauricular lymphadenopathy
  • -maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads caudally.
  • -Arthralgias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the likely organism:
3 year old w high fever given supportive therapy. Fever resolves 3 days later, and child returns w maculopapular rash that started on the trunk w spreading to neck

A

HHV6 (Roseola infantum, exanthem subitum, sixth dz)

-2-5 day self limiting fever, followed by maculopapular rash that starts on trunk and spreads to neck/extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How are Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs dz differentiated?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly is NOT present in Tay-Sachs

N-P: sphingomyelinase deficiency
TS: hexosaminidase A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How is a exhalation dysfunction of the first, second, third ribs on the left treated w muscle energy?

A

look straight ahead and pt lifts head anteriorly. physician grasps rib angle posteriorly and resists anterior head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the difference between bulimia and anorexia?

what is first line treatment for Anorexia?

A

anorexia = body weight < 85% expected, fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, amenorrhea
—Tx: Nutritional rehab + Psychotherapy
bulimia = patient of normal weight/overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are pts w klinefelters at higher risk for? most common type? Sx?

A

extragonadal germ cell tumor

  • -Mediastinal nonseminomatous germ cell tumor = most common!
  • —–mediastinal mass = chest pain, chronic cough, SVC syndrome, Horner syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is most appropriate management of Variant Angina (Prinzmetal)

A

Calcium channel blockers (diltizem, etc)

Long acting nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is first workup step in pt w syncope?

A

Electrocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the next step in a pt already on metformin with an A1C of 7.9%?

A

Add sulfonylurea (Glyburide, etc) if A1C is b/w 7 and 8.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Why is HVLA contraindicated in Down Syndrome patients?

A

weakness of the alar and transverse ligaments = can result in dens moving posteriorly = quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is:

  1. Colles Fracture
  2. Boxer’s Fracture
  3. Monteggia’s fracture
  4. Galeazzi’s fracture
  5. Nightstick fracture
A
  1. distal end of radius is bent dorsally (dmg to median nerve)
  2. fx of fifth metacarpal (tx: closed reduction and splint)
  3. fx of ULNAR shaft w dislocation of RADIAL head
  4. Diaphyseal fracture of DISTAL RADIUS w DISRUPTION of radioulnar joint
  5. fx of ulnar shaft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are symptoms of roseola infantum

A

rash that starts on trunk and spreads peripherally AFTER fever typically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are Sx of Erythema Infectiosum

A

Parvovirus B19 (5th dz)

  • -fever, nasal, congestion that last for a few days
  • -followed by “slapped cheeks” then ery thematous rash begins on arms and spreads to trunk and fades in lace like pattern.

Acute Arthralgia/arthritis (resemble RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the management of a scaphoid fracture w a normal radiograph?

A

casting for 10 days and REIMAGING (signs of healing should appear)

-surgical exploration if displacement >1mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are serum changes in Wilson dz?

A
Decreased total serum copper
Increased free copper
decreased ceruloplasmin
Hypoalbuminemia
elevated aminotransferases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the most appropriated test to confirm dx of Cardiac tamponade?

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
What is dx in newborn:
polydactyly
meningomyelocele
rocker-bottom feet
cleft palate
eye malformations
GI/cardiac/renal dz
A

Trisomy 13 - Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
What is dx in newborn:
intellectural disability
microcephaly
micrognathia
clenched fist
prominent occiput
rocker-bottom feet
hypertelorism
A

Trisomy 18 - Edward’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are liver manifestations of oral contraceptive use? what other risk factors? management?

A

Hepatic adenoma - OCPs, Anabolic steroids, glycogen storage dz

  • Tx:
    1. Discontinue OCPs
    2. Surgical resection IF SYMPTOMATIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How is Cdiff dx’d?

A

C diff toxin PCR

(EIA assay has lower sensitivity but higer specificity) - slower test, often used in conjunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

When should umbilical hernias be treated in children?

A

if it has not spontaneously reduced by 4 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

dx? Tx?

16 year old w maculopapular rash, allergic rhinitis, asthma, positive for p-ANCA

A

Churg-Strauss (allergic granulomatosis)

Tx: glucocorticoids + immunosupressive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is a medication that may be used to reduce incidence of PUD a/w NSAIDs? sidefx?

A

Misoprostol
side fx = abd pain, diarrhea

(NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the two DIAGNOSTIC tests for syphilis?

A
  1. Dark field microscopy

2. direct fluorescence antibody testing of lesion tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Upon itiating abx for Group A strep, the patient is considered contagious for how long?

A

1-2 days on abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are 3 first line drugs for maternal hypertensive crisis?

A
  1. IV Hydralazine - vasodilator
  2. IV Labetalol - DONT use w bradycardia (<60bpm)
  3. PO Nifedipine - difficult to use w emesis

*Methyldopa is used for chronic maternal htn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How do you treat an acute psychotic episode in a pt that has previously responded to haloperidol but experienced extrapyramidal symptoms?

A

Second generation antipsychotics:

  1. ziprasidone (low metabolic risk)
  2. Olanzapine (high metabolic risk)
  3. Lurasidone
  4. Aripiprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Dx? Immediate management?
Newborn w resp distress. Prenatal US shows polyhydramnios. O2 sats 82%. Exam shows nasal flaring, grunting, barrel shaped chest. Absent breath sounds on L. Normal aeration of R side. Heart sounds are loudest in R chest. Abdomen is Scaphoid

A

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia - polyhydramnios can occur from esophgeal compression.

  • concave abdomen
  • barrel shaped chest

Management - Emergency intubation (mask ventilation risks aerating stomach, further compromising lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the cause of decreased total calcium in a patient w nephrotic syndrome?

A
Decreased Albumin = decreased total calcium (bound to albumin)
Q
Ionized Ca (physio active form) are still at normal levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the management of uncomplicated chronic low back pain?

A

Chronic > 12 weeks

Tx: Exercise therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is dx:
50 yr old postmenopausal female w 2 day hx of vaginal spotting. Phys exam shows thin female w large adnexal mass. US shows endometrial thickening. No evidence of hirsutism/virilization

A

Granulosa-theca cell tumor
–hormonally active = hyperextrogenism

(Sertoli-Leydig = androgen = virilization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is most common cause of pancreatitis in children/adolescents?

A

Blunt trauma to abdomen

-Sx: epigastric pain radiating to back + N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is difference b/w postpartum blues and postpartum depression?

A

Blues - appear within first weeks and remit by end of 2 weeks postpartum

Depression - delayed from 2 weeks to 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is causative organism:
24 yr old breast feeding pt presents w pain in left nipple. No fevers, chills, fatigue. Nipple is erythematous, shiny, w flaky skin at areola. No erythema of breast.

A

Candida albicans - pain, burning, redness of NIPPLE, shiny appearance

  • -Azole cream for nipple
  • -Check infants mouth for thrush, give oral azole to infant

(S. aureus causes nipple cracks/fissures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism? Second most common? Tx? Localization technique?

A
  1. Parathyroid adenoma
  2. Parathyroid hyperplasia

Surgical excision - localize w Sestamibi scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are 3 relative contraindicatiosn to lymphatic omm treatments?

A

Metastatic Cancer
Disseminated/Febrile infections
Chronic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How is the diagnosis of boerhaave syndrome made? (2 ways)

A

Chest CT

Iodinated contrast esophagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are 3 indications for long term oxygen therapy in COPD patients?

A
  1. SaO2 < 88%
  2. PaO2 <55 mmHg
  3. PaO2 55-59 mmHg if right sided HF or erythrocytosis are present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

When is excisional bx of a breast mass indicated?

A
  1. All palpable dominant breast masses in women over 50
  2. Masses that persist after FNA (except fibroadenomas)
  3. Bloody aspirate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What level are somatic visceral changes present in a pt w UC in the sigmoid colon? what other organs share this visceral level

A

T12-L2

  • distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending, sigmoid colon, rectum
  • prostate
  • lower ureter
  • bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is likely dx:
30 year old smoker w nonproductive cough, SOB. CXR shows bilateral nodules/cysts, Lytic lesions of the ribs.

what protein will be expressed on these cells?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

  • -proliferation of specialized bone marrow-derived Langerhans cells.
  • -Dyspnea, Non-productive cough, fatigue, weight loss.
  • -CXR = bilateral nodules, cysts, honey combing (interstitial), boney lesions of ribs

*CD1a is used to identify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what is the dx test for infantile botulism?

A

Stool C. botulinum toxin assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is dx? most specific lab test?
35 yr old female w fatigue, white finger tips in cold weather. dysphagia, small blood vessels on her body. Skin has hard nodular type lesions on upper extremities, tightness of skin

A
CREST syndrome:
Calcinosis
Raynaud's
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias

Anti-centromere Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is the first line tx of tourettes? What are 4 comorbidities?

A

Typical Antipsychotics (haloperidol, fluphenazine)

Comorbidities

  • ADHD
  • OCD
  • learning disorders
  • conduct disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is the workup for elevated prolactin levels?

A

MRI of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what is the most common cause of PUD? what is the most common blood type associated?

A

H. pylori infection

G”A”stric ulcers - Type A
Du”O”denal ulcers - Type O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What 2 lab findings are used to monitor response of osteomyelitis to therapy?

A

ESR and CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is the time period required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the 3 most common risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. fam hx
  3. Marfans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is most likely dx:

2 year old w bloody nose. Has unilateral nasal discharge w foul smell.

A

Foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is first line treatment of Fibromyalgia?

What is first line med?

What are other three drugs that are approved for management.

A

Initial: pt edu, regular aerobic exercise, good sleep hygiene

First line med: TCA’s (Amitryiptline)

Others if nor responding to TCA:

  1. duloxetine (SNRI)
  2. milnacipran (SNRI)
  3. pregabalin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are treatments for acute mania/psychosis?

A

Antipsychotics (Olanzapine is IM and has rapid onset)
Lithium
Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers (valproate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is most likely congental heart defect?
1 week old w central cyanosis. ECG shows left axis deviation. holosystolic murmur at left lower sternal border. fam hx has maternal uncle who dies from hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

Tricuspid valve atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is cause? what should be done?
COPD pt has exacerbation. He is given inhaled bronchodilators, systemic steroids, high-flow facial mask oxygen, IV lorazepam. He becomes lethargic and confused and experiences a general tonic-clonic seizure

A

Carbon dioxide retention

  • -high flow oxygen causes loss of compensatory vasoconstriction = worsens V/Q mismatch
  • -Increase in oxyhemoglobin reduces uptake of CO2 from Haldane effeect
  • -decrease respiratory drive/minute ventilation

*O2 sats should be titarted to 90%-94%
or paO2 between 60-65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in children w Edwards?

A

Trisomy 18

  • VSD
  • microcephaly, micrognathia
  • absent palmar creases
  • rocker bottom feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is management of Community-acquired pneumonia? Criteria and treatment

A
CURB-65:
Confusion
Uremia (BUN > 20)
Resp rate > 30
BP < 90 systolic or < 60 diastolic
Age > 65

Scoring:
<2 outpt w Macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin) or Doxycycline
=2 inpt w respiratory fluoroquinolone or Macrolide w Beta-lactam
>3 ICU w B-lactam/resp fluoroquinolone or B-lactam/Macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the treatment choice for Acute Otitis Media in a child?

A

Amoxicillin (S.pneumo, M. cata, H. flu)

Augmentin - if pt had amoxicillin within past 30 days. or Sx dont improve after 48 to 72 hrs on high-dose amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are the classifications of Scoliosis?

A
  1. Mild: 5-15, treated w OMT, PT
  2. Moderate: 20-45, tx orthotics, PT, OMT
  3. Severe: >50 - surg intervention

> 50: Resp compromise
75: Cardiac compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is dx: 30 yr old male w scrotal mass: 2 cm cystic, transilluminates located superior and posterior to testis

A

Spermatocele

Hydrocele are Ant + Lat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What should happen before administering Rh(D) immune globulin in a pt w placental abruption

A

Rh(D) typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is dx:
40 yr old recently visited Wisconsin. Cough, fever, chest pain, severe arthralgia. Non-pruritic verrucous/ulcerating skin lesions

Tx?
Appearance?

A

Blastomycosis

  • Midwest/Southcentral States
  • Fever, cough, CP, weightloss, painless VERRUCOUS/Ulcerated skin lesions
  • Bone lesions
  • CNS disease

KOH: broad based budding
Tx: Itraconazole, Amph B if dissemiated/HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is the management of a

  1. pleural effusion
  2. empyema
A
  1. therapeutic thoracentesis for large or symptomatic transudative/malignant exudative
  2. Chest tube + empiric IV Abx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is dx:

1 month old w jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, cataracts, cardiac murmur, hearing loss

A

Rubella Virus

  • cataracts
  • hearing loss
  • “blueberry muffin” rash
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • intellectual/dev disability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is management of bat bite in pt:

  1. vaccinated
  2. unvaccinated
A

Vaccinated: irrigation + 2 doses of rabies vaccine prophylaxis

Unvaccinated: irrigation + passively immunized + 4 doses of rabies vaccine prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is dx? most specific test?
70 year old pt w nasal congestion, shortness of breath, hemoptysis
ESR 60 mm/hr and WBC 11,000. Urine has red cells, red cell casts

A

Granulomatosis w polyangiitis (Wegeners)

–C-ANCA (abs against proteinase-3)

-Upper + Lower Resp Sx + Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is most effect Tx for pt w rhinitis during the fall. pt’s father was dx’d w atopic conjunctivitis

A

Dx: Allergic rhinitis (most significant risk factor = fam hx of atopy or asthma)

Tx: Intranasal corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is first line treatemtn of hemodynamicaly unstable pt w confirmed or highly suspected pulmonary embolsm?

A

tPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

How is Meckels diverticulum diagnosed? Tx?

A

Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan

Tx: Surgical exicision
-can lead to intestinal obstruction, volvulus, intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is dx and next workup step in 54 yr multiparous woman w 5 month hx of urinary incontinence. admits to urinary frequency, dribbling, hesitancy. second step shows large postvoid residual volume.

What is appropriate tx?

A

Overflow incontinence - Urinalysis

Tx - Self-catheterization and treating underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is dx:
32 year old at 38 weeks gestation. hx of cesarean delivery. intially at 6cm dilated 60% effaced, fetal head at 0 station. She experiences intense lower abdominal pain. moderate vaginal bleeding, cervix is 6cm dilated, 60% effaced, fetal head at -3 station. Fetal heart rate is tachy w variable decelerations

A

Uterine Rupture

  • loss of fetal station is pathognomonic
  • occurs at scar of prior cesasean delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

70 year old pt has BP of 165/75. ECG shows LVH. What is cause of HTN?

A

Rigidity of arterial wall

- isolated SYSTOLIC HTN (sys>140, dia<90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is the dx criteria fro Adjustment disorder w depressed mood? Tx?

A

Onsent within 3 months of identifiable stressor

Marked distress &/or functional impairment

Tx: psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the cause of swelling in hands and feet of a newborn w Turner’s syndrome?

A

Lymphatic network dysgenesis

–severe obstruction can result in cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are the first 4 steps in early neonatal care in an uncomplicated pregnancy?

A
  1. Initial physical assessment (APGAR)
  2. removal of airway secretions
  3. drying infant, keep warm
  4. early preventatie measures (silver nitrated eye drops, vitamin K)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

How long should a patient continue antidepressant tx after achieving remission of depressive symptoms

A

continue for an additional 6 months in a pt w single-episode unipolar major depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is difference between Marfan’s syndrome and Homocystinuria

A

Marfan’s: Autosomal dominant, Fibrillin abnormality, Long fingers, Scoliosis, ECTOPIC LENTIS, LOOSE JOINTS

Homocystinuria: marfanoid habitus, Mental retardation, Osteoporosis, LENS SUBLUXATION, TIGHT JOINTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is the appropriate management for:

  1. cleft lip
  2. cleft palate
A
  1. Surgical repair by 3 months

2. Special nipple for feeding + surgical repair at 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in a 7 month old? What are characteristics of the organsim?

A

S. pneumoniae
-most common cause:
3 months - 9 years
after 30 yrs old

-Lancet-shapted
gram positive
alpha-hemolytic
encapsulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is dx:
50 year old w new fever and weightloss
Labs: WBC 54,000, HgB 14, hematocrit 42%, increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase.
Bone marrow bx: hypercellularity

A

Leukemoid reaction

  • secondary to infection
  • Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
  • –CML has DECREASED leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the dx:
neck pain, hyperthyroid sx, hx of sinusitis, elevated ESR, T4, decreased TSH level

Iodine uptake?
Tx?

A

Subacute GRANULOMATOUS thyroiditis (de Quervain’s)

  • Decreased iodine uptake
  • NSAIDs

**subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis is PAINLESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic test for Fanconi anemia? what is the patient at greater risk for?

A

chromosome breakage test

-greater risk for AML, liver tumors, other malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is dx:
2 day old child w chorioretinitis. Mother admits to ingesting raw meat during pregnancy. Jaundice

What will head CT show?

A

Toxoplasmosis

  • hydrocephaly
  • chorioretinitis
  • jaundice
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • mental retardation
  • microcephaly

CT - intracranial calcifications (especially Basal Ganglia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What causes variable deceleration in fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

Umbilical cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What causes early deceleration in fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

Fetal head compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What causes late deceleration in fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the next step after establishing an airway in a child w epiglotitis? What is the most common cause?

A

Administer antibiotics
-empiric = 3rd gen cephalosporin + vancomycin/clindamycin

mostly caused by H flu (most common), then S.pneumo, Group A strep, S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is Dx, Cause, Tx?

40 yr old w bipolar dz has polyuria, dehydration. Urine osmolality is extremely low, slight response w vasopressin.

A

Nephrogenic DI - caused by Lithium

Tx: Sodium restriction and Thiazide +/- Amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is dx?
11 year old girl w 15 lb weight loss over past month. Frequent melanotic diarrhea, abd pain. Aphthous oral ulcers, perirectal skin tag

A

Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What is dx:

child w/ episodes of depersonalization followed by lip smaking. EEG shows three per second spike and wave discarges

A

Absence seizure idsorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What are the following:

  1. Curling’s ulcer
  2. Cushing ulcer
  3. Marjolin’s ulcer
  4. Marginal ulcer
  5. Buruli ulcer
A
  1. Curling: Duodenal ulcer that occurs acutely after a burn
  2. Cushing: gastric/duodenal ulcer caused by elevated intracranial pressure
  3. Marjolin - malignant transformation of CHRONIC wound (most commonly a burn)
  4. Marginal ulcer - jejunal ulcer after gastrojejunostomy
  5. Buruli - manifestation of mycobacterium ulcerans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is dx? etiology?
15 year old boy w progressive weakness. Increasing difficulty making facial expressions, swallowing, ptosis, temporal wasting, thin chees, inverted V-shaped upper lip, testicular atrophy

A

Mytonic dystrophy

-autosomal dominant expansion of CTG in DMPK gene on chromosome 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What is the tx for candida vulvovaginitis

A
Oral Azole (fluconazole)
Intravaginal Nystatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can be caused by TMP-SMX?

A

hyperkalemia - TMP blocks epithelial sodium channel in collecting tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What are renal changes observed in normal pregnancy? what are the lab findings?

A

Increased: Renal blood flow, GFR, Renal basement membrane permeability

Labs: Decreased Serum BUN, CR, increased renal protein excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is the location of dysfunction:

36 year old woman w pronator drifty?

A

Pyramidal/Corticospinal tract

Upper motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is dx? What 3 things will be positive in serology test?

49 yr old woman w swelling/stiffness in hands, raynauds, fatigue, gerd, lungs have bibasilar fine inspiratory crackls

A

Systemic Sclerosis

  • Anti-topoisomerase I Abs (anti-Scl-70)
  • Antinuclear Ab
  • Anticentromere Ab

Sx: Fatigue, weakness, Telangiectasia, sclerodactyly, digital ulcers, calcinosis, arthralgias, dysphagia, raynaud, interstitial lung dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

How do you differentiate Amaurosis Fugax with Central retinal vein occlusion?

A

CRVO - Retinal hemorrhages more common, cotton wool spots, optic disk swelling = “blood and thunder”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is the initial management?
71 yr old w acute substernal cp, dyspnea, bp is 78/57, pulse 102, jvd is present, pulm auscultation shows prominent rales in all lung fields w faint wheezes

A

Dopamine - flash pulmonary edema, cardiogenic SHOCK
–give catecholamine vasopressor - increasee cardiac contractility + vasoconstriction

–then MONA BASH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What type of HTN medication can be useful in pts with osteopenia, osteoporosis?

A

Thiazide diuretics - decreases calcium excretion - causes hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the treatment choice for symptomatic sarcoidosis?

A

oral corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What does a sinusoidal heart rate pattern indicate in fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

Severe fetal anemia = RH isoimmunization or severe hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

what is dx:
3 year old w 7 day hx of 101.2 fever. fissuring of lips, erythema and desquamation of palms and soles. Bilateral conjunctivits. Inflamed “strawberry” tongue

complications?
Tx?

A

Kawasaki (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome)

  • -fever >5days
  • -bilateral conjunctivis
  • -uveitis
  • -strawberry tongue
  • -cracked lips
  • -erythematous desquamation of trunk, hands, feet

a/w coronary artery aneurysms
Tx: IVIG, High dose aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is dx:
35 yr old male w swelling and solid mass on R testicle. Labs shows elevated B-HCG, normal AFP. Histology shows well defined cell membranes w clear cytoplasm “fried egg” appearance

what are risk factors for this condition?

A

Seminoma

  • -normal AFP
  • clear cytoplasm, round nuclei = “fried egg”

Risk: Cryptorchid testis, infertility, Klinefelter, fam hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What is most likely dx:
25 yr old w hypercortisolism. Low dose dexamethasone test does not cause cortisol reduction (above 1.8). High dose dexamethasone causes cortisol to be supressed

What is Tx?

A

Pituitary tumor - ACTH excretion (Cushing’s disease)

Tx: tumor removal + replacement glucocoriticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

4 month old born at 28 weeks gestation is seen for wellness check up. what is the appropriate action to prevent infection of RSV?

A

Palivizumab in high risk pts:

high risk =

  1. infants <24months w hemodynamically congenital heart defects, chronic lung dz
  2. born prior 29 weeks
  3. <24month and immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is the typical presentation of Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

“ACE” triad
Ataxia
Confusion
Eye disorders

Korsakoff refers to long term dementia that can develop - imaging will show mammillary body lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What is dx? Tx?
chronic alcohol abuse has fatigue, abd pain, conjunctival pallor. Iron, ferritin levels are elevated, normal TIBC. Bone marrow bx shows erythroblasts w stainable deposits of iron in cytoplasm.

A

Sideroblastic anemia - bx shows ringed sideroblasts
–causes: alcohol, isoniazid, chloramphenicol, lead poisoning

Labs:
increased iron, ferritin
normal TIBC

Tx: removal of offending agent + Pyridoxin (B6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is dx:
35 yr old male experiences cramping pains and numbness in left arm and becomes dizzy w double vision when he exercises by punching bag.

A

Subclavian steal syndrome - obstruction of left subclavian artery prox to origin of vertebral artery. - backflow of blood from vertebral artery to distal subclavian

dx: duplex US, MRI, MRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

How is relative risk calculated?

A

(A/(A+B)) / (C/(C+D))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What is the management of a hepatic cavernous hemangioma that is incidentally found on US?

A

Stop hormonal therapy

  • -watch expectantly
  • followed by imaging, hemangiomas over 5cm or symptomatic is managed surgically
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What are 3 ways DM T2 is diagnosed?

A
  1. Fasting glucose > 126 mg/dL
  2. Random glucose > 200 + symptoms
  3. HbA1c > 6.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is dx and tx?
40 year old female w pruritis, scleral icterus, jaundice, hepatomegaly. Labs have elevated alk phos, serum antimitochondrial abs

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

  • -Cholestyramine, Cholestipol for pruritis
  • –Ursodeoxycholic acid to slow dz progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is the skin manifestation a/w celiacs? Tx?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

Tx = Dapsone + gluten free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is the tx for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (3)

A

Stop meds + IV fluids first

  • -if sever or sx continue:
    1. Dantrolene
    2. Bromocriptine
    3. Amantadine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Pt w hx of afib on warfarin has INR of 2.1. He presents w an acute abdomen, abdominal xray shows free air under diaphragm, what is next step?

A

Fresh frozen plasma to reverse INR for surgery.

–in acute setting (ie hemorrhagic stroke) use Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) + Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is the most common site for the origin of atrial fibrillation

A

pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What kind of medication should children w sickle cell disease be taking?

A

Children <5 yrs old w SCD should be on prophylactic penicillin

S. pneumo - most common cause of sepsis in fxnal asplenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What are the two definitions of active phase labor arrest? what is next step?

A

active phase begins >6cm dilation

  1. no cervical change >4 hrs w adequate contractions
  2. no cervical change >6 hrs w/o adequate contractions

Cesarean delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What is Alport syndrome? what are microscopy findings?

A

“Cant See, Pee, Hear High C”
-Renal dz, sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities

abnormalities of Type IV collagen
Microscopy = Thinning/Splitting of glomerular basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

When should a colonoscopy be offered in a pt with Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s w colonic involvement?

A

8-10 years after diagnosis (12-15 if dz only in L colon)

-repeat every 1-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What are hormonal findings in Turner Syndrome patients?

A

Ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovaries) -
Low estrogen + progesterone
elevated LH + FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Psyche pt w depression and psychosis has symptoms controlled on medication. She has infertility and erratic menstrual periods. What medications is she probably on?

A

Antipsychotics
First gen: Haloperidol, Fluphenazine
Sec gen: Risperidone, paliperidone

–Dopamine 2 blockers = increase prolactin
=galactorrhea, menstrual irregularities, infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What is dx? Additional findings? how is it dx’d?
2 day old fails bilateral hearing screen. born at 37 weeks via csection due to fetal growth restriction. Mother had brief febrile illness while traveling during first trimester. She reported joint paint 5-7 days after fever. Infants weight, length, head circ is <5th percentile. child has loud murmur over left second intercostal space.

A

Congenital Rubella

  • Sensorineural hearing loss
  • Cataracts = Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex)
  • PDA

Dx: Serology (Infant IgM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is dx? what will confirm dx?
1 month old male has poor feeding and “floppiness” since birth. Sx have been progressive. Hypotonia, generalized weakness, lack of head control. Eyes have active movment.

A

Werdnig-Hoffman disease (Spinal muscular atrophy type 1)

  • -Genetic testing -Autosomal recessive (SMN1 gene)
  • –Survival motor neuron gene 1 (SMN1) - encodes protein that arrests apoptosis of motor neurons

–Extraocular + sphincter muscles are spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is the power of a test?

A
Power = 1-Beta
Beta = risk of type II error

type II error = null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected

**Decrease type I errors increase type II error = reduces power of test and vice versa

234
Q
What is age of infant:
front-to-back, back-to-front
sitting without support
transferring objects from hand to hand
responds to name
babbles chains of consonants
laughts
A

7 months

235
Q
What is age of infant:
social smile, imitates movements/facial expressions
attentive to sounds/voices
coos
follows moving objects
Brings hand to mouth, open/closes hands
lifts head and shoulders from prone position
cannot sit without support
A

3 months

236
Q
What is age of infant:
sits w support
rolls back to front
palmar grasp, holds hands together
responds to name
recognize, attach to caregivers
express anger/happiness vocally
A

5 months

237
Q
What is age of infant:
crawls well
pulls to stand
3 finger grasp, holds bottle, can throw
says "mama" and "dada"
waves "bye-bye"
enjoys gesture games like peek-a-boo
A

9 months

238
Q
What is age of infant:
shy around strangers, stranger anxiety
finger feeds itself
follows 1 step command
points at objects
standing without support
move from sitting to crawling
two finger grast
A

12 months

239
Q

80 yr old w dyspnea, retired sand blaster. no hx of smoking. CXR shows nodular opacities in upper lobe.

What is dx and what is pt at higher risk for developing?

A

Silicosis - higher risk of TB
–silica is cytotoxis to alveolar macrophages

Silicosis CXR - nodule opacities in upper lobe

240
Q

What is management of postherpetic neuralgia

A

Amitriptyline + topical capsaicin

–others: topical lidocain, opioids, gabapentin, pregabalin

241
Q

What are the adult structures of:

  1. Anterior fontanelle
  2. Posterior fontanelle
A
  1. Bregma

2. Lambda

242
Q

What is Dx? Tx?
13 year old w 1 hr hx of constant testicular pain. Sudden onset, located in superior pole of right testicle. Testes are tender swollen, w blue dot on superior pole or right testicle.

A

Torsion of Appendix Testis (remnant of paramesonephric duct)
–leading cause of acute scrotum in children 7-14

Tx: Pain control, bed rest, scrotal support

243
Q

What is dx and tx?
6 yr old female w Tanner stage III breasts, Tanner stage II pubic hair, height/weight above 95th percentile.
Labs show high LH, FSH levels and increase after GnRH administration
MRI of brain is noraml
Skeletal age is advanced

A

True precocious puberty

  • LH, FSH are high, elevated w GnRH administration.
  • -MRI may have shown hypothalamic lesion
Tx: GnRH analogs:
Leuprolide
Buserelin
Nafarelin
Histrelin
244
Q

What is the treatment of somnambulism? (2)

A

Sleepwalking:
Benzodiazepines
Occasionally Trazodone

245
Q

Where is the chapman’s point associated with the prostate?

A

Lateral and Posterior Margin of Iliotibial Band.

246
Q

What time period is needed to diagnose generalized anxiety disorder?

A

> 6 months

247
Q

What is dx? next best step in management? what is it associated with?
55 yr old w pain, itching, red streaks on left arm. had similar episode on her chest 2 weeks ago that improved on its own. HX of heartburn, upper abdominal pain for last several months. 15-30 yr smoking hx. Tender erythematous, palpable cord-like veins on left arm and upper chest

A

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome)

  • –CT ABDOMEN - evaluate for occult tumor
  • hypercoagulable disorder - unexplained superficial venous thrombosis at unusual sites
  • -a/w Cancer involving pancreas (most common), lung, prostate, stomach, colon, leukemias
248
Q

What is the pathology of GBS?

A

demyelination of peripheral motor nerves

249
Q

What is dx criteria of exertional heat stroke?

tx?

A

temp > 104F
CNS dysfunction
Additional organ damage

Ice water immersion

250
Q

what is dx? tx?
4 yr old boy w eye redness w scant, watery discharge. hx of 10 day mild rhinorrhea, cough. Eye exam shows pale follicles, inflammatory changes in tarsal conjunctivae bilaterally. Conjunctivae appear mildly thickened.

A

Trachoma (Chlamydia trachomatis A,B,C)

  • leading cause of blindness worldwide from chronic infection-scarring, trichiasis (eyelid inversion)
  • -conjunctival injection
  • -tarsal inflammation
  • -pale follicles

Tx: Azithromycin
Giemsa stain exam conjunctival scrapings

251
Q

What is dx:
5 yr old girl w pubic, axillary hair. No H/A, visual changes. pt is obese w facial acne, no breast buds. external genitalia is normal, bone age is normal

A

Premature adrenarche

  • normal bone age
  • isolated pubic hair development
252
Q

What is the first line tx of Asymptomatic bacteriuria in a pt at 10 weeks gestation? (3)

A
  1. Cephalexin
  2. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
  3. Nitrofurantoin
253
Q

What is the physiological affect on preload that valsalva has?

A

Decreases preload

254
Q

What is dx:
31 yr old female w 6 week hx of perioribital edema, abdominal distention. She has nephrotic range proteinuria. Pt suddnely develops severe right sided abd pain, fever, gross hematuria.

A

Membranous glomerulopathy - a/w Renal vein Thrombosis + other thromboembolism
—from loss of antithrombin IIII in urine

255
Q

What are fetal complications related to maternal preeclampsia

A

Chronic uteroplacental insufficiency =

  1. Oligohydramnios
  2. Fetal growth restriction/small for gestation age
256
Q

What are first line meds for alcohol use disorders? (2)

-circumstances for use?

A

Naltrexone - mu-opioid antagonist
–a/w hepatotoxicity

Acamprosate - glutamate modulator
–SAFE in liver dz

257
Q

How is a post surgical DVT managed? what if the pt has renal dz?

A

Warfarin with Heparin bridge

–Unfractionated heparin w renal dz (LMWH is not recommented in ESRD)

258
Q

What is dx:
40 yr old sexually active woman w abominal pain. negative hCG, febrile, enlarged tender right adnexal mass. CRP, CA-125 are elevated. Pelvic US shows large, thick-walled multiloculated mass filled w debris obliterating the right adnexa.

A

Tubo-ovarian abscess

259
Q

What are 2 structures at risk for entrapment in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus

A

Brachial A

Median N

260
Q

What are two contraindications for a trial of labor?

A

Risk of Uterine rupture greatest:

  1. Classical Cesarean (vertical incision)
  2. Abominal myomectomy w uterine cavity entry
261
Q

15 yr old girl has not begun menstruating. otherwise healthy. Absence of breast developement, no pubic hair. US confirms presence of a uterus

What is the next step?

A

Serum FSH level
–distinguish central vs peripheral abnormality

If FSH

  1. decreased = Pituitary MRI
  2. increased = Karyotyping
262
Q

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in chronic alcoholism? what additional abnormality does it usually cause?

A

Hypomagnesemia

  • -causes refractory hypokalemia
  • -and hypocalcemia
263
Q

What is the diagnostic test for lactose intolerance?

A

Hydrogen breath test

–enteric bacteria metabolize undigested lactose and produce hydrogen

264
Q

What will kidney fxn labs show in septic shock?

prostate hypertrophy?

A

Septic shock:

  1. elevated BUN/Cr in 20:1 ratio
  2. FeNa <1%
  3. Low urine sodium <20

Prostate Hypertrophy

  1. BUN/Cr <20
  2. FeNa >2%
  3. Urine Na >20
265
Q

What is the indication for Clozapine?

What are 6 adverse effects?
Which adverse effect is dose-dependent?

A
Treatment resistant psychosis
Adverse fx:
1. Agranulocytosis
2. Seizures - DOSE DEPENDENT
3. Myocarditis
4. Bowel Obstruction - anticholinergic/serotonergic
5. Urinary retention - muscarinic antagonism - can cause UTI
6. Sialorrhea - M4 agonist
266
Q

What is the screen teset for lead poisoning?

A

Blood lead level

267
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for Grave’s Disease?

A

Radioiodine uptake scan

268
Q

What is dx:
newborn deliverd by vacuum assisted delivery. Has soft nonpitting edema of the occiput that crosses the lambdoidal suture lines.

Tx?

A

Caput succedaneum

  • -edema under scalp, above galeal aponeurosis
  • -Crosses suture line

Tx: no tx, will spontaneously resolve

269
Q

What is dx:

newborn deliverd by vacuum assisted delivery. Has edema of the occiput that does NOT cross the lambdoidal suture lines.

A

Cephalohematoma

  • -collection of blood beneath the Periosteum of one of the calvarial bones
  • -usually unilateral
270
Q

What is dx:

newborn deliverd by vacuum assisted delivery. Has “boggy” swelling of the occiput

A

Subgaleal hemorrhage
–collection of blood underneath epicraneal aponeurosis

–Boggy (caput succedaneum is soft and nonpitting)

271
Q

What is Lasegue’s test

A

Straight leg raise test

-coupled w braggard’s test to confirm neurologic vs tight hamstring etiology (lower straight leg below pain level and dorsiflex foot)

272
Q

What can be caused by the use of vasopressors in pts w low cardiac output?

A

Non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia

–Vasopressors (epi, norepi, digoxin) can cause splanchnic vasoconstriction

273
Q

What is dx:

new born w cryptorchidism, hypoplastic lungs, cardiac mumur, bulging abdomen. Radiography reveals dilated ureters

A
Prune belly syndrome
1. abnormal abd musculature
2 Renal dysplasia
3. tortuous/dilated ureters
4. enlarged bladder
5. cardiac/GI anomalies
6. cryptorchidism
7. underdeveloped prostate
8. pulm hypoplasia
9. club foot
274
Q

What is next step in 35 yr old female w prolactinoma started on bromocriptine. follow up labs show no change in prolactin level

A

Cabergoline trial
–then surgical intervention is not effective

Dopamine agnoists (cabergoline, bromocriptine)

275
Q

What are components of WAGR syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)
Aniridia
Genitourinary malformations
Retardation

276
Q

What is the chapmans point in a pt w cataracts?

A

Lateral humerus at level of surgical neck

277
Q

What is the tx for akithisia?

A

lower dosage or switching antipsychotic

and
propranolol or benzo

278
Q

What is the malaria prophylaxis for a pt traveling to Kenya in two days? contraindications?

A

Atovaquone-proguanil
—region of P. falciparium predominance

-contraindicated in pregnancy or renal failure

Mefloquine - not given in pt w psyche or depression

279
Q

What is the Ann Arbor staging of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

  1. Stage I
  2. Stage II
  3. Stage III
  4. Stage IV
A
  1. 1 lymph node involved
  2. 2 or more lymph node + same side of diaphragm
  3. spread to both sides of diaphragm
  4. involves extralymphatic tissue (liver, bone marrow, lungs)
280
Q

What are the stages of Chronic Renal Failure based on GFR?

A

Stage 1: Normal GFR > 90

2: 60-89 mL/min
3: 30-59
4: 14-29
5: <15

281
Q

What are absolute indications for hemodialysis?

A

AEIOU:

  1. Acidosis (metabolic)
  2. Electrolytes (severe hyperkalemia)
  3. Intoxications (lithium, aspirin, methanol, ethylene glycol)
  4. Overload (CHF)
  5. Uremia (Uremic pericarditis)
282
Q

What is the most effective emergency contraceptive?

A

Copper intrauterine device

283
Q

What are lab findings in Paget disease of bone?

A

Normal Calcium + Phos
Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase
Bone Turnover markers (PINP, urine hydroxyproline)

284
Q

What metabolic effects do Chlorthalidone and drugs like it cause?

A

Glucose Intolerance

  • –impair insulin release from pancreas + peripheral glucose uptake
  • —seen in pt w metabolic syndrome (HTN, Dyslipidemia, abdominal obesity
285
Q

What is the difference between chronic hypertension and gestational hypertension in pregnancy?

A

Chronic - htn prior to conception or 20 weeks gestation

Gestational - new onset htn at >or equal 20 weeks gestation

286
Q

What is dx:
29 year old woman w CP, Dyspnea. pain is bilateral, dull, persistent, not worsened by exertion. PMH: vaginal delivery 3 months ago followed by episodes of dark, bloody vaginal discharge. most recent bleeding was 6 days ago. Pelvic exam shows enlarged uterus, closed cervix, dark blood.
CXR: multiple bilateral infiltrates of various shapes

A

Choriocarcinoma - arises from placental trophoblastic tissue

–Dx: quantitative B-hCG

287
Q

What is the initial evaluation of adrenal insufficiency?

A
  1. 8am serum cortisol
  2. plasma ACTH
    - -ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test - is performed concurrently b/c it is fast
    - –no rise in cortisol = PAI
288
Q

Which psyche med is associated with HEPATOTOXICITY, tremor, thrombocytopenia, alopecia?

A

Valproate - anticonvulsant mood stabilizer

289
Q

What circumstances would the following be found on peripheral smear:

  1. Basophilic stippling
  2. Heinz bodies
  3. Bite cells
  4. Howell-Jolly bodies
  5. helmet cells
A
  1. basophilic stippling: thalassemias, lead/metal poisoning
  2. Heinz: thalassemia, G6PD deficiency
  3. Bite Cells: removal of heinz bodies by phagocytes
  4. Howell: nuclear remnants of rbc’s removed by fxnal spleen. present in asplenism (ie sickle cell)
  5. helmet cells (schistocytes) - DIC, HUS, TTP, traumatic microangiopathic hemolytic conditions
290
Q

Which antibody is most sensitive for ruling out drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone

291
Q
What is dx:
LH:FSH ratio = 2:1
Hirsutism
Oligomenorrhea, amenorrhea
acne

what is the treatment to address hirsutism

A

PCOS

–Spironolactone addresses for hirsutism

292
Q

What is the tx for gestational diabetes for the mother?

A

Tx begins w diet and exercise

  • add insulin or sulfonlyurea (glyburide) if not efficient
  • –DONT PRESCRIBE METFORMIN
293
Q

What are 4 complications related to ADPCKD

A
  1. Hepatic cysts
  2. Intracerebral berry aneurysms
  3. THORACIC aortic aneurysms
  4. Valvular heart disease (MNP, AR most common)

-also colonic diverticula

294
Q

What is dx? Cell marker?
60 y/o w 5 weeks hx of painless mass on neck that spontaneously enlarges and decreases in size. PMH of pneumonia 5x in past 6 months. Enlarged anterior cervical lymph node. Splenomegaly, petechiae.

CBC: neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, lymphocytosis

Peripheral: lymphocytosis w small, mature lymphocytes, “smudge cells”

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

*CD5 = HIGHLY sensitive for CLL when ruling out other dz

295
Q

What is initial step in treating spinal cord damage/compression?

A

Prompt corticosteroid administration

296
Q

What is the appropriate prenatal preventative measure for pt at high-risk for neural tube defects?

A

4.0 mg folic acid daily

297
Q

What is next step for pt w guaiac positive nipple discharge?

A

surgery for tx and dx confirmation

298
Q

Which drug can slow the progression of ALS?

A

Riluzole

299
Q

What is dx, 1st/2nd line tx?
55 yr old w low back pain, radiates to left butt and thigh. Pain is worse when walking down stairs and relieved by sitting. weakness of L leg

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis
1st line tx: NSAIDs
2nd line tx: Steroid injection

300
Q

What are xray findings of:

  1. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
  2. COPD?
A
  1. Panacinar emphysema = Hyperlucency at lung bases

2. Centrilobular emphysema = Hyperlucency at lung apices

301
Q

What is first line TX for ascites?

A

salt restriction + Spironolactone or Furosemide

HCTZ is not used to preserve potassium

302
Q

Which nerve roots are affected in:

  1. Erb-Duchenne
  2. Klumpke
A
  1. C5-C6

2. C8-T1, sometimes Horner’s sx

303
Q

what is dx:
25 yr old female w 6 weeks dyspnea fatigue, pallor, scleral icterus, mild jaundice, splenomegaly. Elevated indirect bilirubin, lactate dehydrogenase.

Peripheral smear: spherocytes w/o central pallor.
Direct Coombs test is positive

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

  • pallor, jaundice, splenomegaly, lab findings
  • positive Coombs test
304
Q

What is dx? associated condition?
64 year old from china has progressive L neck swelling, nasal congestion, frequent epistaxis, H/A, hx of rhinosinusitis. Nasopharyngoscopy shows mass in posterior nasal cavity. Bx shows poorly differentiated carcinoma

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

  • -a/w reactivation of Epstein Barr Virus
  • -endemic to southern China, Africa, Middle East
305
Q

What is the management of lactation suppression in a pt whose child died?

A

NSAIDs + supportive bra

–dopamine agonist therapy is NOT FDA approved

306
Q

What is dx:
18 year old african american with polyuria. Mother died at 32 of a stroke. Urinalysis is negative except for specific gravity of 1.001

A

Hypothenuria
–polyuria + Low urine specific gravity (normal is 1.01-1.03) + normal serum sodium
From Sickle cell trait - sickled RBC’s impair free water reabsorption + counter current exchange

307
Q

What is the follow up after a suction curettage of a hyatidiform mole?

A
  1. contraception
  2. Weekly B-hCG until undetectable
  3. Monthly B-hCG for 6 months
  4. can retry conception if B-hCG negative
308
Q

What is dx? Tx?

Girl w episodes of sinusitis, streptococcal bacteremia. Giardia infection. 5th percentile of weight, hx of asthma

A

CVID - abnormal B-cell differentiation = deficiency of IgG + IgA or IgM

Tx: IVIG infusion

309
Q

What is the most appropriate way to limit risk of infection of household contacts in a pt w whooping cough?

A

Macrolide Abx for all household contacts

310
Q

What is dx:
11 year old with SCD presents w shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue. no fever, cough. He has tachycardia, 3/6 systolic murmur is hear throughout the precordium. No hepatosplenomegaly. Lungs are CTA. Hgb - 4.5. Reticulocytes: 0.1%

A

Aplastic Crisis - sever anemia + low reticulocytes (<1%) + no splenomegaly

  • -sudden halt in rbc production
  • -systolic murmur is from hyperdynamic blood flow

–can be caused by Parvovirus B19 WITHOUT PRECEDING VIRAL SYMPTOMS

Tx: Blood transfusions

311
Q

What is the management of diabetic nephropathy once macroproteinuria develops?

A

Intensive Blood pressure control (target: 130/80)

312
Q

What type of hypertensive medications can benefit a pt w calcium oxalate kidney stones?

A

thiazide diuretics - compensatory rise in sodium + water reabsorption = increase passive reabsorption of calcium

313
Q

How is a 1cm palpable, firm, round breast mass managed in a 36 year old patient?

A

Mammography, if suspicious - core biopsy

Age <30: US +- Mamm
Age >30: Mamm

314
Q

What is the posterior chapman’s point a/w the appendix?

Segmental innervation?

A

Tip of transverse process of T11

T12 on the right

315
Q

Which lab value is an accurate measure to monitor heparin in a pt being treated for DVT?

A

PTT - levels will increase within 6 hrs of administration

316
Q

How are inversion ankle sprains classified?

A

Type I : just ATFL
Type II: ATFL + FCL
Type III: ATFL + FCL + PTFL

317
Q

Which nerve roots are most likely affected:

Acute back pain, radiates to anterior thigh and medial aspect of calf

A

L2/3/4 - anterior thigh + medialcalf

318
Q

What is the most common location for compartment syndrome of the leg?

A

anterior compartment

319
Q

which tx/chemotherapy agent should be used in a 55 yr old w incidentally found GIST positive for c-kit mutation?

A

wide surgical excision +

imatinib (c-kit is a tyrosine kinase mutation that causes proliferation of GISTs that is inhibited by imatinib)

320
Q

How do you differentiate a Peritonsillar abscess and Retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Both have muffle “hot potato” voice, fever, trismus

peritonsillar - uvula deviation (US to differentiate between cellulitis and abscess)

retropharyngeal: Neck stiff, neck pain, tenderness
- -use CT w IV contrast if physical exam cant distinguish

321
Q

What is the Treatment of superficial thrombophlebitis?

A

NSAIDs, elevation ,support stockings
REPEAT PHYs EXAM within 7 to 10 days to look for progression.

Anticoag + surgery only considered if thrombosis extends to deep veins
–DUPLEX US to rule out DVT if signs of progression

322
Q

What is dx? prevention? tx? contagious period?

5 year old w fever, coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, erythematous + maculopapular rash, blue-white spost on buccal mucosa

A

Rubeola (measles)
Prevention: MMR Vaccine
Tx: Vitamin A
contagious period: 4 days after onset of maculopapular rash(child can return to school in 5 days)

323
Q

What is dx? management? what is at higher risk?

32 yr AA at 18 weeks gestation. has noticed facial hair and acne. US shows bilateral 7cm solid masses in the ovaries

A

Dx: Luteoma of pregnancy

  • -benign, occurs more often in AA’s
  • -hyperandrogenism

Tx: Observation/Expectant management
–Luteomas regress spontaneously after delivery

  • Female fetus at high risk of virilization
  • -higher risk of ovarian torsion
  • Theca luteum cysts are not Solid onUS
324
Q

What is criteria for infantile colic?

A

excessive crying for >3hrs/day, >3days/week over a period of >3 weeks

  • resolves spontaneously by 4 months
  • review consoling techniques w parents
325
Q

what is dx?
27 yr old nulliparous pt w intermittent left pelvic pain over last 8 months. Pt is sexually active, stopped taking ocp 2 yrs ago. LMP was 2 weeks ago. Normal sized uterus, enlarged left adnexa. US shows homogeneous cystic-appearing mass on left ovary.

A

Endometriosis - mass = endometrioma

–infertility can be improved by surgical resection

326
Q

What is dx:
62 yrs old w occasional ear pain + hard, non-tender submandibular mass that is 3 cm in diameter. on HCTZ, Metformin. smokes two packs of cigarettes per day.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

  • -Hard unilateral, non-tender lymph nodes = suspicious for Ca
  • -Vast majority of Head/Neck cancer is SCC.
327
Q

What is dx? maternal exposure? tx?
1 day old boy w macrocephaly and jaundice. Mother went to Zambia during first trimester. Had fever for 2 weeks, swollen glands, and muscle aches that resolved spontaneously. Head CT shows hydrocephalus + diffuse intracranial calcifications.

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis
Exposures: Undercooked meat, Unwashed fruits/veggies, Cat feces
Dx: from serology
Tx: Pyrimethamine, Sulfadiazine, Folate for a year

328
Q

What is tx:

  1. STI empiric
  2. Confirmed just Chlamydia
  3. Confirmed just Gonorrhea
A
  1. Azithromycin/Doxycycline + Ceftriaxone
  2. Azithromycin/Doxycycline
  3. Azithromycin/Doxycycline + Ceftriaxone (From high false negative rates)

Azithromycin is preferred b/c it is single dose + safe during pregnancy

329
Q

what are neuroimaging findings most likely found in a schizophrenia patient?

A

Lateral ventricular enlargement

loss of cortical tissue

330
Q

What is the management of cryptorchid testes in a pt with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Gonadectomy after puberty

–cryptorchid gonads have a risk of developing a dysgerminoma or gonadoblastoma after puberty

331
Q

What is dx? Tx?
50 yr old w persistent cough, started 5 days ago productive w yellow sputum. Bilateral upper extremity arthralgia. 99.2 F, Pulmonary exam reveal scattered rhonchi

A

Viral Acute Bronchitis

  • Productive cough that lasts up to 20 days
  • Commonly a/w Arthralgia
  • Tx: supportive therapy:
  • dextromethrophan
  • acetaminophen
332
Q

What is dx:
68 yr old woman w severe fatigue, weightloss, shortness of breath. BP 118/72. Diastolic sound followed by solft diastolic murmur

A

Myxoma - most common primary heart tumor
–commonly presents in R or L atria
-“ball valve” obstruction of mitral valve =
Early diastolic sound followed by diastolic murmur

333
Q

What is the tx:
46 female undergoes total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma. 3rd day post op she has perioral numbness and tingling of the fingers. Serum Ca is 8.0

A
  1. Ca>7.5: oral calcium carbonate or calcium citrate
  2. moderate: increase dose or calcitriol
  3. Laryngospasm or Arrhythmia: IV Ca Gluconate
334
Q

Dx: mole that looks like brown plaque w feeling of velvet

A

Seborrheic keratosis

335
Q

Dx: dysphagis w solids. Serum iron level 150. Upper endoscopy shows circumferential membrane in distal esophagus at the squamocolumnar jxn

A

Schatzki’s ring

336
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

Blockage of nasal passage

-Inability to insert NG tube

337
Q

What is prophylactic treatment for cluster headaches? initial treatment?

A

Verapamil, prednisone, valproic acid, topiramate, ergotamine

Initial tx: 100% oxygen

338
Q

what is dx:
45 year olf female w pmh of cholecystectomy w 6 hour hx of RLQ pain. Constipation, episode of vomiting. Experiencing hallucinations. Upper extrmity weakness, tachycardia, Urinalysis has elevated level of aminovulini acid

A

Acute intermittent porphyria
–porpyobilinogen deaminase deficiency
=elevated aminolevulini acid + porphobilinogen

Sx: Acute Abd pain, vomiting, constipation, tachycardia, HTN, muscle weakness, extremity pain, Psyche Sx’
–NOT a/w rash (unlike other types of porphyria)

339
Q

What Chapman’s point is associated with Otitis media?

A

Clavicle lateral to where they cross the first ribs

–some say it located on first rib

340
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in a 31 year old patient?

A

<35: Chlamydia

>35: E. Coli

341
Q

What is difference between deficiency in Cobalamin and Folate?

A

Cobalamin (B12) - Neuro Sx, elevated MMA + homocysteine, B12 levels may or many no be decreased

Folate (B9) - ONLY Homocysteine is elevated

342
Q

What is the CO, PCWP, SVR in:

  1. Cardiogenic shock
  2. Neurogenic shock
  3. Septic shock
  4. Hypovolemic shock
A
  1. Low CO, High PCWP, High SVR
  2. Low CO, Low PCWP, Low SVR
  3. High CO, Low PCWP, Low SVR
  4. Low CO, Low PCWP, High SVR
343
Q

What are contraindications for Bupropion? Why do some pts prefer it?

A

Norepi + Dopa reuptake inhibitor
–Does not cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction

Contraindications:

  1. Seizures
  2. Eating disorders - electrolyte abnormalities can ppt seizures
  3. Recent MAO-i use
344
Q

What is the abx used for Actinomyces?

A

penicillin

345
Q

What should physician do in a nonemergency situation in which a parent refuses potentially life-saving treatment for their child?

A

Seek a court order mandating treatment

346
Q

How do you calculate Attributable risk percent?

A

ARP = (risk in exposed - risk in unexposed)/risk in exposed

ARP = (RR-1)/RR

ARP is excess risk in a population that can be explained by exposure to a particular risk factor

347
Q

What is dx? tx?
Pt w pruritic lesions. started w papule on index finger that ulcerated and drained odorless nonpurulent discharge. Developed similar nodules on right forearm. Works as landscaper and lives w cat. Nonfebrile. Several proximal nontender subq nodules on forearm. no lymphadenopathy

A

Sporotrichosis (Dimorphic fungus from decaying vegetation) culture lesions/sputum = cigar-shaped yeast

Sx:
Fever, Hemoptysis, Produtive cough (in pulmonary infection)
skin papule - ulceration w nonpurulent drainage
proximal lesions along lymphatic chain

Tx: 3-6 months of Oral Itraconazole

348
Q

What is dx? usual organsims?
pain/swelling of inner aspect of eye for past 2 days. Tenderness, edema, redness over medial canthus. Slight pressure over area causes expression of puruelnt material. Visual acuity is normal.

A

Dacryocystitis - infection of the lacrimal sac

  • -pain/redness in medial canthal region
  • purulent discharge

-usual: S. aureus, B-hemolytic Strep

349
Q

What is the preferred management of:

  1. unilateral adrenal adenoma
  2. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
A
  1. surgery

2. aldosterone antagonists

350
Q

what is the next step in management of decreased fetal movements?

A

Non-stress test: fetal compromise should be suspected

351
Q

What is the diagnostic and treatment modality of intussusception in a 22 month old child?

A

Air or saline enema under sonographic or fluoroscopic guidance

-surgery if it does not reduce

352
Q

What is dx? etiology? other causes? dx modality?
32 year old w 6 months of progressive weakness, exertional dyspnea. PMHofr stab wound to right thigh 10 months ago. BP is 160/60, HR 100. R leg feels warm appears flush. Carotid upstroke is brisk. PMI is displace to the left. soft systolic murmur is hear over apex that does not change w Valsalva

A

High Output HF

  • Stab wound created AV Fistula - more shunting of blood bypassing capillary bed = chronic higher preload
  • compensatory rise in HR, SV to meet O2 demands of periperal tissue.

Other causes: Thyrotoxicosis, Paget dz, anemia, thiamine deficiency

dx extremity AVF w Doppler US

353
Q

What is dx:
52 yr old w rapidly progressing dementia, behavioral abnormalities, myoclonus. EEG shows sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz

–spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion

354
Q

What are lab findings of Acute mesenteric ischemia?

what is the treatment of choice?

A

Leukocytosis
Elevated amylase
Elevated phosphate
Metabolic acidosis (elevated lactate)

Tx: Heparin anticoagulation

355
Q

What is the management of 31 yr old pt w HSIL on recent pap test. Not pregnant.

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3 is found. what are the next steps?

A

Colposcopy + cervical bx

CIN3
All nonpregnang pts age >25 require excision of transformation zone (Conization)
or LEEP, Cryoablation

Then Pap test w HPV 1 and 2 years post procedure if margins are clear

356
Q

What is dx? findings at L5?

Positive seated flexin test on left. Shallow L sacral sulcus, Anterior R inf lat angle. positve lumbosacral spring

A

Left on Right Sacral torsion

L5: FRS Right

357
Q

What are rules of L5 sacral mechanics?

A
  1. L5 is ALWAYS sidebent towards side of axis in both Forwards and Backwards torsions
  2. Backward torsions: L5 follows Type II, Rotates towards same side as axis
358
Q

What are Sx/lab findings in a pt w a VIPoma?

Tx?

A

VIPoma = vasoactive intestinal polypeptide secreting tumors of the pancrease

Sx: watery diarrhea, Hypochlorhydria
Labs: Hyperglycemia, Hypokalemia, elevated serum VIP

US/CT can show tumor

Tx: Octeotide

359
Q

What is dx:
6 month old w seizures. Microcephaly, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, Hearing loss.

Ct scan shows periventricular calcifications

A

CMV infection (most common TORCH infection)

Sx: Petechiae, Periventricular calcifications, hearing loss, visual loss, siezures

360
Q

What is the treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Anticonvulsants: Carbamazepine

361
Q

What are Strengths and weaknesses of Case-Control Studies?

A

Case-control studies identify relationships b/w exposures and dz outcomes

Strengths: Require comparatively few subjects (cant study rare dz), can study multiple different risk factors

Weakness: hard to make conclusion about correlations
(randomized control trials,cohort studies are better at making conclusions about correlations)

362
Q

What is the definition of sepsis? Septic shock? Tx for shock?

A
Documented infection
and meets Systemi Inflammatory Response Syndrome criteria: 2 of 4
1. <36C, 96.8F
2. >38C, 100.4 F
3. RR > 20/min
4. WBC <4000 or >12000

Septic Shock = Sepsis + hypotension
Tx: Agressive fluid replacement >4L
First line: Norepi to maintain MAP of 65

363
Q

How are Missed and Completed Abortions different?

A

Completed: before 20 weeks gestation, passage of all products of conception, vaginal bleeding, Closed cervical os
Tx: follow B-hCG closely

Missed: dx’d w US revealing nonviable pregnancy. Vaginal bleeding and cramping are NOT present. closed cervical os

364
Q

What is the tx of restless leg syndrome? What else is always indicated?

A
Dopamine agonists:
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
Levodopa/carbidopa
Bromocriptine

Iron replacement is always indicated

365
Q

What is med?

Pt overdosed on psyche med. Has ataxia with muscular weakness and heightened reflexes

A

Lithium

366
Q

What is dx? action to prevent?

Pt w SCD has Hb of 4. transfused w 3 units of packed rbc’s. After 30 min complains of chills, nausea, temp of 101.

A

Non-hemolytic febrile reaction
–response to cytokines that build up in the blood products during storage

-Use leukocyte-washed blood products

367
Q

What does the thymus look like in children <3yrs old on a CXR?

A

visible on CXR in children <3 yrs

“Sail Sign” - triangular shape, scalloped border, uniform density

368
Q

What is the medication of choice for pediatric depression?

A

Fluoxetine or psychotherapy

369
Q

What is the empiric abx for human bite wounds

A

Amoxicilllin-Clavulanate

–coverage of gram positive/negative, beta-lactamase producing oral anaerobic organisms

370
Q

What are the three recommended? vaccines during pregnancy?

High risk?

A

Recommended:
Tdap
Inactivated Influenza
Rho(D) immunoglobulin

High risk:
Hep B, A
Pneumococcus
H. flu
Meningococcus
Varicella immunoglobulin
371
Q

Which Vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

HPV
MMR
Live attenuated influenza
Varicella

372
Q

What are lab findings of Hyper IgM syndrome? Molecular cause?

A

Sinopulmonayr infections
Normal B cells
decreased IgG, IgA
increased IgM

X-linked defect in CD40 ligand

373
Q

What is the likely cause cardiac arrest of a MVA pt who is severely hypotensive, given IV fluids and placed on mechanical ventilation?

A
  • -hypovolemia causes decreased Central venous pressure
  • -Positive pressure mechanical ventilation can cause collapse venous vessels and cut off RV preload = loss of CO = cardiac arrest
374
Q

What is the workup for a newborn born a 4.8 with loose skin, large anterior fontanel. no costal retractions or grunting.

A

Child has Fetal growth restriction

–Send Placenta for histopathologic examination to assess for infection and/or infarction

375
Q

What is the tx choice for ADHD in an adult with substance abuse hx?

A

Atomoxetine (Norepi reuptake inhibitor)

376
Q

What is the management of uncomplicated cystitis in a nonpregnant woman?

A

Preferred tx:
TMP-SMX (3days), Nitrofurantoin (5days0, fosfomycin (single dose)

Fluorquinolones are reserved as 2nd line

Urine Culture is initial tx fails

377
Q

What is the dx criteria for major depressive disorder?

A

atleast 5 Sx:
SIG E CAPS

Sleed disturbance
Interest loss
Guilt
Energy low
Concentration impairment
Appetite changes
Psychomotor retardation/agitation
Suicidal thoughts
378
Q

What is the most accurate way to determining gestational age?

A

First trimester ultrasound

with crown-rump length measurement

379
Q

How are Preseptal cellulitis and Orbita cellulitis different? Sx? Tx?

A

Preseptal: eyelid erythema/swelling, chemosis
Tx: Oral Abx

Orbital Cellulitis - bacterial infection Posterior to orbital septum, involves muscles of EOM
Sx: Pain w EOM, proptosis &/or ophthalmoplegia w diplopia
Tx: IV abx, or surgery

380
Q

Dysregulation of which neurotransmitters is the primary cause of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dopamine

–Antipsychotics (D2 receptor antagonism)

381
Q

What do Atypical glandular cells on Pap testing suggest? what is next step in management?

A

AGC’s can be either Cervical or Endometrial Adenocarcinoma

ACG in women atleast 35 or <35 w risk factors requries eval for endometrial cancer (Entometrial Bx) with Cervical pathology

382
Q

What is dx: ophth findings?
Pt reports progressive visual loss. When closing one eye and looking at small spon on grid made of parallel vertical and horizontal lines he describes the vertical lines as being besnt and wavy.

A

Macular degernation - leading cause of blindness in industrialized countries.

  • -distortion of straight lines
  • Ophth exam - DRUSEN deposits in macula
383
Q

what is

  1. internal validity
  2. external validity
A
  1. test restuls only correspond to the sample population

2. test results are generalizable to other populations and situations

384
Q

What is the follow up for a 40 yr old pt dx’d w hypothyroidsm today and started on levothyroxine?

A

re-evaluate TSH levels 4-6 weeks after initiation of levothyroxine

385
Q

Wife calls and asks her for her husbands medical records. What should you do to prevent lawsuit?

A

Request written consent from patient and provide Medical records withing 5 working days

386
Q

How is exercise induced asthma diagnosed?

A

Bronchoprovocation (Methacholine-challenge test)

–Measure lung fxn before and after methacholine administration.

387
Q

What is the fluid of choice for burns in the first 24 hours after injury?

A

Ringer’s Lactate - most closely resembles normal extracellular fluid (capillaries become leaky)

388
Q

How is total body surface area calculated for burns?

A

Head: 9% (4.5 for posterior, 4.5 anterior)
Anterior trunk: 18% (9% chest, 9% abdomen)
Posterior trunk: 18% (upper, mid, low back plus butt)
Each upper extremity : 9%
Each lower extremity 18%
Genitalia: 1%

389
Q

What is the next workup in a pt with 7am glucose measurement of 215 mg/dL before breakfast and insulin adminstration? What are you trying to distinguish? What should be done in each case?

A

Measure glucose at 3am
–differentiates between Somogyi effect and Dawn phenomenon

Somogyi: overtx: pt becomes hypoglycemic overnight (3am glucose will be low), so pt’s body counters and become hyperglycemic in the morning
–Tx: Decrease NPH at dinner

Dawn phenomenon: Early morning (3am) GH secretion antagonizes insulin so pt’s will be hyperglycemic in the middle of the night
–Tx: Increase basal insulin at dinner (Glargine and Detemir provide more stable control of overnight insulin than NPH)

390
Q

What is the orientation of the superior facets in the:

  1. Cervical region
  2. Thoracic region
  3. Lumbar region
A
  1. BUM (backward/upward/medial)
  2. BUL (backward/upward/lateral)
  3. BUM (backward/upward/medial)
391
Q

What is dx? tx?
pt w abdominal pain. was discharged from hospital after acute pancreatitis two weeks ago. Pt is afebrile, Serum amylase is elevated. CT scan shows 4cm cyst on pancreatis tail.

A
Pancreatis pseudocysts (collection of pancreatic fluid)
--common after onset of acute pancreatitis

Tx: if <6cm, no infection = NPO and observation
if >6cm: endoscopic cystogastostomy or cysduodenostomy (cyst will drain to stomach or duodenum)

392
Q

What is the treatment of Pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Third-gen Cephalosporin
+
Azithromycin or Doxycycline

393
Q

What is the most common risk factor for orbital cellulitis?

A

Sinusitis (particularly of the ethmoid or maxillary sinuses)

394
Q

What is dx? next step in management?
4 day old, full-term,exclusively breastfed since birth for 10 mins each breast. Mother’s milk began to come in this morning. Infant passed several dark brown, sticky, meconium stools during first 2 days of life, but his last stool was yesterday and dark green. No voided today. Scleral icterus, jaundice,
Total bilirubin: 14 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 0.9 mg/dL

A

Breastfeeding jaundice
-Insufficient intake of breast milk = Decreased bilirubin elimination
Increased enterhepatic circulation

395
Q

When is Tympanocentesis and culture w Tympanostomy tube placement indicated?

A

Multiple episodes of AOM
(at least 3 episodes in 6 months, or atleast 4 episodes in 12 months)
despite appropriate abx treatment

396
Q

What is dx? what is pt at higher risk for?
43 yr old w erectile dysfunction. Drinkgs 1-2 beers every day, 20 pack year smoking hx. BMI is 29. Skin has brownish skin pigmentation. R knee xray has chondrocalcinosis.
Fasting glucose 130
AST 78
ALT 80

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis
–Bronze diabetes
–arthralgia (Chondrocalcinosis = pseudogout), elevated hepatic enzymes, Secondary HYPOgonadism, HYPOthyroidism
Restrictive or dilated CARDIOMYOPATHY, conduction abnormalities

Increase susceptibility to Listeria, Vibrio vulnificus, and Yersinia enterocolitica

Increased risk for Hepatocellular Cancer

397
Q

What is medication choice in younger pt with parkinson’s wheretremor is primary symptom?

A

Trihexyphenidyl (Anticholinergic)

398
Q

What is the cause of hypercalcemia in a quadriplegic patient 4 weeks after injury?

Tx?

A

Immobilization

  • symptomatic hypercalcemia (nausea, polyuria)
  • suppressed PTH

–from increased osteoclastic bone resorption

Tx: Bisphospnates

399
Q

What is dx modality? management?
31 yr old woman at 8 weeks gestation w nausea vomiting epigastric pain, dizziness. Unable to tolerate oral intake for past day. BP 90/50, pulse 114/min. current weight is 121.3lb, a decrease of 6.6lb from her prepregnancy weight. Dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor. Tachycardia. US shows 3 week twin intrauterine gestation.

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum - Urinalysis for ketones

Severe HG is an indication for hospital admission for IV antiemetics, rehydration, electrolyte repletion
–HG is typically unresponsive to oral antiemetics

400
Q

what is the next step when DiGeorge Syndrome is suspected?

A

Serum calcium levels

Echocardiography

401
Q

What is dx? related nerve injury?

arm in abduction is forced backwards. Pt holds arm in slight abduction and external rotation

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation

–Axillary nerve damage - abduction weakness

402
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is a common cause of a false positive in what test?

A

VDRL

403
Q

What is dx?
10 year old boy w headache, vomiting, visual disturbances. nonbloody, nonbilious emesis. Neuro exam shows bilateral upper eyelid retraction and limitation of upward gaze with a preference for downward gaze. Pupils react sluggishly to light but respond appropriately to accommodation. DTRs are normal.

A

Pinealoma: (germ cell tumors)

  1. Parinaud syndrome (dorsal midbrain)
    - limited upward gaze
    - Collier sign (upper eyelid retraction)
    - Pupils non-reactive to light, reactive to accommodation
  2. Obstructive hydrocephalus
    - papilledema
    - headache, vomiting
    - Ataxia
404
Q

What are clinical associations with Adenocarcinoma of lung

A

Peripheral location
Clubbing
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

405
Q

What are clinical associations with Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Lung

A

Central Location - Necrosis and cavitation

Hypercalcemia

406
Q

What are clinical associations with Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung

A

Central Location
Cushing syndrome
SIADH
Lambert-Eaton syndrome

407
Q

What are clinical associations with Large cell carcinoma of the lung

A

Peripheral location
Gynecomastia
Galactorrhea

408
Q

What is first line treatment for Tinea corporis (ringworm)

A

Topical Clotrimazole

Topical Terbinafine

409
Q

What is dx? therapy?
55 year old male has scattered erythe atous patches across back that has progressed to more raised and scaly lesions. axillayr lymphadenopathy is present.
Bx of lesions show abnormal T-cell infiltrates

A

Mycosis Fungoides
-Most common type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, (non-Hodgkin lymphoma)

Therapy: mostly topical (radiation, photochemo, laser surgical excision)

higher stages is systemic chemo

410
Q

What is the first line for C. diff colitis?

A

Stop offending abx
Oral Vancomycin
or fidaxomicin can be used

411
Q

What is the INR goal in:

  1. chronic A fib, DVT, PE
  2. mechanical heart valves?
  3. post MI
  4. Antiphospholipid syndrome
A
  1. 2-3
  2. 2.5-3.5
  3. 2.5-3.5
  4. 2.5-3.5
412
Q

How is Toxic shock syndrom usually treated?

A

IV fluids
IV nafcillin
Aminoglycoside

413
Q

What is the test of choice to dx diverticulosis?

A

Colonoscopy

414
Q

What serum marker can be used to monitor re occurrence of colonic adenocarcinoma?

A

CEA

-measure levels prior to surgical resection

415
Q

What is the most likely finding on blood culture of a pt with a aortic valve replacement 15 months ago w Bacterial endocarditis?

A

Late Prosthetic valve endocarditis (after 12 months post op)
= Streptococcus species
-usually subacute symptoms

Early (<12 months post op)
= S. epidermidis is most common

416
Q

What nerve is affected in entrapment at Guyon’s Canal? what are physical findings?

A

Ulnar N enter Guyon’s cana w ulnar A.

-Weakness in adduction/abduction of the digits, extending the PIP of little finger

417
Q

What is the treatment choice for insulinoma? second line?

A

Surgical resection - Tumor is localized w UX or CT

–poor surgical candidates consists of diazoxide

418
Q

What is the Johnson classification used for? what are the classifications?

A

Used to classify PUD’s
Type I: ulcer along lesser curve of stomach
Type II: condition where duodenal ulcer is also present
Type III: prepyloric ulcer
Type IV: prox gastro esophageal ulcer
Type V: ulcer along gastric body

419
Q

What is dx? management?
3 year old female with 6 month limp. Inflammation of left knee, right wrist, left ankle. Ophthalmologic exam reveals uveitis. No urinary symptoms Rheumatoid factor is negative

A

Pauciarticular onset juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

  • most common form of juvenil rheumatoid arthris (4 or fewer joints affected)
  • –(Polyarticular is 5 or more joints)
  • Rheumatoid factor will be negative

-a/w: Uveitis, Iridocyclitis, Asymmetrical leg length

Tx: NSAIDs + annual eye exams

420
Q

What is likely dx:

1 year old w facial angiofibromas, five hypomelanotic macules, seizures, intellectual disability

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

  • Hypomelanotic macules (ash leaf spots)
  • Seizures
  • Intellectual disability
  • Shagreen patch (cutaneous nevus) - orange peel consistency, lumbosacral region
  • Facial angiofibromas
421
Q

What is likely dx:

6 month old w 10 hyperpigmented macules throughout the body and freckled axillary area. Hamartomas of iris. Macrocephaly

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

  • Cafe-au-lait spots (6 or more)
  • neurofibromas
  • freckling of groin or axilla
  • skeletal abnormalities
  • Macrocephaly
  • Lisch nodules (Iris Hamartomas)
  • Learning disabilities
422
Q

What is the management of a penile fracture with current urinary retention and dysuria?

A

Retrograde urethrogram
then operative repair

indications for urethrogram:
blood at meatus
hematuria
dysuria
Urinary retention
423
Q

what is management of pt w diverticulitis. given oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole Three days later she returns w abd pain. Repeat CT shows 5 cm rim enhancing perisigmoid fluid collection

A

Fluid collection >3 cm = CT guided percutaneous drainage
–<3cm IV abx, observation

Surgical drainage and debridement if Sx are not controlled by 5th day.

424
Q

What is next step if healthcare worker gets stuck whil drawing blood from HIV positive pt. pts most recent CD4 count is 90/uL, rial load is 300,000 copies/mL

A

Draw blood for HIV serology and start 3 drug antiretroviral therapy immediately
–2NRTI + NNRTI or Integrase strand transfer inhibitor (raltegravir) or protease inhibitor

425
Q

What is the next step in management?:
64 year old w 29 pack year smoking hx. has sore throat, 1.5 cm right cervical lymph node. bx shows metastatic squamous cell carcinoma

A

Panendoscopy (triple endoscopy = esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy) to detect primary tumor

426
Q

What is dx? tx?
47 year old woman g4p4 w lower abd pain that is relieved with urination. urinary frequency, dyspareunia. palpation of Anterior Vaginal wall elitis severe pain. Urinalysis is normal

A
Interstitial cystitis (bladder pain syndrome)
--more common in women a/w psychiatric &amp; pain disorders (fibromyalgis)
  • -bladder pain w filling, relief w voiding
  • -urinary frequency
  • -Dyspareunia
  • -Normal Urinalysis
427
Q

Optimization of glycemic control in diabetes mellitus is a/w a reduced risk of what?

A

MICROvascular complications (nephropathy, retinopathy)

Macro vascular benefits have not been firmly established (stroke, MI)

428
Q

What is Mupirocin?

A

bactroban - topical abx for impetigo, MRSA

429
Q

What is the pneumococcus immunization recommendation for a 60 year old smoker with COPD?

A

Age 19-64
PPSV23 alone
–Chronic heart, lung, liver dz
–Diabetics, current smokers, alcoholics

PCV13 + PPSV23

  • -CSF leaks, cochlear implants
  • -SCD, Asplenia
  • -Immunocompromise
  • Chronic kidney disease
430
Q
What is dx?
4 month old boy after generalized tonic-clonic seizure. born at 40 weeks gestation at 50% percentile for height and weight. Since then he has had 3 episodes of URI's and otitis media. Today he is <5th percentile in weight. flat anterior fontanelle. Abdomen is protuberant, liver is palpable 4 cm below right costal margin.
Labs:
Bicarb 16
Glucose 38
Lactic acid 24 (normal 6-16)
Ketonuria
elevated Serum triglyceride, uric acid
A

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency (Type 1, von Gierke dz)
–impaired glycogen to glucose conversion
= glycogen accumulation in affected organs

Sx: 3-4 months
hypoglycemia = seizures
lactic acidosis
hyperuricemia, hyper lipidemia
Doll-like face, rounded cheeks
431
Q

What is the dx modality of Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? first line treatment?

A

Symptom diary over 2 menstrual cycles

  • -SSRI’s are first line
  • -Combined OCPs are another tx option: estrogen containing meds are contraindicated in pt w migraines
432
Q

Which meds can be used to augment an SSRI in a pt with major depression disorder with a partial response (25%-50% improvement)

A

Augmentation =

  1. adding antidepressant w a different mechanism of action (ie Bupropion)
  2. 2nd gen antipsychoti (aripiprazole)
  3. lithium
  4. triiodothyronine
  5. psychotherapy
433
Q

What is dx? preferred abx?
pt just returned from a cruise to the bahamas comes in w fever, nonproductive cough, shortness of breah for 2 days, headache, abdominal pain, diarrhea for a day. hx of smoking. febrile, lungs have crackles bilaterally, serum glucose is normal, hyponatremia, CXR shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates

A

Legionella pneumonia
–Contaminated water (Hospital, cruise, hotel)
Sx: fever >101.8, bradycardia, GI, Pulm sx are delayed

Dx: Hyponatremia, Lobar infiltrate, Sputum gram stain = PMN, few/no organisms
Urine Legionella Ag

Tx: Respirator fluoroquinolone, or newer macrolide

434
Q

What is typical vaginal pH? what is the ph in candida vulvovaginitis?

which situations cause elevated pH?

A

3.8-4.5
Candidal infection: vaginal pH is normal

BV + trich = elevated pH

435
Q

How are anterior rib tenderpoints treated?

A

anterior tenderpoints = depressed ribs

treated w flexion, sidebending and rotation towards tenderpoint

436
Q

How is Turner’s syndrome treated in a 5 year old who has always been below the 5th percentril for height for her age?

A

HGH - indicated when height falls below 5th percentile
Start on Estrogen/Progestin Therapy and Stop HGH once epiphyseal fusion has occurred

Surgical consult for coarctation or aorta

437
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for intraventricular hemorrhage in infants?

A

risk of IVH is inversely proportional to birth weight

438
Q

What is the time period criteria in the dx of:

  1. Acute Stress Disorder
  2. PTSD
A
  1. 3 days - 1 month

2. >1 month

439
Q

What is dx? tx?
Immunocompromised pt w hemoptysis. 3 days of fever, pleuritis chest pain, and cough w thick brown sputum. No improvement w oral abx. CXR shows dense right upper lobe infiltrate. CT scan shows several nodular lesions w surrounding ground glass opacities in the right upper lobe. Suputm gram stain shows inflammatory cells but no organisms

A

Invasive aspergillosis
-Triad: fever, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis
CT: nodules w surrounding ground glass opacities (halo sign)
Dx: serum biomarkers for cell wall components (galactomannan assay) and sputum stain/culture

Tx: 1-2 IV voriconazole + echinocandin (caspofungin)
then transition to prolonged therapy with oral voriconazole alone.

440
Q

What is dx? management?
pt in MVA with multiple injuries has multiple blood transfusions, chest tube, pelvis fixation. on 5th day he is minimally responsive and spontaneous respirations. Diminished bowel sounds, facial grimacing w palpation of the RUQ. NG tube aspiration shows retention of gastric contents. CT scans shows gaseous distention of small and large bowels w/o air fluid levels. Gallbladder is distended w no gallstones. small amount of pericholecystic fluid.

A

Acalculous cholecystitis

  • commonly seen in severely ill pts in icu w multiorgan failure, trauma, etc.
  • -Due to Cholestasis and gallbladder ischemia = secondary infection by enteric organisms = edema and necrosis of gallbladder.

-Imaging: gallbladder wall thickening + distention and pericholecystic fluid.

Management: Abx, percutaneous choleystostomy
-once pt condition improves - cholecystectomy w drainage of abscesses

441
Q

What is dx:
80 year old woman w 3+ peripheral edema. fatigue and SOB w activity. BP 140/75 JVD, no heart murmurs. Breath sounds are decreased at the bases bilaterally. Abdomen is distended w flank dullness on percussio.
Hb 11.2
Sodium 132
Cr 0.9
Urine protein is 1g/24 hr
Echo shows LA enlargement, marked concentric LVH, LV EF is 70%

how is EDV, ESV, EF, Coronary Wall Thickness affected?

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy - from Amyloidosis
–aSx proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome
waxy skin, anemia, easy bruising, hepatomegaly, gi bleeding, cardiac amyloidosis, subq nodules, Enlarged tongue, neuropathy

EDV - decreased
ESV - unchanged
EF - unchanged
CWT - unchanged

442
Q

When are DEXA scans recommended by USPSTF?

A

one-teim DEXA screen for all women age >65

and women <65 w equivalent risk from FRAX assessment tool

443
Q

What is dx? treatment?
32 year old female w epistaxis, menorrhagia, bruising throughout the body. Labs show normal PT time, prolonged PTT time, prolonged bleeding time. Normal platelet count

A

vWillebrand Disease

  • binds both platelets and endothelial components = increased bleeding time
  • carries factor VIII in the blood = increased PTT

Tx: Desmopressin (DDAVP) = increases circulating levels of vWF, Factor VIII

–Complete deficiency ineven of major bleeding or unresponsiveness to desmopressin is factor VIII (with vWF)

444
Q

what is dx: 4 year old w pruritic rashes on the antecubital folds, bilaterally. occurs every summer for the past 2 years. Multiple raised, erythematous patches

A

Atopic dermatitis

  • erythematous, pruritic, patches, may become elevated
  • a/w asthma, allergic rhinitis, increased IgE levels.
  • worsened w dry weather
445
Q

wha are the indications for the different dx modalities for PE?

what is the management?

A

Pulmonary angiogram - gold standard

Helical CT scan of chest = often dx test of choice, no as accurate as angiogram

Vent/perfusion scan = pt where contrast or radiation exposure is contraindicated (renal failure, pregnancy, contrast allergy)

Management: Coumadin w heparin bridge - first time PE = anticoagulation for 3-6 months w warfarin

446
Q

When is Rhogam administered?

A

All Rh negative mothers should receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks.

447
Q

What is the dx? etiology? tx?
65 year old female w two blisters on dorsum of right hand. facial hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation. denies abdominal pain. Serum and urine porphyrin are elevated.

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

  • deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase.
  • Sx: painless blistering of sun-exposed areas of the skin - that rupture and become crusted. Increased facial hair

Tx: chloroquine or phlebotomy (in case of iron overload)

448
Q

what is dx: 55 yr old w hx of rheumatic fever. Cardiac auscultation shows low-pitched diastolic murmur at left lower sternal border that is louder w inspiration

A

Tricuspid stenosis
–R sided = murmur increases w increased R atrial return w inspiration

–Mitral stenosis wil have increased murmur w exhalation

449
Q

How d you distinguish syncope from tonic-clonic siezure

A

syncope - usually maintains bladder control

grand-mal seizure - loss of bladder control

450
Q

what is the appearance of Berylliosis on chest xray

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

  • -indistinguishable from sarcoidosis
  • -Tx: glucocorticoids
451
Q

what is the appearance of Silicosis on chest xray

A

Nodular opacitis in the upper lobe

452
Q

what is the appearance of Asbestosis on chest xray

A

Bilateral opacities with pleural plaques

453
Q

What is dx?
5 year old about to start school has 3 days fever and sore throat that makes him not feel like eating. Oropharyngeal examination shows multiple 1-mm vesicles on anterior tonsillar pillars. Several grayish ulcerated lesions are also seen in the posterior oropharyx. Nonteender cervical lymph nodes are palpable bilaterally

A

Herpangina - Coxsackie A virus
-Summer/early fall seasonality
-Sx: Fever, pharyngitis, GRAY vesicles/ulcers on TONSILLAR PILLARS and posterior oropharynx
(HSV gingivostomatitis is generally localized to anterior oropharynx and lips)

454
Q

What conditions can pulsus paradoxus be observed?

A

Cardiax tamponade

Asthma or COPD

455
Q

What is dx:
38 yr old woman w incidental finding of intrahepatic cyst. on CT it is well-defined w eggshell calcification. Never travelled outside the US. has 2 pet dogs at home for 10 years

A

Hydatid cyst - Echinococcus granulosus

–“Eggshell” calcification

456
Q

What is management of superficial thrombophlebitis?

A

NSAIDs, elevation, heat, support stockings

  • pts are encourage to ambulate
  • sx typically resolve in 7 to 10 days.
457
Q

What is dx? etiology?
44 year old male w increased fatigue. hx of heavy alcohol abuse. Exam show spider angiomata, caput medusa, jaundice, gynecomastia, hemorrhoids, palmar erythema. Cr is 2.7 mg/dL. his pervious Cr 3 months ago was 1.1 mg/dL

A

Hepatorenal syndrome - from renal artery vasoconstriction

  • -splanchnic, systemic vasodilation that occurs in cirrhosis and portal HTN = increased CO + decrease SVR
  • -Sympathetics, Renin angiotensin system are activated to counteract the above = renal vasocontriction = decrease in GFR/renal failure.
458
Q

what is the management:

40 year old woman w fam hx of breast cancer has lesion on mammography. Stereotactic core needle bx shows LCIS

A

Excisional biopsy

459
Q

What are pleural fluid findings in tuberculosis?

A
  1. lymphocytes > 80%
  2. greatly increased total protein
  3. Adenosin deaminase >40 (less than 40 rules out TB)
460
Q

What are pleural fluid findings in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Extremely low pleural fluid glucose level

other: empyema, malignancy

461
Q

What is the most common cardiac abnormality associated with Turner’s Syndrome?

Second most common?

A

Bicuspid Aortic Valve = most common

Coarctation of Aorta = second most common

462
Q

A 21 year old pt with symptoms of infectious mononucleosis presents with a maculopapular rash on her abdomen. She was prescribed a course of abx by her primary care physician. what was the most likely cause of her presentation

A

Amoxicillin and ampicillin = known to cause a mobilliform rash in EBV cases

463
Q

What is the management of intussusception in a 3 year old

A

US = metho of choice in detection

TX: Air or water soluble contrast enema reduction

464
Q

What is most likely etiology:
3 year old girl w severe oral pain. Has similar sx before. pmh of 2 sinus infections and numerous episodes of cellulitis. Skin cultures from previous infections show S. aureus. and S. pyogenes. Exam shows periodontal inflammation w ulceration and necrosis

A

Defective leukocyte adhesion

  • recurrent skin infection (cellulitis, abscess, omphalitis) and mucosal (periodontal) infections
  • Bx of infected tissue is devoid of neutrophils
  • Labs showmarked leukocytosis w neutrophil predominance
465
Q

A pt with bipolar disorder is prescribed a new medication. He then develops a rash. What is the most likely medication

A

Lamotrigine - mood stabilizer, anticonvulsant

  • Drug rash
  • -can cause SJS, TEN
  • drug should be discontinued at first sign of rash
466
Q

How is the risk of preterm labor assessed? how is it managed?

A

No Hx of Preterm labor = evaluate w TVUS
-if <2 cm = treat w vaginal progesterone to maintain uterine quiescence

Positive Hx of Preterm labro = Progesterone injections and TVUS

  • if >2.5cm = serial TVUS
  • if <2.5cm = cerclage, serial TVUS
467
Q

How are stress fractures of the foot managed?

A

Fx of 2nd, 3rd, 4th = managed conservatively (rest and simple analgesics)

Fx of 5th metatarsal = casting or internal fixation (increased risk for nonunion)

468
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal respiratoyr distress syndrome?

A
  1. Prematurity = most important
  2. male sex
  3. perinatal asphyxia
  4. Maternal diabetes - increased insulin antagonizes cortisol and block maturation of sphingomyelin.
  5. Cesarean section w/o labor
469
Q

What is the management of an acute Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation?

A

Glucocorticoids (ie IV methylprednisolone) - hastens neurologic recovery

–Plasmapheresis should be considered in patients w MS flare who are refractory to corticosteroid therapy

470
Q

What is the dx? additional findings?
8 year old boy w slightly pruritis, erythematous lesion on buttocks and legs that coalesce and darken. Pt also has abdominal pain, nausea, 2 episodes of nonbilious emesis. Hx of seasonal allergies and moderate eczema. Passive range of motion of both hips elicits pain

A

Henoch-Schonlein
–a/w Hematuria

Tx: Supportive (hydration & NSAIDs)
-hospitalization and systemic glucocorticoids in pts w severe sx

471
Q

What is dx? management?
16 year old undergoes dilatation and curettage at 11 weeks gestation after missed abortion. 2 days later she has vag bleeding and abdominal pain. BP 105/70, 100.5F, pulse 105 Cervic is dilated 2cm and uterus is tender

A

Septic abortion
–ascending infection into the uterus or retained products of conception after abortion

Tx: IV abx and dilatation and curettage

472
Q

What is the first step in management of a hypercalcemic crisis

A

Normal saline - keep urine output greater than 100 cc per hour
–increases renal excretion of sodium (followed by calcium)

473
Q

What is the diagnostic test for an insulinoma?

A

72 hour fast - insulin levels continue to be increased

—localize w abdominal ultrasound or CT scan

474
Q

What does a trichomonas vaginalis infection increase the risk of?

A

HIV infection

475
Q

What is dx: etiology
35 year old w family hx of paternal cardiovascular dz at 40. Achilles tendon xanthoma.
labs: elevated total cholesterol, significantly elevated LDL, normal TG, HDL

A

Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa

  • most common type of famliial hyperlipproteinemia
  • -deficiency of LDL receptor
  • -defective apoprotein B-1000
476
Q

What id dx: etiology
eruptive xanthomas, corneal arcus, xanthelasma, dyspnea, pancreatitis, abd pain, hepatosplenomegaly
labs: significant elevation in TG

A

Hyperlipoproteinemia type I

  • v rare
  • decreased lipoprotein lipase = increase level of chylomicrons = increased TG
477
Q

What is dx and etiology
Labs: increased LDL and VLDL, increased TG
sometimes HDL decreased

A

Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIb

  • decreased LDL receptor
  • increase apolipoprotein B
478
Q

What is mortality rate of breast cancer:
population: 200,000
700 has breast cancer
75 died

A

Mortality =
(75/200,000) x 100,000 = 37.5/100,000/year

have to standardize as per 100,000/year

479
Q

What is the initial workup of uncomplicated mucocutaneous candidiasis (thrush)

A

test for HIV:

HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody immunoassay

480
Q

What is the firstline therapy of hemodynamically stable pt w a flail chest

A

Pain management and oxygen therapy

481
Q

How is q angle related to

  1. genu varus
  2. genu valgus
A
  1. q angle decreased
  2. q angle increased

normal q angle is 10-12 degrees

482
Q

What findings are more likely in an infant of a mother complicated by gestation diabetes born w macrosomia?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome
hypoglycemia
hypocalcemia
polycythemia

483
Q

What is the etiology and the lab findings of Renal Tubular Acidosis type IV?

TX?

A

caused by Hypoaldosteronism

  • hyponatremia
  • hyperchloremia
  • hyperkalemia
  • acidic urine

seen in pt w diabetes and interstitial nephritis resulting in hyporeninemic state

tx: if hyperkalemia causes EKG changes - IV calcium

then loop or thiazide diuretics +/- sodium bicarb

484
Q

What is the etiology and the lab findings of Renal Tubular Acidosis type I?

tx?

A

Distal tubular defect (deficiency in H+ secretion)

  • urine pH >6.0
  • hypokalemia
  • higher predisposition to develop nephrolithiasis
  • -from higher calcium and phosphate excretion from alkaline urine

-Sjogren’s, SLE, autoimmune

Tx: Sodium bicarb

485
Q

What is the etiology and the lab findings of Renal Tubular Acidosis type II?

A

Defect at proximal tubules fxn to reabsorb bicarb

  • -causes non-anion gap hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
  • Low bicarb
  • high chloride
  • Low potassium
  • Distinguish from RTA Type I with Urine pH (RTA T1 cannot acidy urine beyond pH of 5.5)

a/w Fanconi’s syndrome, Mult Myeloma, Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor use

-Tx: Alkali replacement

486
Q

What kidney disorder is most common form of nephrotic syndrome in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Minimal change disease

487
Q

What is the criteria for lung cancer screening?

A

Annual Low-dose chest CT scan
55-80
>30 pack-year smoking hx AND smoke within last 15 years

can discontinue:
age >80 OR
pt quit for >15 years OR
other med problems that signficantly limit life

488
Q

What is dx? dx modality? tx?
32 year old w pain, watering, redness in left eye for 2 days. Similar sx few months ago. Exam shows vesicles and dendritic ulcers in cornea

A

Herpes simplex keratitis
epithelial scrapings = multi-nucleated giant cells

tx: antiviral therapy (oral or topical)

489
Q

What is the hemoglobin pattern seen in a SCD pateitn on hydroxyurea?

A

0% HbA
80% HbS
17% HbF
0% HbC

SCD: mostly HbS, some (~7%) HbF
Hydroxyurea: increases HbF in circulation

490
Q

When is the HPV vaccine recommended?

A

Male + female: 11-12
Female: through age 26
Male: through age 21

491
Q

23 year old in MVA. has lower extremity fractures, abdominal bruising, scalp lacerations, shortness of breath. BP was 95/60 pulse 120/min. Spine is immobilized, given 1 L IV fluids. becomes progressively drowsy on way to hospital. Develops progressive weakness of the right side of body. BP 160/90, pulse 50.

What is dx? which cranial nerve is probably compromised?

A

Transtentorial (Uncal) Herniation

  • Compression of contralateral crus cerebri = ipsilateral hemiparesis
  • compression of CN III = mydriasis (loss of parasym), loss of motor (ptosis, down and out gaze of ipsilateral pupil)
  • Compression of Retcular formation = decreased consciousness/coma
  • Compression of ipsi post cerebral artery = ischemia of visual cortex (contralat homonymous hemianopsia)
492
Q

What additional cardiac related drug does digoxin interact with?

A

Amiodarone

  • -decrease digoxin dosage when prescribing amiodarone
  • -Sx: Neuro: anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain, fatigue, confusion, weakness, Color vision alterations

also hypokalemia a/w loo diuretic use

493
Q

What are three drugs that can cause folic acid deficiency?

A

Phenytoin
Trimethoprim
Methotrexate

494
Q

What are the indications for cesarean section?

A
  1. Complete Placenta Previa
  2. Vasa previa
  3. Placenta Accreta
  4. Active or Symptomatic Herpes Lesions
  5. maternal HIV w viral load above 1000 copies/ml
  6. Irreversible fetal distress
  7. Malpresentation
  8. Placental abruption only in presence of deteriorating maternal and fetal status
495
Q

Where do gastinomas or Zollinger-Ellison syndrome usualy arise? has is dx made?

A

Duodenum
-less common in pancreas

Dx by:

  1. measuring serum gastrin
  2. Secretin injection test (normal gastric cells are inhibited by secretin)
    - -gastrin is remeasured, if elevated = gastrinoma

–tumor location is determined by ultrasound or radionuclide octreotide scanning

496
Q

What is the most appropriate management of croup?

A

Dexamethasone + oxygen

subglottic swelling = aerosolized racemic epinephrine
imminent resp failure = intubation

497
Q

What is dx? management? what are pt’s more susceptible to?
10 year old infant height and weight shows failure to thrive, develops jaundice and has episodes of vomiting. Exam shows hepatomegaly and cataracts

A

Galactosemia - deficiency in galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
Sx:
1. failure to thrive
2. Cataracts
3. Liver disease
Tx: avoid dietary galactose (soy-based milk)

Infants are more susceptibel to E coli infection

498
Q

What is an appropriate test to dx a 94 year old male w dizziness and visual changes when looking in rearview mirror?

A

Wallenberg test

  • hold head in six diff planes of motion for 10 seconds
  • -detects vertebral artery insufficiency
  • do NOT perform cervical HVLA on pt w positive test
499
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of a medulloblastoma?

A

Proximity to 4th ventricle = obstructive hydrocephalus (headache, vomiting, papilledema)

major occur in cerebellar vermis = tuncal or gait ataxia

500
Q

What is the next step in management of a hemodynamically stable patient where GBS is suspected?

A

Spirometry - assess pulmonary function

501
Q

How is Cellulitis different than Erysipelas?

A

Cellulitis - skin infection of DEEP dermis and subq fat

  • flat indistinct borders
  • strep pyo = nonpurulent
  • staph aur = purulent

Erysipelas = limited to epidermis and superficial dermis
-Strepto pyogenes
=Raised, sharp borders, intense erythema

502
Q

How is Pneumocystis jirovecii diagnosed? How is it managed?

A

Respiratory sample microscopy w specialized stains

  • -Induced sputum = least invasive
  • -Bronchoalveolar lavage = if sputum cant be obtained

Tx: TMP/SMX
Once CD4 count <200 pts should be started on TMP/SMX of Dapsone prophylactically (Dapsone is just prophylaxis, not tx)

503
Q

What is dx? first line tx?
31 year old w R knee pain, R heel pain, Low back pain. Recently treated for urethral discharge. Tenderness present over Achilles tendon. Mouth ulcers. Synovial fluid analysis shows WBC 10,000 w many PMN leukocytes, negative gram stain

A
Reactive arthritis - NSAIDs
Triad:
1. Nongonococcal urethritis
2. Asymmetric oligoarthritis
3. Conjunctivitis
Also:
Mucocutaneous lesions
Enthesitis (Achilles tendon pain)
504
Q

What is dx:
34 year old w vague chest discomfort. Recent URI. CXR shows enlarged mediastinum. helical CT shows mass in middle mediastinum

A

Bronchogenic cyst
-other middle mediastinum masses: tracheal tumors, pericardial cysts, lymphoma, lymph node enlargement, aortic aneurysms of the arch

Thymoma - ANTERIOR mediastinum

505
Q

What should be monitored while a patient is taking hydroxychloroquine?

A

eye exam
—risk for retinopathy

hydroxychloroquine = TNF & IL-1 suppressor

506
Q

A pt with depression, migraines, rheumatoid arthritis presents after overdosing on one of her meds. She describes nausea, upper abdominal discomfort tinnitus and vertigo. Temp is 100.5, resp 26/min, pulse 115/min
Whats is the med? Acid base status?

A

Aspirin/Salicylate intoxication
-Tinnitus, fever, tachypnea, nausea, GI irritation.

Respiratory alkalosis from tachypnea
Anion gap metabolic Acidosis: uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria = anaerobic metabolism

507
Q

What are serum side effects of methotrexate? management?

A

Macrocytic Anemia
-methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

other Sx: nausea, stomatitis, rash, hepatotoxicity, interstitial lung disease, alopecia, fever

Tx: supplemental folic acid

508
Q

When is Down’s Syndrome screening performed?

What are screen findings of Down’s?

A

15-20 weeks w triple test at minimum (hCG, unconjugated estriol, AFP)
—High-risk pregnancies use quad screen
>35yrs, presenting late for prenatal care

Decreased AFP
Decreased Estriol
Increased inhibin A
Increased hCG

509
Q

What is dx:

5 year old w painful limp, recent hx of sinusitis, Labs show normal WBC, normal ESR

A

Transient synovitis

510
Q

What are the actions of the rotator cuff muscles?

A
SITS
Supraspinatus - Abduction
Infraspinatus - External rotator
Teres minor - External rotator
Subscapularis - Internal rotator
511
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy?

A

Subcutaneous heparin

unfractionated or LMWH

512
Q

What is the tx of Otitis externa?

common causes?

A

S. aureus + Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Tx: Topical Ciprofloxacin + Hydrocortisone otic

513
Q
What is dx? management?
Hospitalized pt for CAP has:
Normal TSH
Decreased T3
Normal T4
A

Euthyroid sick syndrome

  • nonspecific causes
  • No Tx necessary, self resolving, follow up w thyroid studies
514
Q

What is the management of PUD a/w H. pylori?

A

Triple therapy:

  1. amoxicillin
  2. clarithromycin
  3. PPI
515
Q

What are symptoms of Uncal herniation

A

Supratentorial brain herniates downward - compresses CN III

-Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil, does no constrict to light

516
Q

What are symptoms of Tonsillar herniation

A

Downward cerebellar herniation - compression of medulla

—respiratory and cardiac dysfunction

517
Q

What are symptoms of Central hernation

A

Transtentorial herniation downward

  • AMS or tear of basilar artery (fatal Duret hemorrhage)
  • Hyperventilation and Cheyne-Stokes breathing
518
Q

What are ECG findings of hypocalcemia

A

Prolonged QT interval

519
Q

What are ECG findings of hyperkalemia

A

peaked T-waves

Widened QRS complexes

520
Q

What are ECG findings of hypercalcemia

A

Shortened QT interval

521
Q

What is the drug prescribed? additional side fx?

pt w hx of depression started on new drug, has painful erection for 6 hours

A

Trazodone

  1. Priapism
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
  3. Excessive sedation
522
Q

How is endometriosis diagnosied?

A

Laparoscopy

-powder-burn/gun-powder lesions from hemosiderin

523
Q

What are the step to diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s)

A
  1. Measure plasma aldosterone/renin
    - if >25:
  2. Sodium loading
    - pt given oral sodium of fludrocortisone over 3 days
    - -if aldosterone level is no suppressed below 10 ng/dL, pt has Conn’s
524
Q

What is the management of anorexia in Cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome?

A
Progesterone analogues (ie megestrol acetate) or corticosteroids
--increase appetite, weight gain, improve well-being
525
Q

What can be used to prevent recurrence of uric acid kidney stones?

A

Potassium citrate

-alkaline urine + low purine diet

526
Q

which Diabetic medication can assist in weight loss

A

GLP-1 agonist

527
Q

What is nutrient deficiency?
Pt w Crohn disease is restarting oral feeding after surgical procedures.
Has diarrhea, alopecia, pustular, crusting skin rash, says food does not taste same as before

A

Zinc deficiency - absorbed in duodenum and jejunum

Sx:
Alopecia
Pustular skin rash (perioral, extremities)
Hypogonadism
Impared wound healing
Impaired taste
Immune dysfunction
528
Q

Where is location of hemorrhage:

Stroke pt w right hemiplegia, reight hemisensory loss, leftward deviation of eyes

A

Left Putamen/Basal Ganglia/Thalamus
-almost always involves internal capsule

Contralateral hemiparesis + hemianesthesia

529
Q

What is an alternative to penicillin for treating syphillis?

A

Doxycycline (Primary, Secondary, Latent stages)

Ceftriaxone (Tertiary stage)

530
Q

What are preventative prophylaxis options for Migraines?

A

Topiramate
Divalproex sodium
TCA
B-blockers

531
Q

What is the most likely cause of pneumonia in a 6 year old boy with cystic fibrosis?

A

Staph aureus in pts <20

Pseudomonas in pts >20

532
Q

What are the most common causes of vrial meningitis?

A

90% of cases by non-polio enteroviruses

  1. echovirus
  2. coxsackievirus
533
Q

What is dx?
35 yr old HIV positive male w eye pain, mild conjunctivitis, rapid progressive visual loss. Exam shows keratitis. Fundoscopy shows widespread, pale, peripheral retinal lesions, central necrosis of the retina

A

Herpes simplex or Varicella

  • –CMV retinitis = painless, fundoscopy shows fluffy or granular retinal lesions near retinal vessels + hemorrhages
  • does not cause initial conjunctivitis or keratitis
534
Q

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnant women

  1. with a normal BMI
  2. Overweight
  3. Obese
  4. underweight
A
  1. (18.5-24.9) - 25-35 lbs
  2. (25-29.9) = 15-25 lbs
  3. (>29.9) = 11-20
  4. (<18.5) = 28-40
535
Q

What is the most appropriate next steps when a pt shows symptoms of redman syndrome after given IV Vancomycin

A

Stop infusion +/- antihistamines and continue vancomycin at slower rate after symptoms subside

Redman syndrome = hypotension, dyspnea, erythema, pruritis

536
Q

What is the management of Zenker’s diverticulum

A

Esoophageal myotomy of Cricopharyngeus muscle

-with or without removal of diverticulum

537
Q

How does Neuronal injury in diabetes progress?

A

Deposition of glycosylation end products
–Length-dependent axonopathy = clinical features occuring first in LONGEST nerves (ie feet)

Small fiber injury = positive sx (pain, paresthesias, allodynia)

Large fiber injury = negative sx (numbness, loss of proprioception/vibration, diminished reflexes)

538
Q

What is pseudocyesis?

A

Somatiziation of stress = Symptoms of early pregnancy, pt believes she is pregnant, but not

539
Q

What is the underlying etiology of nephrolithiasis in a pt w Crohn’s dz?

A

Increased absorption of oxalate

  • calcium normally binds oxalate in guy and prevents absorption
  • -pts w fat malabsorption = calcium preferentially bound by fat = oxalate is unbound = absorbed
540
Q

How are Hirschsprung dz and Meconium ileus differentiated?

What are associated comorbidities for each?

A

Hirschsprung = increased rectal tone, “squirt sign” (forceful expulsion of stool after rectal exam), proximal DILATED colon
–a/w for Down Syndrome = Alzheimer, Hypothyroidism

Meconium Ileus = Thick, inspissated meconium, obstruction at ileum, NARROW underdeveloped colon

  • -a/w CF** (virtually diagnostic)
  • tx w hyperosmolar enema (Gastrografin), then surgery if not effective
541
Q

What are contraindications for the Rotavirus vaccine series given at ages 2-6 months

A
  1. Anaphylaxis to vaccine ingredients
  2. Hx of Intussusception
  3. Hx of uncorrected congenital malformation of GI tract (ie Meckels diverticulum
  4. SCID
542
Q

What is dx?
65 year old w cervical degenerative changes in MVA. marked weakness of both upper extremities, able to move lower extremities.

A

Central cord syndrome
–hyperextension injuries w pre-existing degenerative changes in cervical spine

Sx: weakness that is more pronounced in upper extremities than in lower.

543
Q

What is dx? management?
4 month old w macroglossia, 99th percentile for weight, length, head circumference, reducible umbilical hernia, R upper and lower extremities are significantly larger in circumference than L extremities.

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
-deregulation of chromosome 11p15
Sx: fetal macrosomia, macroglossia, hemihyperplasia, medial abdominal wall defects

Management:

  1. Newborns monitored for hypoglycemia (secondary to macroglossia)
  2. Abdominal US + AFP levels (significant increased risk of Wilms tumor, Hepatoblastoma)
    - every 3 months from birth to 4 years, then just US from 4-8
544
Q

What is dx:
17 year old w recurrent nephrolithiasis. uncle has same problem. Urinalysis shows hexagonal crystals. Urinary cyanide nitroprusside test is positive.

A

Cystinuria
-impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids (ornithine, lysine, arginine)

-Cystine stones = hard, can be radiolucent

545
Q

What are dietary recommendations for recurrent calcium kidney stones?

A
  1. increased fluid intake
  2. decreased sodium intake
  3. normal dietary calcium intake
546
Q

What is dx?

Recent travel to mexico. Abdominal pain, N/V, muscle pain in neck and jaw muscles. periorbital edema, eosinophilia

A

Trichinellosis - undercooked meat
-triad: periorbital edema, myositis, eosinophilia

Tx: typically slef-limited, severe infections = mebendazole, albendazole w steroids

547
Q

What are common early and long term side fx of SSRI’s?

A

early: headache, nausea, insomnia/sedation, anxiety, dizziness

Long-term: sexual dysfunction, weight gain

548
Q

what is dx:
6 year old w refractory GERD symptoms after PPI prescription. Has eczematous patches on bilateral antecubital fossae and behind both knees. Endoscopy shows circular rings and thickened , linear furrowing of esophagus

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

549
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of digital clubbing?

A
  1. lung malignancies
  2. cystic fibrosis
  3. right-to-left cardiac shunts
550
Q

What is CHARGE syndrome?

A
Coloboma - iris malformation
Heart Defects
Atresia Choanae
Retardation of growth/dev
GU anomalies
Ear abnomalities/deafness
551
Q

What is dx? greatest risk of mortality?
15 yr old boy w worsening dysarthria, wide-based, unstable gait. Absent deep tendon reflexes of bilateral lower extremities. MRI shows marked atrophy of medulla and dorsal columns of spinal cord. Scoliosis present

A

Friedreich ataxia
-autosomal recessive, GAA, frataxin gene loss of fxn

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Sx: Cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria, loss of vib/position sense, absent DTR, DM, skeletal deformities

552
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Autosomal dominant

553
Q

What is dx:
HIV positive pt w altered mental status. CD4 count is 40. viral load is 25,000. MRI shows solitary irregular, weakly ring-enhancing mass in periventricular area. Serology is positive for Toxoplasma, PCR of CSF shows EBV DNA

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

554
Q

What is causation:

Transplant patient has gum hypertrophy and signs of nephrotoxicity

A
Cyclosporine
Side fx:
1. Nephrotoxicity
2. HTN
3. Neuro toxicity
4. Glucose intolerance
5. Gingival hypertrophy + Hirsutism

(Tacrolimus has similar toxicity profile but does not cause hirsutism of gum hypertrophy)

555
Q

How is Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma diagnosed?

A

FNA

  • -Invasion of tumor capsule and/or blood vessels
  • -hard to tell histologically apart from follicular adenomas (both have follicular cells arranged in microfollicles, clusters, clumps)
556
Q

What is the treatment of catatonia?

A

Benzos

electroconvulsive therapy

557
Q

Where is lesion? associated dz?
26 year old w double vision, dizziness, unsteady gait. Attempted left gaze = left eye abducts, exhibits horizontal nystagmus, but right eye stays still. Attempted right gaze = right eye abducts and exhibits horizontal nystagmus, left eye remains stationary.
Able to converge both eyes.

A

Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia = Medial longitudinal fasciculus

-most likely has multiple sclerosis

558
Q

What is pathogen?
Patient back from recent hiking trip where he frequently went swimming in lakes has 10 days fatigue and copious watery diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium parvum
-traveler’s diarrhea, Prolonged, profuse, watery diarrhea

-protozoan transmitted ingestion of contaminated water

559
Q

What are quad test findings of Trisomy 18

A

AFP decrease
Estriol decrease
Inhibin A decrease
hCG normal

560
Q

When are abx indicated for patients w an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  1. 2 or more cardinal symptoms
    - -increased dyspnea, cough, sputum production
  2. Mechanical ventilation requirement
561
Q

What is dx? management?
55 yr old caucasian w numerous falls from dizziness. Dry mouth, dry skin, erectile dysfunction over couple weeks. Resting tremors, ridigity, bradykinesia

A

Multiple System atrophy (Shy-Drager Syndrome)

  • -Parkinsonism
  • -Autonomic dysfxn
  • -Widespread neuro sx

Tx: intravascular volume expansion = fludrocortisone, salt supplementation, a-adrenergic agonists, compression stockings

562
Q

What is most likely cause:
3 week old from mother w no prenatal care. Had low-grade fever then had generalized tonic-clonic seizure w mild perioral cyanosis. Brain imaging shows patchy areas of increased attenuation in cerebral cortex. Edema and hemorrhage in L temporal lobe and brainstem.

A

Herpes simplex virus
Sx: characteristic vesicles
CNS sx: encephalitis, seizure, full fontanelle

Viral transmission to temporal lobe hemorrhage and edema

563
Q

what is the etiology of hereditary angioedema?

how is dx confirmed?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency/dysfxn = elevated bradykinin

Dx: depressed C4 levles (exaggerated cleavage of C4 by C1)

564
Q

What is the indication of Trastuzumab? what should be tested before prescribing?

A

Human epidermal growth receptor 2-positive breast carcinoma (HER-2)

-echocardiography for baseline cardiac fxn - can cause cardiotoxicity

565
Q

How do you calculate Odds ratio?

A

(A/C)/(B/D)

566
Q

How do you calculate Relative risk reduction?

A

1-RR

567
Q

How do you calculate Number needed to harm?

A

NNH = 1/AR

AR = (A/(A+B))-(C/(C+D))

568
Q

What is berkson bias?

A

study population selected from hospital is less healthy than general population

569
Q

What is a t-test used for?

A

Checks differences between MEANS of 2 groups

570
Q

What is an ANOVA used for?

A

checks differences between MEANS of 3 or more groups

571
Q

What is Chi-square used for?

A

Checks differences between 2 or more percentages or proportions of CATEGORICAL outcomes

572
Q

What are four components of informed consent?

A

indications
risks
benefits
alternatives

573
Q

How do you manage Central Retinal artery occlusion secondary to embolism?

A

Ocular massage and high flow oxygen

574
Q

When succinylcholine is used for rapid-qequience intubation, what is the patient at greatest risk for?

A

Cardiac Arrhythmia
-from severe hyperkalemia

–succinylcholine triggers influx of sodium ions and efflux of potassium ions = depolarization and temporary paralysis

575
Q

What is a/w a chapman’s point between the spinous and transverse processes of T11 and T12

A

Adrenals

576
Q

Waht is a/w a chapman’s point between the spinous and transverse processes of T12 and L1

A

Kidneys

577
Q

What is a/w a chapman’s point on the superior edge of the transverse process of L2

A

Bladder

578
Q

What are uterotonics used in pregnancy? (3)

what are contraindications?

A
  1. Oxytocin
  2. Methylergonovine - contraindicated w HTN
  3. Carboprost - contraindicated w Asthma
579
Q

What is dx? tx?

6 year old w congenital bilateral sensorineural hearing loss has syncopal event. ECG shows QT prolongation

A

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
–molecular defects in potassium channel

-maintain normal levesl of CA, K, Mg

Tx: Propanolol, hx of syncope = pacemaker placement

580
Q

What is dx?
4 month old w noisy breathing. inspiratory and expiratory stridor. imrpoves w extension of neck but not when the infant is held prone.

A

Vascular ring

  • age <1 w respiratory or esophageal symptoms
  • stridor is often biphasic,improves w neck extension
  • -stridor is more prominent w EXPIRATION
581
Q

what is dx?=

4 month old w noisy breathing. Stridor is most prominent w Inspiration. worsens when supine, improves when prone

A

Laryngomalacia

582
Q

what is dx?
9 year old w fever, hives, joint pain, pruritic rash tha began 2 days ago covers his trunk and arms. Currently taking oral penicillin for Strep pharyngitis that was dx’d 9 days ago. Temp is 101.8 Palpable lymph nodes in cervical, axillary, and inguinal regions.

A

Serum sickness-like reaction
–Type III hypersensitivity rxn that occurs 1-2 weeks after administration of B-lactams or TMP-SMX

SX: Fever, urticaria, polyarthralgia
Labs: nonspecific hypocomplementemia, elevated inflammatory markers