all combined

Question 1

Match the definition with the correct pathology.
Epilepsy,Dementia,Parkinson’s disease, Grand mal seizures,Alzheimers disease, Huntington’s Disease

• Condition of the brain in which temporary disturbances occur, causing a range of signs
• Normal aging results in enlargement of the ventricular system and sulci, causing forgetfulness
• Shaking palsy with stooped posture, stiffness, and slow movement with a fixed facial expression
• Generalised convulsions associated with a patient falling, hypersalivation, and incontinence
• Progressive cerebral atrophy developing at an earlier age than the senile period
• Involuntary movements and early dementia

Answer 1

-Condition of the brain in which temporary disturbances occur, causing a range of signs =Epilepsy,
-Normal aging results in enlargement of the ventricular system and sulci, causing forgetfulness = Dementia,
-Shaking palsy with stooped posture, stiffness, and slow movement with a fixed facial expression = Parkinson’s disease,
Generalised convulsions associated with a patient falling, hypersalivation, and incontinence
=Grand mal seizures,
-Progressive cerebral atrophy developing at an earlier age than the senile period =Alzheimers disease,
-Involuntary movements and early dementia =Huntington’s Disease

Question 2

Which of the following is the most common cause of a brain abscess?
Select one:
a. Streptococci
b. Sinus infection
c. Herpes simplex
d. Haemophilus influenzae

Answer 2

Streptococci

Question 3

Match the definition with the pathology
Zygomatic arch, Skull fracture, Diastatic, Tripod, Le Fort fracture, Blowout fracture, Depressed, Fracture, Nasal bones, Mandible

• The submentovertex projection best demonstrates ______ _______ fractures.
• A sharp lucent line
• A________ fracture is a linear fracture that intersects a skull suture and courses along it
• Fractures of the zygomatic arch, orbital floor, and a separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture.
• Bilateral and horizontal fracture of the maxillae
• Direct blow to the front of the orbit caused by a rapid increase in intraorbital pressure.
• A stellate fracture has multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point, is usually found in the skull, and is known as a ______ fracture.
• The face consists of thin, poorly supported bones that easily _______ in response to a traumatic force.
• The most common facial fracture is a fracture of the _______ _____
• The angle of the ________ is the most common fracture site of the jaw.

Answer 3

The correct answer is:
The submentovertex projection best demonstrates ______ _______ fractures. – Zygomatic arch,
A sharp lucent line – Skull fracture, A________ fracture is a linear fracture that intersects a skull suture and courses along it – Diastatic,
Fractures of the zygomatic arch, orbital floor, and a separation of the zygomaticofrontal suture. – Tripod, Bilateral and horizontal fracture of the maxillae – Le Fort fracture,
Direct blow to the front of the orbit caused by a rapid increase in intraorbital pressure. – Blowout fracture,
A stellate fracture has multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point, is usually found in the skull, and is known as a ______ fracture. – Depressed,
The face consists of thin, poorly supported bones that easily _______ in response to a traumatic force. – Fracture,
The most common facial fracture is a fracture of the _______ _____ – Nasal bones,
The angle of the ________ is the most common fracture site of the jaw. – Mandible

Question 4

A(n) ________ grows slowly, arising from the Schwann cells on the eighth cranial nerve.

Select one:

a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Chromophobe adenoma
c. Meningioma
d. Pituitary adenoma

Answer 4

a. Acoustic neuroma

Question 5

An inadequate production of dopamine may be a contributing cause in cases of _______ disease?

Select one:

a. Huntington’s
b. Parkinson’s
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Epilepsy

Answer 5

b. Parkinson’s

Question 6

An air-fluid level seen in the sphenoid sinus is indicative of a _______ skull fracture?

Select one:

a. Tripod
b. Blowout
c. Basilar
d. Nasal bone

Answer 6

c. Basilar

Question 7

Brain metastases usually originate in the ______?

Select one:

a. Colon and lung
b. Testicles and kidneys
c. Lung and breast
d. Breast and cervix

Answer 7

c. Lung and breast

Question 8

Haemorrhagic strokes are most commonly caused by?

Select one:

a. A berry aneurysm
b. Hypertension
c. Carotid artery disease
d. A and B
e. A and C

Answer 8

d. A and B

Question 9

Movement of the brain within the skull following blunt force trauma to the skull sometimes results in a cerebral__________?

Select one:

a. Contusion
b. Acute hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subdural hematoma

Answer 9

a. Contusion

Question 10

Match the definition with the correct pathology
Metastatic carcinoma, Meningioma, Viii Acoustic neuroma,Pituitary adenoma

Abnormal cells reaching the brain by hematogenous spread

Tumour arising from arachnoid lining cells and attached to the dura mater

Focal or generalised enlargement of the cranial nerve

Causes gigantism in adolescents and acromegaly in adults

Answer 10

Abnormal cells reaching the brain by hematogenous spread – Metastatic carcinoma,
Tumour arising from arachnoid lining cells and attached to the dura mater – Meningioma,
Focal or generalised enlargement of the cranial nerve – Viii Acoustic neuroma,
Causes gigantism in adolescents and acromegaly in adults – Pituitary adenoma

Question 11

Sinus radiographs should be taken using a ________ beam and with the patient in the ________ position?

Select one:

a. Vertical; recumbent
b. Vertical; erect
c. Vertical; prone
d. Horizontal; erect

Answer 11

d. Horizontal; erect

Question 12

The most common form of inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is______?

Select one:

a. Brain abscess
b. Viral meningitis
c. Bacterial meningitis
d. Encephalitis

Answer 12

c. Bacterial meningitis

Question 13

A hematoma occurring after a blunt head injury causing venous bleeding is a(n)_____?

Select one:

a. Cerebral contusion
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid bleed

Answer 13

b. Subdural hematoma

Question 14

Cerebral contusion, Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, Stroke, Cerebrovascular disease, Hydrocephalus, Transient ischemic attacks, Abscess, Epidural

Occurs when the brain comes in contact with the rough skull surfaces.

Hypertensive vascular disease causes ________

Sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurological deficit

Processes causing _____ _____ include abnormal vessel walls, occlusions, blood vessel ruptures, and decreased blood flow.

Dilation of the ventricular system

An embolic stroke or stenosis causing a temporary blockage of a cerebral vessel is a(n) ________.

Loculated infection most often in the grey matter

In _________ empyema, the infectious process is localised outside the dural membrane. This form of empyema is also associated with osteomyelitis.

Answer 14

The correct answer is: Occurs when the brain comes in contact with the rough skull surfaces. – Cerebral contusion,
Hypertensive vascular disease causes ________ – Intraparenchymal haemorrhage,
Sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurological deficit – Stroke,
Processes causing _____ _____ include abnormal vessel walls, occlusions, blood vessel ruptures, and decreased blood flow. – Cerebrovascular disease, Dilation of the ventricular system – Hydrocephalus,
An embolic stroke or stenosis causing a temporary blockage of a cerebral vessel is a(n) ________. – Transient ischemic attacks,
Loculated infection most often in the grey matter – Abscess
, In _________ empyema, the infectious process is localised outside the dural membrane. This form of empyema is also associated with osteomyelitis. – Epidural

Question 15

A meningioma is a benign tumour arising from______?

Select one:

a. Arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura
b. Embryonic remnants
c. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
d. Glial cells spreading by direct extension

Answer 15

a. Arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura

Question 16

Match the definitions with the correct pathology
Viral meningitis, Meningitis, Osteomyelitis of the skull, Encephalitis, Bacterial meningitis

Mumps, polio and potentially herpes simplex cause________?

Acute inflammation of the meninges is__________?

Appears radiographically as multiple small poorly defined areas of lucency

Mild headaches and fever to more severe cerebral dysfunction, seizures, and a coma may result from the viral infection of the brain called_____?

Commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young adults

Answer 16

The correct answer is:
Mumps, polio and potentially herpes simplex cause________? – Viral meningitis,

Acute inflammation of the meninges is__________? – Meningitis,

Appears radiographically as multiple small poorly defined areas of lucency – Osteomyelitis of the skull,

Mild headaches and fever to more severe cerebral dysfunction, seizures, and a coma may result from the viral infection of the brain called_____? – Encephalitis,

Commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young adults – Bacterial meningitis

Question 17

Which of the following is not a membrane covering the brain?

Select one:

a. Epidural
b. Dura mater
c. Arachnoid
d. Pia pater

Answer 17

a. Epidural

Question 18

Le Fort fractures result in a(n)______?

Select one:

a. Bilateral injury at the angle
b. Inferior orbital rim fracture
c. Detached fragment that is unstable
d. Zygoma detachment

Answer 18

c. Detached fragment that is unstable

Question 19

Which is the most common result from a FOOSH in 11-16 years olds?

Select one:

a. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis
b. Salter Harris of the physeal plate
c. Colles fracture
d. Scaphoid fracture

Answer 19

b. Salter Harris of the physeal plate

Question 20

A malignant tumour of the kidney common in children under five years is?

Select one:

a. Teratoma
b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Wilms’ tumour

Answer 20

d. Wilms’ tumour

Question 21

Which of the following would be an indicator for a skull series

Select one:

a. Congenital heart disease
b. Mastoiditis
c. Hyaline membrane disease
d. Osteomyelitis

Answer 21

b. Mastoiditis

Question 22

Which is the most common result from a FOOSH in 4-10 years olds?

Select one:

a. Salter Harris of the physeal plate
b. Scaphoid fracture
c. Colles fracture
d. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis

Answer 22

d. Torus fracture of the distal radial metaphysis

Question 23

Insufficient mineralisation of the immature skeleton results in bowed appearance of the lower limbs.

Select one:

a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Achondroplasia
d. Osteoporosis

Answer 23

a. Rickets

Question 24

Respiratory distress syndrome/hyaline membrane disease is caused by?

Select one:

a. Sticky mucus
b. Inadequate inspiration
c. Viral infection
d. Inadequate amount of surfactant

Answer 24

b. Inadequate inspiration

Question 25

Match the definition/description with the correct abdominal pathology
Pyloric stenosis, Celiac disease, Necrotising enterocolitis NEC, – Hydronephrosis,Atresias, Atresias,
Hirschsprung’s disease

Congenital defect in male urethra

May result in repeated, forceful vomiting

Condition resulting from an allergic reaction to gluten

Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine

Enlarged renal collection system due to obstruction

Condition characterised by absence of an opening in an organ

Characterised by absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine

Answer 25

: Congenital defect in male urethra – Hypospadias,
May result in repeated, forceful vomiting – Pyloric stenosis,
Condition resulting from an allergic reaction to gluten – Celiac disease,
Inflammation of the inner lining of the intestine – Necrotising enterocolitis NEC,
Enlarged renal collection system due to obstruction
– Hydronephrosis,
Condition characterised by absence of an opening in an organ – Atresias,
Characterised by absence of rhythmic contractions of the large intestine – Hirschsprung’s disease

Question 26

Pelvis/hip,  Lower limb, Skull,Lower Limb,Chest, Skull, Abdomen
DDH
Kohler’s disease
Shunt check
Talipes
Atelectasis
Hydrocephalus
Respiratory distress syndrome
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Intussusception
Cystic fibrosis
Haemoptysis
Premature closure of fontanelles
Necrotising enterocolitis
Meconium ileus
Bronchiectasis

Answer 26

DDH– Pelvis/hip, 
Kohler’s disease – Lower limb, 
Shunt check – Skull, 
Talipes – Lower Limb,
 Atelectasis – Chest,
 Hydrocephalus – Skull, 
Respiratory distress syndrome – Chest,
 Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease – Lower limb, Intussusception – Abdomen, 
Cystic fibrosis – Chest,
 Haemoptysis – Chest, 
Premature closure of fontanelles – Skull, 
Necrotising enterocolitis – Abdomen, 
Meconium ileus – Abdomen, 
Bronchiectasis – Chest

Question 27

Match the definition/description with the correct chest pathology
Neonate Graves disease, Meconium aspiration, Epiglottitis, Haemoptysis, Cystic fibrosis, Croup, Hyaline membrane disease

A form of hyperthyroidism
May develop during stressful births
Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway
Coughing up blood
Inherited disease leading to clogging of the bronchi
Viral infection leading to laboured breathing and dry cough
Also known as respiratory distress syndrome

Answer 27

The correct answer is:
A form of hyperthyroidism – Neonate Graves disease, May develop during stressful births – Meconium aspiration,
Bacterial infection can lead to closure of the upper airway – Epiglottitis,
Coughing up blood – Haemoptysis,
Inherited disease leading to clogging of the bronchi – Cystic fibrosis,
Viral infection leading to laboured breathing and dry cough – Croup,
Also known as respiratory distress syndrome – Hyaline membrane disease

Question 28

Malignant bone tumours are rare in young children

Select one:
True
False

Answer 28

True

Question 29

Match the definition/description with the correct skeletal pathology
Osteochondroses, Talipes equinus, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, Osteogenesis imperfecta, Myelocele, Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism,Achondroplasia,
Meningocele, Kohler’s bone disease

Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plates of long bones

Congenital deformity of the foot involving plantar flexion

A common lesion at the hip

Hereditary disorder characterised by soft and fragile bones

Congenital defect in which the spinal cord protrudes through an opening in the vertebral column

Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism

Congenital defect in which the meninges of the spinal cord protrude through an opening in the vertebral column

Inflammation of the navicular bone in the foot

Answer 29

The correct answer is: Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal plates of long bones – Osteochondroses,

Congenital deformity of the foot involving plantar flexion – Talipes equinus,
A common lesion at the hip – Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
, Hereditary disorder characterised by soft and fragile bones – Osteogenesis imperfecta,
Congenital defect in which the spinal cord protrudes through an opening in the vertebral column – Myelocele, Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism – Achondroplasia,
Congenital defect in which the meninges of the spinal cord protrude through an opening in the vertebral column – Meningocele,
Inflammation of the navicular bone in the foot – Kohler’s bone disease

Question 30

Which fracture is more common in paediatrics than adults?

Select one:

a. Smiths fracture
b. Radial head fracture
c. Scaphoid fracture
d. Supercondylar fracture

Answer 30

d. Supercondylar fracture

Question 31

Which Salter- Harris fracture has the worst prognosis?

Select one:

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 5
d. Type 4

Answer 31

c. Type 5

Question 32

Which of the following is caused by inflammation of the inner lining of the bowel, resulting in tissue death?

Select one:

a. Meconium ileus
b. Intussusception
c. Necrotising enterocolitis
d. Congenital heart disease

Answer 32

c. Necrotising enterocolitis

Question 33

Which of the following is not a sign of a perforation on a supine x-ray?

Select one:

a. Wrigler’s sign
b. Football sign
c. Telltale sign
d. Batwing sign

Answer 33

d. Batwing sign

Question 34

The hip may pop or click when evaluating children with which pathology?

Select one:

a. Club foot
b. Chondromas
c. Herniated vertebral disks
d. Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Answer 34

d. Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Question 35

Stridor can be the result of?

Select one:

a. Croup
b. Epiglottitis
c. Allergic reaction
d. Inhalation of a foreign body
e. All of the above

Answer 35

e. All of the above

Question 36

A boot shaped heart is used to describe the cardiac silhouette in which pathology?

Select one:

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Dextrocardia
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 36

d. Tetralogy of Fallot

Question 37

Which statement relating to meconium plugs is false?

Select one:

a. Caused by a functional immaturity of the colon
b. Half of all cases will be associated with Hirschsprung disease
c. Usually transient
d. An enema can cure the pathology

Answer 37

b. Half of all cases will be associated with Hirschsprung disease

Question 38

Match the definition with the correct pathology
Ankylosing spondylitis, Teardrop burst fracture, Spondylitis, Scheuermann disease, Unilateral subluxation, Jefferson fracture, Hangman’s fracture,
Clay shovler’s fracture, Kyphosis, Scoliosis

A form of rheumatoid arthritis

Comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with posterior fragments displaced into the spinal canal

Inflammation of the verterbrae

Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during adolescence

Produces the bow tie sign

Impact fracture from axial loading of the anterior and posterior arch of C1

Fracture through the pedicles and anterior arch of C2 with forward displacement onto C3

Avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7

Abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

Answer 38

The correct answer is:
A form of rheumatoid arthritis – Ankylosing spondylitis, Comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with posterior fragments displaced into the spinal canal – Teardrop burst fracture,
Inflammation of the verterbrae – Spondylitis,
Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during adolescence – Scheuermann disease,
Produces the bow tie sign – Unilateral subluxation, Impact fracture from axial loading of the anterior and posterior arch of C1 – Jefferson fracture,
Fracture through the pedicles and anterior arch of C2 with forward displacement onto C3 – Hangman’s fracture,
Avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7 – Clay shovler’s fracture,
Abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine – Kyphosis,
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine – Scoliosis

Question 39

Match the definition with the correct pathology
Spondylolysis, Scoliosis,Chance fracture, Ankylosing spondylitis, Compression fracture,Herniated nucleus pulposus, Spina bifida,Spondylolisthesis,Spondylolysis

Lateral curvature of the spine

Fracture of the vertebral body caused by hyperflexion force

Answer 2
Inflammatory condition that is most common in males in their 30s

Answer 3
A type of fracture that rarely causes neurologic deficits

Answer 4
Most common at the L4-5 level and may result in sciatica

Answer 5
Congenital defect where the posterior elements of the vertebral fail to unite

Answer 6
Forward displacement of one vertebra onto another vertebra

Answer 7
Dissolution and separation of the pars interarticularis

Answer 39

The correct answer is:
Lateral curvature of the spine – Scoliosis,

Fracture of the vertebral body caused by hyperflexion force – Chance fracture,

Inflammatory condition that is most common in males in their 30s – Ankylosing spondylitis,

A type of fracture that rarely causes neurologic deficits – Compression fracture,

Most common at the L4-5 level and may result in sciatica – Herniated nucleus pulposus,

Congenital defect where the posterior elements of the vertebral fail to unite – Spina bifida,

Forward displacement of one vertebra onto another vertebra – Spondylolisthesis,

Dissolution and separation of the pars interarticularis – Spondylolysis

Question 40

An avulsion fracture of the spinous processes of C7 is called a?

Select one:

a. Clay shoveler’s fracture
b. Hangman’s fracture
c. Jefferson fracture
d. Teardrop burst fracture

Answer 40

a. Clay shoveler’s fracture

Question 41

Scheuermann disease is a form of?

Select one:

a. Arthritis
b. Subluxation
c. Fracture
d. Scoliosis and/or kyphosis

Answer 41

Scoliosis and/or kyphosis

Question 42

Anterior wedging and loss of vertebral body height are characteristics of which pathology?

Select one:

a. Compression fracture
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Chance fracture

Answer 42

Compression fracture

Question 43

Which one of the following conditions is often diagnosed during prenatal ultrasound

Select one:

a. Spina bifida
b. Spondylitis
c. Scoliosis
d. Spondylolisthesis

Answer 43

Spina bifida

Question 44

The spine consists of an anterior and posterior column. When both columns are disrupted the injury is considered to be?

Select one:

a. Undisplaced
b. Stable
c. Unstable
d. Displaced

Answer 44

c. Unstable

Question 45

A transverse fracture of the spine often associated with significant visceral injuries is the ________ fracture.

Select one:

a. Jefferson’s
b. Seat belt
c. Clay shoverler’s
d. Hangman’s

Answer 45

Seat belt

Question 46

An odontoid fracture most commonly occurs from?

Select one:

a. A sudden forward and backwards motion of the head in comparison to the trunk
b. Pathological fracture
c. Sudden side to side motion
d. Axial loading

Answer 46

a. A sudden forward and backwards motion of the head in comparison to the trunk

Question 47

Pott’s disease is caused by which pathology?

Select one:

a. Metastases
b. Scheuermann’s disease
c. Tuberculosis
d. Schmorl Nodes

Answer 47

c. Tuberculosis

Question 48

A combination of destructive and blastic lesions from metastases may cause the spine to have a ________ appearance?

Select one:

a. Increased density
b. Sclerotic
c. Sunburst
d. Moth eaten

Answer 48

d. Moth eaten

Question 49

Where does ankylosing spondylitis usually begin?

Select one:

a. L5
b. L1
c. Sacro-illiac joints
d. T12

Answer 49

c. Sacro-illiac joints

Question 50

Compression fractures are caused by?

Select one:

a. All of the options
b. Metastatic disease
c. Osteoporosis
d. Trauma

Answer 50

a. All of the options

Question 51

Chance fractures occur from?

Select one:

a. Hyperflexion
b. Pathological fracture
c. Axial loading
d. Hyperextension

Answer 51

d. Hyperextension

Question 52

Which of the following fractures is caused by axial loading?

Select one:

a. Chance
b. Hangman’s
c. None of the options
d. Jefferson’s

Answer 52

Jefferson’s

Question 53

Scheuermann’s disease is?

Select one:

a. Scoliosis
b. Juvenile kyphosis
c. Caused by metastases
d. A form of arthritis

Answer 53

b. Juvenile kyphosis

Question 54

Which area of the spine is most likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

Select one:

a. Lumbar
b. Cervical
c. Thoracolumbar
d. Thoracic

Answer 54

b. Cervical

Question 55

Which type of odontoid fracture has the highest risk of non union?

Select one:

a. Fracture through the odontoid and lateral masses (type 3)
b. Fracture through the upper portion (type 1)
c. Fracture through the base of the odontoid (type 2)
d. All have the same risk level

Answer 55

Fracture through the base of the odontoid (type 2)

Question 56

Spondylolisthesis is most common at which spinal level?

Select one:

a. L5/S1
b. L3/L4
c. L2/L3
d. L4/L5

Answer 56

a. L5/S1

Question 57

What is the correct term for the condition involving a slipped disk?

Answer 57

Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)