all combined Flashcards
Match the definition with the correct pathology.
Epilepsy,Dementia,Parkinson’s disease, Grand mal seizures,Alzheimers disease, Huntington’s Disease
- Condition of the brain in which temporary disturbances occur, causing a range of signs
- Normal aging results in enlargement of the ventricular system and sulci, causing forgetfulness
- Shaking palsy with stooped posture, stiffness, and slow movement with a fixed facial expression
- Generalised convulsions associated with a patient falling, hypersalivation, and incontinence
- Progressive cerebral atrophy developing at an earlier age than the senile period
- Involuntary movements and early dementia
-Condition of the brain in which temporary disturbances occur, causing a range of signs =Epilepsy,
-Normal aging results in enlargement of the ventricular system and sulci, causing forgetfulness = Dementia,
-Shaking palsy with stooped posture, stiffness, and slow movement with a fixed facial expression = Parkinson’s disease,
Generalised convulsions associated with a patient falling, hypersalivation, and incontinence
=Grand mal seizures,
-Progressive cerebral atrophy developing at an earlier age than the senile period =Alzheimers disease,
-Involuntary movements and early dementia =Huntington’s Disease
Which of the following is the most common cause of a brain abscess? Select one: a. Streptococci b. Sinus infection c. Herpes simplex d. Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococci
Match the definition with the pathology
Zygomatic arch, Skull fracture, Diastatic, Tripod, Le Fort fracture, Blowout fracture, Depressed, Fracture, Nasal bones, Mandible
- The submentovertex projection best demonstrates ______ _______ fractures.
- A sharp lucent line
- A________ fracture is a linear fracture that intersects a skull suture and courses along it
- Fractures of the zygomatic arch, orbital floor, and a separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture.
- Bilateral and horizontal fracture of the maxillae
- Direct blow to the front of the orbit caused by a rapid increase in intraorbital pressure.
- A stellate fracture has multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point, is usually found in the skull, and is known as a ______ fracture.
- The face consists of thin, poorly supported bones that easily _______ in response to a traumatic force.
- The most common facial fracture is a fracture of the _______ _____
- The angle of the ________ is the most common fracture site of the jaw.
The correct answer is:
The submentovertex projection best demonstrates ______ _______ fractures. – Zygomatic arch,
A sharp lucent line – Skull fracture, A________ fracture is a linear fracture that intersects a skull suture and courses along it – Diastatic,
Fractures of the zygomatic arch, orbital floor, and a separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture. – Tripod, Bilateral and horizontal fracture of the maxillae – Le Fort fracture,
Direct blow to the front of the orbit caused by a rapid increase in intraorbital pressure. – Blowout fracture,
A stellate fracture has multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point, is usually found in the skull, and is known as a ______ fracture. – Depressed,
The face consists of thin, poorly supported bones that easily _______ in response to a traumatic force. – Fracture,
The most common facial fracture is a fracture of the _______ _____ – Nasal bones,
The angle of the ________ is the most common fracture site of the jaw. – Mandible
A(n) ________ grows slowly, arising from the Schwann cells on the eighth cranial nerve.
Select one:
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Chromophobe adenoma
c. Meningioma
d. Pituitary adenoma
a. Acoustic neuroma
An inadequate production of dopamine may be a contributing cause in cases of _______ disease?
Select one:
a. Huntington’s
b. Parkinson’s
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Epilepsy
b. Parkinson’s
An air-fluid level seen in the sphenoid sinus is indicative of a _______ skull fracture?
Select one:
a. Tripod
b. Blowout
c. Basilar
d. Nasal bone
c. Basilar
Brain metastases usually originate in the ______?
Select one:
a. Colon and lung
b. Testicles and kidneys
c. Lung and breast
d. Breast and cervix
c. Lung and breast
Haemorrhagic strokes are most commonly caused by?
Select one:
a. A berry aneurysm
b. Hypertension
c. Carotid artery disease
d. A and B
e. A and C
d. A and B
Movement of the brain within the skull following blunt force trauma to the skull sometimes results in a cerebral__________?
Select one:
a. Contusion
b. Acute hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subdural hematoma
a. Contusion
Match the definition with the correct pathology
Metastatic carcinoma, Meningioma, Viii Acoustic neuroma,Pituitary adenoma
Abnormal cells reaching the brain by hematogenous spread
Tumour arising from arachnoid lining cells and attached to the dura mater
Focal or generalised enlargement of the cranial nerve
Causes gigantism in adolescents and acromegaly in adults
Abnormal cells reaching the brain by hematogenous spread – Metastatic carcinoma,
Tumour arising from arachnoid lining cells and attached to the dura mater – Meningioma,
Focal or generalised enlargement of the cranial nerve – Viii Acoustic neuroma,
Causes gigantism in adolescents and acromegaly in adults – Pituitary adenoma
Sinus radiographs should be taken using a ________ beam and with the patient in the ________ position?
Select one:
a. Vertical; recumbent
b. Vertical; erect
c. Vertical; prone
d. Horizontal; erect
d. Horizontal; erect
The most common form of inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is______?
Select one:
a. Brain abscess
b. Viral meningitis
c. Bacterial meningitis
d. Encephalitis
c. Bacterial meningitis
A hematoma occurring after a blunt head injury causing venous bleeding is a(n)_____?
Select one:
a. Cerebral contusion
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid bleed
b. Subdural hematoma
Cerebral contusion, Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, Stroke, Cerebrovascular disease, Hydrocephalus, Transient ischemic attacks, Abscess, Epidural
Occurs when the brain comes in contact with the rough skull surfaces.
Hypertensive vascular disease causes ________
Sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurological deficit
Processes causing _____ _____ include abnormal vessel walls, occlusions, blood vessel ruptures, and decreased blood flow.
Dilation of the ventricular system
An embolic stroke or stenosis causing a temporary blockage of a cerebral vessel is a(n) ________.
Loculated infection most often in the grey matter
In _________ empyema, the infectious process is localised outside the dural membrane. This form of empyema is also associated with osteomyelitis.
The correct answer is: Occurs when the brain comes in contact with the rough skull surfaces. – Cerebral contusion,
Hypertensive vascular disease causes ________ – Intraparenchymal haemorrhage,
Sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurological deficit – Stroke,
Processes causing _____ _____ include abnormal vessel walls, occlusions, blood vessel ruptures, and decreased blood flow. – Cerebrovascular disease, Dilation of the ventricular system – Hydrocephalus,
An embolic stroke or stenosis causing a temporary blockage of a cerebral vessel is a(n) ________. – Transient ischemic attacks,
Loculated infection most often in the grey matter – Abscess
, In _________ empyema, the infectious process is localised outside the dural membrane. This form of empyema is also associated with osteomyelitis. – Epidural
A meningioma is a benign tumour arising from______?
Select one:
a. Arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura
b. Embryonic remnants
c. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
d. Glial cells spreading by direct extension
a. Arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura
Match the definitions with the correct pathology
Viral meningitis, Meningitis, Osteomyelitis of the skull, Encephalitis, Bacterial meningitis
Mumps, polio and potentially herpes simplex cause________?
Acute inflammation of the meninges is__________?
Appears radiographically as multiple small poorly defined areas of lucency
Mild headaches and fever to more severe cerebral dysfunction, seizures, and a coma may result from the viral infection of the brain called_____?
Commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young adults
The correct answer is:
Mumps, polio and potentially herpes simplex cause________? – Viral meningitis,
Acute inflammation of the meninges is__________? – Meningitis,
Appears radiographically as multiple small poorly defined areas of lucency – Osteomyelitis of the skull,
Mild headaches and fever to more severe cerebral dysfunction, seizures, and a coma may result from the viral infection of the brain called_____? – Encephalitis,
Commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young adults – Bacterial meningitis
Which of the following is not a membrane covering the brain?
Select one:
a. Epidural
b. Dura mater
c. Arachnoid
d. Pia pater
a. Epidural
Le Fort fractures result in a(n)______?
Select one:
a. Bilateral injury at the angle
b. Inferior orbital rim fracture
c. Detached fragment that is unstable
d. Zygoma detachment
c. Detached fragment that is unstable
Which is the most common result from a FOOSH in 11-16 years olds?
Select one:
a. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis
b. Salter Harris of the physeal plate
c. Colles fracture
d. Scaphoid fracture
b. Salter Harris of the physeal plate
A malignant tumour of the kidney common in children under five years is?
Select one:
a. Teratoma
b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Wilms’ tumour
d. Wilms’ tumour
Which of the following would be an indicator for a skull series
Select one:
a. Congenital heart disease
b. Mastoiditis
c. Hyaline membrane disease
d. Osteomyelitis
b. Mastoiditis
Which is the most common result from a FOOSH in 4-10 years olds?
Select one:
a. Salter Harris of the physeal plate
b. Scaphoid fracture
c. Colles fracture
d. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis
d. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis
Insufficient mineralisation of the immature skeleton results in bowed appearance of the lower limbs.
Select one:
a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Achondroplasia
d. Osteoporosis
a. Rickets
Respiratory distress syndrome/hyaline membrane disease is caused by?
Select one:
a. Sticky mucus
b. Inadequate inspiration
c. Viral infection
d. Inadequate amount of surfactant
b. Inadequate inspiration
Match the definition/description with the correct abdominal pathology
Pyloric stenosis, Celiac disease, Necrotising enterocolitis NEC, – Hydronephrosis,Atresias, Atresias,
Hirschsprung’s disease
Congenital defect in male urethra
May result in repeated, forceful vomiting
Condition resulting from an allergic reaction to gluten
Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine
Enlarged renal collection system due to obstruction
Condition characterised by absence of an opening in an organ
Characterised by absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine
: Congenital defect in male urethra – Hypospadias,
May result in repeated, forceful vomiting – Pyloric stenosis,
Condition resulting from an allergic reaction to gluten – Celiac disease,
Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine – Necrotising enterocolitis NEC,
Enlarged renal collection system due to obstruction
– Hydronephrosis,
Condition characterised by absence of an opening in an organ – Atresias,
Characterised by absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine – Hirschsprung’s disease
Pelvis/hip, Lower limb, Skull,Lower Limb,Chest, Skull, Abdomen DDH Kohler’s disease Shunt check Talipes Atelectasis Hydrocephalus Respiratory distress syndrome Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Intussusception Cystic fibrosis Haemoptysis Premature closure of fontanelles Necrotising enterocolitis Meconium ileus Bronchiectasis
DDH– Pelvis/hip, Kohler’s disease – Lower limb, Shunt check – Skull, Talipes – Lower Limb, Atelectasis – Chest, Hydrocephalus – Skull, Respiratory distress syndrome – Chest, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease – Lower limb, Intussusception – Abdomen, Cystic fibrosis – Chest, Haemoptysis – Chest, Premature closure of fontanelles – Skull, Necrotising enterocolitis – Abdomen, Meconium ileus – Abdomen, Bronchiectasis – Chest
Match the definition/description with the correct chest pathology
Neonate Graves disease, Meconium aspiration, Epiglottitis, Haemoptysis, Cystic fibrosis, Croup, Hyaline membrane disease
A form of hyperthyroidism
May develop during stressful births
Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway
Coughing up blood
Inherited disease leading to clogging of the bronchi
Viral infection leading to laboured breathing and dry cough
Also known as respiratory distress syndrome
The correct answer is:
A form of hyperthyroidism – Neonate Graves disease, May develop during stressful births – Meconium aspiration,
Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway – Epiglottitis,
Coughing up blood – Haemoptysis,
Inherited disease leading to clogging of the bronchi – Cystic fibrosis,
Viral infection leading to laboured breathing and dry cough – Croup,
Also known as respiratory distress syndrome – Hyaline membrane disease
Malignant bone tumours are rare in young children
Select one:
True
False
True
Match the definition/description with the correct skeletal pathology
Osteochondroses, Talipes equinus, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, Osteogenesis imperfecta, Myelocele, Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism,Achondroplasia,
Meningocele, Kohler’s bone disease
Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plates of long bones
Congenital deformity of the foot involving plantar flexion
A common lesion at the hip
Hereditary disorder characterised by soft and fragile bones
Congenital defect in which the spinal cord protrudes through an opening in the vertebral column
Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism
Congenital defect in which the meninges of the spinal cord protrude through an opening in the vertebral column
Inflammation of the navicular bone in the foot
The correct answer is: Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plates of long bones – Osteochondroses,
Congenital deformity of the foot involving plantar flexion – Talipes equinus,
A common lesion at the hip – Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
, Hereditary disorder characterised by soft and fragile bones – Osteogenesis imperfecta,
Congenital defect in which the spinal cord protrudes through an opening in the vertebral column – Myelocele, Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism – Achondroplasia,
Congenital defect in which the meninges of the spinal cord protrude through an opening in the vertebral column – Meningocele,
Inflammation of the navicular bone in the foot – Kohler’s bone disease
Which fracture is more common in paediatrics than adults?
Select one:
a. Smiths fracture
b. Radial head fracture
c. Scaphoid fracture
d. Supercondylar fracture
d. Supercondylar fracture
Which Salter- Harris fracture has the worst prognosis?
Select one:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 5
d. Type 4
c. Type 5
Which of the following is caused by inflammation of the inner lining of the bowel, resulting in tissue death?
Select one:
a. Meconium ileus
b. Intussusception
c. Necrotising enterocolitis
d. Congenital heart disease
c. Necrotising enterocolitis
Which of the following is not a sign of a perforation on a supine x-ray?
Select one:
a. Wrigler’s sign
b. Football sign
c. Telltale sign
d. Batwing sign
d. Batwing sign
The hip may pop or click when evaluating children with which pathology?
Select one:
a. Club foot
b. Chondromas
c. Herniated vertebral disks
d. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
d. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Stridor can be the result of?
Select one:
a. Croup
b. Epiglottitis
c. Allergic reaction
d. Inhalation of a foreign body
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
A boot shaped heart is used to describe the cardiac silhouette in which pathology?
Select one:
a. Atrial septal defect
b. Dextrocardia
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
Which statement relating to meconium plugs is false?
Select one:
a. Caused by a functional immaturity of the colon
b. Half of all cases will be associated with Hirschsprung disease
c. Usually transient
d. An enema can cure the pathology
b. Half of all cases will be associated with Hirschsprung disease
Match the definition with the correct pathology
Ankylosing spondylitis, Teardrop burst fracture, Spondylitis, Scheuermann disease, Unilateral subluxation, Jefferson fracture, Hangman’s fracture,
Clay shovler’s fracture, Kyphosis, Scoliosis
A form of rheumatoid arthritis
Comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with posterior fragments displaced into the spinal canal
Inflammation of the verterbrae
Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during adolescence
Produces the bow tie sign
Impact fracture from axial loading of the anterior and posterior arch of C1
Fracture through the pedicles and anterior arch of C2 with forward displacement onto C3
Avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7
Abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
The correct answer is:
A form of rheumatoid arthritis – Ankylosing spondylitis, Comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with posterior fragments displaced into the spinal canal – Teardrop burst fracture,
Inflammation of the verterbrae – Spondylitis,
Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during adolescence – Scheuermann disease,
Produces the bow tie sign – Unilateral subluxation, Impact fracture from axial loading of the anterior and posterior arch of C1 – Jefferson fracture,
Fracture through the pedicles and anterior arch of C2 with forward displacement onto C3 – Hangman’s fracture,
Avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7 – Clay shovler’s fracture,
Abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine – Kyphosis,
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine – Scoliosis
Match the definition with the correct pathology
Spondylolysis, Scoliosis,Chance fracture, Ankylosing spondylitis, Compression fracture,Herniated nucleus pulposus, Spina bifida,Spondylolisthesis,Spondylolysis
Lateral curvature of the spine
Fracture of the vertebral body caused by hyperflexion force
Answer 2
Inflammatory condition that is most common in males in their 30s
Answer 3
A type of fracture that rarely causes neurologic deficits
Answer 4
Most common at the L4-5 level and may result in sciatica
Answer 5
Congenital defect where the posterior elements of the vertebral fail to unite
Answer 6
Forward displacement of one vertebra onto another vertebra
Answer 7
Dissolution and separation of the pars interarticularis
The correct answer is:
Lateral curvature of the spine – Scoliosis,
Fracture of the vertebral body caused by hyperflexion force – Chance fracture,
Inflammatory condition that is most common in males in their 30s – Ankylosing spondylitis,
A type of fracture that rarely causes neurologic deficits – Compression fracture,
Most common at the L4-5 level and may result in sciatica – Herniated nucleus pulposus,
Congenital defect where the posterior elements of the vertebral fail to unite – Spina bifida,
Forward displacement of one vertebra onto another vertebra – Spondylolisthesis,
Dissolution and separation of the pars interarticularis – Spondylolysis
An avulsion fracture of the spinous processes of C7 is called a?
Select one:
a. Clay shoveler’s fracture
b. Hangman’s fracture
c. Jefferson fracture
d. Teardrop burst fracture
a. Clay shoveler’s fracture
Scheuermann disease is a form of?
Select one:
a. Arthritis
b. Subluxation
c. Fracture
d. Scoliosis and/or kyphosis
Scoliosis and/or kyphosis
Anterior wedging and loss of vertebral body height are characteristics of which pathology?
Select one:
a. Compression fracture
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Chance fracture
Compression fracture
Which one of the following conditions is often diagnosed during prenatal ultrasound
Select one:
a. Spina bifida
b. Spondylitis
c. Scoliosis
d. Spondylolisthesis
Spina bifida
The spine consists of an anterior and posterior column. When both columns are disrupted the injury is considered to be?
Select one:
a. Undisplaced
b. Stable
c. Unstable
d. Displaced
c. Unstable
A transverse fracture of the spine often associated with significant visceral injuries is the ________ fracture.
Select one:
a. Jefferson’s
b. Seat belt
c. Clay shoverler’s
d. Hangman’s
Seat belt
An odontoid fracture most commonly occurs from?
Select one:
a. A sudden forward and backwards motion of the head in comparison to the trunk
b. Pathological fracture
c. Sudden side to side motion
d. Axial loading
a. A sudden forward and backwards motion of the head in comparison to the trunk
Pott’s disease is caused by which pathology?
Select one:
a. Metastases
b. Scheuermann’s disease
c. Tuberculosis
d. Schmorl Nodes
c. Tuberculosis
A combination of destructive and blastic lesions from metastases may cause the spine to have a ________ appearance?
Select one:
a. Increased density
b. Sclerotic
c. Sunburst
d. Moth eaten
d. Moth eaten
Where does ankylosing spondylitis usually begin?
Select one:
a. L5
b. L1
c. Sacro-illiac joints
d. T12
c. Sacro-illiac joints
Compression fractures are caused by?
Select one:
a. All of the options
b. Metastatic disease
c. Osteoporosis
d. Trauma
a. All of the options
Chance fractures occur from?
Select one:
a. Hyperflexion
b. Pathological fracture
c. Axial loading
d. Hyperextension
d. Hyperextension
Which of the following fractures is caused by axial loading?
Select one:
a. Chance
b. Hangman’s
c. None of the options
d. Jefferson’s
Jefferson’s
Scheuermann’s disease is?
Select one:
a. Scoliosis
b. Juvenile kyphosis
c. Caused by metastases
d. A form of arthritis
b. Juvenile kyphosis
Which area of the spine is most likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Select one:
a. Lumbar
b. Cervical
c. Thoracolumbar
d. Thoracic
b. Cervical
Which type of odontoid fracture has the highest risk of non union?
Select one:
a. Fracture through the odontoid and lateral masses (type 3)
b. Fracture through the upper portion (type 1)
c. Fracture through the base of the odontoid (type 2)
d. All have the same risk level
Fracture through the base of the odontoid (type 2)
Spondylolisthesis is most common at which spinal level?
Select one:
a. L5/S1
b. L3/L4
c. L2/L3
d. L4/L5
a. L5/S1
What is the correct term for the condition involving a slipped disk?
Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)
